CompTIA SY0-701 CompTIA Security+ Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 8 Q106-120
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Question 106
Which of the following best describes a zero-trust security model?
A) Trust all devices and users within the internal network by default
B) Verify every user and device before granting access, regardless of network location
C) Apply security only at the network perimeter
D) Allow unrestricted access to all corporate applications for trusted employees
Answer: B) Verify every user and device before granting access, regardless of network location
Explanation:
The zero-trust security model is an approach to cybersecurity that assumes no implicit trust exists for any user, device, or system, whether inside or outside the organization’s network. Traditional security models often relied on perimeter-based defense, trusting users and devices once they were inside the network. Zero-trust challenges this notion by implementing continuous verification, strict access controls, and least privilege principles. Every access request is evaluated dynamically based on identity, device posture, location, and context before granting permission. This reduces the risk of lateral movement by attackers, insider threats, and credential misuse.
The first choice, trusting all devices and users within the internal network by default, describes the traditional perimeter security model. This approach assumes that threats only originate externally, which has proven insufficient in today’s environment, where insider threats and compromised internal devices are common. Attackers who breach the perimeter can move freely within the network, making the traditional trust model less effective.
The second choice is correct because zero-trust continuously authenticates and authorizes users and devices. Access decisions are granular, context-aware, and based on risk assessments. Features of zero-trust include multi-factor authentication, adaptive access, micro-segmentation, continuous monitoring, and device compliance checks. Users are given access only to the resources necessary for their role, limiting exposure if credentials are compromised. Zero-trust also integrates security policies across endpoints, applications, and networks to ensure that every action is verified and logged.
The third choice, applying security only at the network perimeter, is insufficient because threats can bypass perimeter defenses through phishing, stolen credentials, insider threats, or compromised devices. Zero-trust removes reliance on a single boundary and instead enforces security at all points, including endpoints, applications, cloud services, and networks.
The fourth choice, allowing unrestricted access to trusted employees, violates the principle of least privilege. Even trusted employees could be compromised, and granting full access increases the risk of data breaches. Zero-trust mitigates this by providing minimal access necessary for business functions and continuously validating that access.
Implementing zero-trust involves several technical components. Identity and access management (IAM) solutions enforce user authentication and authorization. Micro-segmentation divides the network into smaller zones, restricting lateral movement. Endpoint detection and response (EDR) tools monitor device compliance and behavior. Security information and event management (SIEM) platforms collect, correlate, and analyze security events to support continuous validation. Adaptive access policies evaluate risk factors such as geolocation, device posture, and behavioral anomalies before granting access.
Zero-trust is especially relevant in modern environments with cloud adoption, remote work, and mobile device usage. Traditional perimeter defenses are insufficient when employees access corporate resources from various locations, devices, and networks. By continuously verifying identity, device security, and session context, zero-trust reduces the attack surface and limits the potential damage from compromised credentials or devices.
Zero-trust also supports compliance requirements by providing detailed access logs, enforcing segregation of duties, and restricting unauthorized access to sensitive data. Organizations adopting zero-trust report improved security posture, faster detection of compromised accounts, and reduced risk of insider threats. The model emphasizes proactive security and resilience, rather than reactive defense.
Zero-trust security assumes no entity is inherently trustworthy. By continuously verifying users and devices, implementing least privilege, and enforcing granular access controls, it reduces risk and protects organizational assets in dynamic, modern IT environments.
Question 107
Which of the following best describes the primary function of a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution?
A) To encrypt all files on a network
B) To prevent sensitive data from leaving the organization
C) To monitor employee web browsing behavior
D) To scan for malware on endpoints
Answer: B) To prevent sensitive data from leaving the organization
Explanation:
A Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution is designed to identify, monitor, and protect sensitive data within an organization to prevent unauthorized disclosure, exfiltration, or misuse. Sensitive data can include personally identifiable information (PII), financial records, intellectual property, trade secrets, or regulatory-protected data such as healthcare records. DLP solutions enforce policies that define how data can be used, accessed, stored, and transmitted across endpoints, networks, and cloud environments. Organizations use DLP to ensure compliance with regulations like GDPR, HIPAA, PCI DSS, and SOX, as well as to protect proprietary business information. DLP is an essential component of modern cybersecurity programs because human error, insider threats, and external attacks all pose significant risks to sensitive data.
The first choice, encrypting all files on a network, is related to data-at-rest encryption, which ensures that stored data is unreadable to unauthorized users. While encryption is a critical security control, it does not prevent data from being sent outside the organization intentionally or inadvertently. DLP complements encryption by monitoring, controlling, and enforcing policies regarding data movement. Encryption protects data confidentiality, but without DLP, an authorized user could still exfiltrate sensitive files and transfer them outside the organization.
The second choice is correct because DLP is designed to prevent sensitive information from leaving the organization. It uses techniques such as content inspection, contextual analysis, and pattern matching to identify data that should be protected. Once identified, DLP policies can block, encrypt, quarantine, or alert administrators regarding attempted transmissions of sensitive information. DLP can operate on endpoints, network traffic, email, cloud storage, and removable media. By enforcing consistent policies across multiple channels, DLP mitigates the risk of accidental leaks, insider threats, and intentional data theft.
The third choice, monitoring employee web browsing behavior, is not the primary purpose of DLP. While some DLP systems may include web traffic monitoring to identify attempts to upload sensitive information, their main focus is on protecting sensitive data, not tracking overall browsing behavior. Monitoring web activity may be part of broader user activity monitoring, but it is outside the core functionality of DLP.
The fourth choice, scanning for malware on endpoints, is a function of endpoint protection platforms (EPP) or antivirus solutions. Malware detection focuses on identifying malicious files or behavior to prevent infection and compromise. While DLP and endpoint protection may complement each other, DLP’s focus is on protecting sensitive data rather than detecting malicious software.
DLP solutions are categorized based on where they monitor and enforce policies. Network-based DLP monitors data in motion, inspecting emails, HTTP/HTTPS traffic, and file transfers to prevent unauthorized transmission of sensitive data. Endpoint-based DLP monitors data in use, such as copying files to USB drives or printing sensitive documents. Storage-based DLP monitors data at rest to ensure that sensitive information is not improperly stored or accessed. Organizations often deploy a combination of these approaches to achieve comprehensive data protection.
Policy configuration is critical for effective DLP implementation. Policies define which types of data are sensitive, what actions should be taken when policy violations occur, and who is authorized to access or transmit specific information. DLP systems often integrate with identity management and access control solutions to enforce policies dynamically based on user roles, context, or risk factors. For example, an employee in the finance department may be allowed to send financial reports internally but blocked from emailing them to external domains.
DLP also supports compliance and auditing by generating detailed logs of attempted data transfers, policy violations, and enforcement actions. Organizations can use these reports to demonstrate regulatory compliance and identify potential insider threats. DLP technologies continue to evolve with the adoption of cloud computing, supporting SaaS applications, cloud storage, and collaboration platforms, ensuring consistent data protection across on-premises and cloud environments.
A DLP solution is primarily designed to prevent sensitive data from leaving the organization. By monitoring data in motion, in use, and at rest, enforcing policies, and providing visibility and control, DLP mitigates risks of accidental or malicious data loss. It complements other security technologies, such as encryption and endpoint protection, and is a critical tool for regulatory compliance, intellectual property protection, and overall cybersecurity resilience.
Question 108
Which of the following best describes the purpose of endpoint detection and response (EDR) solutions?
A) To provide antivirus scanning only
B) To monitor endpoints for suspicious activity, detect threats, and respond to incidents
C) To encrypt all endpoint data for security
D) To manage software updates across endpoints
Answer: B) To monitor endpoints for suspicious activity, detect threats, and respond to incidents
Explanation:
Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) solutions are security technologies designed to continuously monitor endpoints, such as desktops, laptops, servers, and mobile devices, for suspicious behavior and potential security threats. EDR solutions go beyond traditional antivirus or signature-based detection by using behavioral analysis, machine learning, and threat intelligence to identify sophisticated threats, including malware, ransomware, zero-day exploits, and insider threats. EDR systems provide visibility into endpoint activity, log and analyze events, and offer tools for incident response, containment, and remediation. Organizations use EDR to enhance endpoint security and improve their overall threat detection and response capabilities.
The first choice, providing antivirus scanning only, is insufficient to describe EDR. Traditional antivirus solutions rely primarily on signature-based detection, which may not identify modern threats or sophisticated malware. While antivirus functionality may be included as part of an EDR platform, EDR goes beyond basic scanning to provide detection of suspicious behavior, threat hunting, and automated or manual response capabilities. Antivirus alone is limited in scope and does not offer the proactive detection and response features that define EDR.
The second choice is correct because EDR systems continuously monitor endpoint activities, detect anomalies, investigate suspicious events, and provide capabilities for responding to incidents. EDR tools often capture detailed endpoint telemetry, including process creation, network connections, file modifications, and registry changes. Security teams can analyze this data to identify attacks, trace their origin, and remediate affected systems. EDR solutions may include automated responses, such as isolating infected endpoints from the network, terminating malicious processes, or rolling back changes. By integrating with threat intelligence feeds and SIEM platforms, EDR enhances visibility across the enterprise, allowing for faster identification of threats and minimizing dwell time.
The third choice, encrypting endpoint data, is a function of endpoint encryption solutions rather than EDR. While encryption protects sensitive data from unauthorized access, it does not provide monitoring, detection, or response capabilities. EDR focuses on identifying and mitigating threats, whereas encryption focuses on data confidentiality.
The fourth choice, managing software updates, is a function of patch management systems. Patch management ensures that endpoints are up to date with security fixes to reduce vulnerabilities, but it does not detect or respond to malicious activity in real time. EDR complements patch management by monitoring for exploit attempts, malware execution, or suspicious behaviors that might occur even in fully patched systems.
EDR solutions provide several critical capabilities. First, they collect detailed telemetry from endpoints, enabling security teams to detect patterns of attack, identify compromised devices, and trace the sequence of events during an incident. Second, EDR supports threat hunting, where security analysts proactively search for hidden threats or suspicious activity that may not trigger traditional alerts. Third, EDR enables incident response by isolating compromised endpoints, killing malicious processes, and performing forensic analysis. Fourth, EDR helps organizations comply with regulatory requirements by providing logging, auditing, and reporting features.
EDR deployment requires careful planning, including defining policies, configuring alert thresholds, and integrating with existing security infrastructure. Organizations must train security teams to interpret EDR data effectively and respond promptly to incidents. The combination of continuous monitoring, behavioral analytics, automated response, and integration with threat intelligence makes EDR a cornerstone of modern cybersecurity strategies.
EDR solutions provide continuous monitoring, detection of suspicious activity, and response capabilities for endpoints, enabling organizations to proactively defend against advanced threats, reduce dwell time, and improve incident response efficiency. Unlike antivirus, encryption, or patch management alone, EDR offers a holistic approach to endpoint security.
Question 109
Which of the following best describes a SQL injection attack?
A) Injecting malicious code into a web application to manipulate or steal database information
B) Sending unsolicited emails to users to obtain sensitive information
C) Overloading a database server with excessive queries to make it unavailable
D) Exploiting weak passwords to gain access to a database
Answer: A) Injecting malicious code into a web application to manipulate or steal database information
Explanation:
A SQL injection attack is a type of cyberattack in which an attacker inserts or “injects” malicious Structured Query Language (SQL) statements into a web application’s input fields or HTTP requests. These malicious statements are executed by the database backend, allowing attackers to bypass application security controls, manipulate database operations, retrieve unauthorized data, or even modify or delete records. SQL injection is one of the most common and severe web application vulnerabilities because databases often store sensitive information such as login credentials, financial records, personal data, or intellectual property. SQL injection exploits insufficient input validation, poor parameterization of queries, or weak coding practices.
The first choice is correct because SQL injection specifically targets web applications connected to databases. Attackers can use SQL injection to read sensitive data from tables, escalate privileges, modify data, or even execute administrative commands on the database server. Techniques include classic in-band SQL injection, blind SQL injection, and out-of-band SQL injection. Classic in-band attacks directly retrieve data through the same channel used for injection. Blind SQL injection occurs when the attacker cannot directly see results and must infer database behavior through responses or timing. Out-of-band SQL injection uses alternative communication channels to exfiltrate data when standard channels are unavailable. Properly coded applications implement prepared statements, input validation, and parameterized queries to prevent such attacks.
The second choice, sending unsolicited emails to users to obtain sensitive information, describes phishing attacks. While both phishing and SQL injection are cyber threats, phishing relies on social engineering rather than exploiting database vulnerabilities. SQL injection is technical, targeting the interaction between an application and its database rather than manipulating users.
The third choice, overloading a database server with excessive queries to make it unavailable, describes a type of denial-of-service attack against databases. While it may disrupt service, it does not allow attackers to manipulate or steal data directly, which is the defining characteristic of SQL injection.
The fourth choice, exploiting weak passwords to gain access to a database, refers to brute-force attacks or password attacks. While weak credentials are a serious concern, SQL injection bypasses authentication mechanisms entirely and exploits flaws in query execution. Attackers do not need valid passwords to execute SQL injection if the application is vulnerable.
Mitigating SQL injection requires secure coding practices, including input validation, escaping user input, using parameterized queries, stored procedures, least privilege database accounts, and web application firewalls. Regular code review, security testing, and penetration testing are essential to identify and remediate potential vulnerabilities. Organizations must also monitor database activity for abnormal query patterns and access attempts that indicate possible SQL injection attempts.
SQL injection attacks can have severe consequences, including data breaches, regulatory noncompliance, loss of customer trust, and financial losses. High-profile breaches caused by SQL injection highlight the importance of secure development practices and continuous monitoring of web applications. Preventing SQL injection is a fundamental aspect of web application security and should be integrated into the software development lifecycle from design through deployment.
SQL injection attacks involve injecting malicious SQL code into web applications to manipulate or exfiltrate database information. They exploit insufficient input validation or insecure query handling and are distinct from phishing, denial-of-service, or password attacks. Effective mitigation involves secure coding, input validation, and database security best practices.
Question 110
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a network intrusion detection system (NIDS)?
A) To prevent all malware from entering the network
B) To monitor network traffic for suspicious activity and alert administrators
C) To encrypt all data transmitted across the network
D) To manage user access and authentication
Answer: B) To monitor network traffic for suspicious activity and alert administrators
Explanation:
A network intrusion detection system (NIDS) is a security tool designed to monitor and analyze network traffic for signs of malicious activity, policy violations, or abnormal behavior. NIDS passively observes traffic across network segments, comparing packets and flows against known attack signatures, anomaly patterns, or heuristic rules. When potential threats are detected, the system generates alerts, allowing security teams to investigate and respond. NIDS do not directly block traffic; instead, they focus on detection and situational awareness, complementing other security controls such as firewalls, intrusion prevention systems (IPS), and endpoint protection.
The first choice, preventing all malware from entering the network, describes the function of proactive security tools like antivirus, IPS, or gateway security. While NIDS can detect malware-related activity by analyzing network patterns, its primary purpose is monitoring and alerting, not active prevention. NIDS helps identify malicious behaviors, such as suspicious scanning, exploit attempts, or unusual data exfiltration, but it does not inherently block traffic or remove malware. Its value lies in providing visibility and early warning to enable rapid response.
The second choice is correct because NIDS is fundamentally a monitoring and alerting tool. It inspects network traffic using signature-based, anomaly-based, or heuristic detection methods. Signature-based detection involves comparing observed network packets against known attack patterns or fingerprints, such as SQL injection attempts, port scans, or malware command-and-control traffic. Anomaly-based detection uses statistical models or machine learning to identify deviations from baseline network behavior, which could indicate new or unknown threats. Heuristic detection applies rule-based logic to identify potentially suspicious activity. When threats are detected, NIDS generates alerts that provide information such as source IP, destination IP, port numbers, and the nature of the suspected attack. Security teams can then investigate and respond according to predefined incident response procedures.
The third choice, encrypting all network data, refers to encryption protocols such as TLS, VPNs, or IPsec. While encryption protects the confidentiality and integrity of data in transit, it does not detect or analyze network traffic for malicious activity. In fact, encryption can make NIDS monitoring more challenging because packet payloads may not be visible for inspection. Solutions like SSL/TLS inspection or endpoint monitoring are sometimes used in conjunction with NIDS to maintain visibility without compromising security.
The fourth choice, managing user access and authentication, is the function of identity and access management (IAM) systems. IAM ensures that only authorized users can access resources and enforces policies such as password requirements, multi-factor authentication, and role-based access. While IAM logs may feed into network monitoring and security analytics, NIDS itself focuses on network traffic analysis rather than authentication control.
NIDS deployment typically involves placing sensors at strategic points in the network, such as at network ingress/egress points, critical subnets, or near high-value assets. These sensors capture network traffic for real-time analysis and logging. NIDS can be configured to monitor internal network segments to detect lateral movement or reconnaissance activity by attackers who have already bypassed perimeter defenses. Alerts generated by NIDS often feed into Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) platforms, allowing correlation with logs from endpoints, servers, and applications for comprehensive threat detection and response.
Modern NIDS solutions incorporate advanced features, including machine learning for anomaly detection, deep packet inspection, protocol analysis, and integration with threat intelligence feeds. By analyzing known indicators of compromise (IOCs) and emerging threat patterns, NIDS provides early warning and situational awareness, enabling organizations to respond proactively to attacks. Security teams use NIDS data for threat hunting, forensic investigation, and regulatory reporting.
A network intrusion detection system monitors network traffic for suspicious activity and generates alerts to enable timely investigation and response. Unlike encryption, IAM, or antivirus, NIDS does not actively block traffic but provides visibility into potential threats across the network. Proper deployment, tuning, and integration with other security tools allow organizations to detect attacks, mitigate risks, and strengthen their overall cybersecurity posture.
Question 111
Which of the following best describes cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks?
A) Exploiting SQL queries to retrieve database information
B) Injecting malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users
C) Flooding a website with traffic to make it unavailable
D) Intercepting encrypted network communications to steal credentials
Answer: B) Injecting malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users
Explanation:
Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a type of web application vulnerability in which attackers inject malicious scripts into content that is subsequently viewed by other users. These scripts are executed in the victim’s browser, allowing the attacker to steal cookies, session tokens, or other sensitive data, manipulate webpage content, or redirect users to malicious websites. XSS exploits the trust that users place in a legitimate website, and it is commonly found in web applications that fail to properly validate or encode user input before rendering it in web pages.
The first choice, exploiting SQL queries to retrieve database information, describes SQL injection attacks rather than XSS. SQL injection targets database backends by manipulating input fields to execute unauthorized queries, whereas XSS focuses on the client-side execution of scripts.
The second choice is correct because XSS attacks specifically involve injecting malicious code into web pages so that when other users access the page, the code executes in their browsers. There are multiple types of XSS, including stored XSS, where the malicious script is permanently stored on the server and served to all visitors; reflected XSS, where the script is included in a request and immediately reflected in the response; and DOM-based XSS, which manipulates the Document Object Model in the user’s browser without involving the server. Attackers use XSS to steal session cookies, redirect users to phishing sites, inject keyloggers, or perform other malicious actions. Preventing XSS requires proper input validation, output encoding, and the use of security headers like Content Security Policy (CSP).
The third choice, flooding a website with traffic, describes a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack, which aims to make a service unavailable by consuming resources rather than executing scripts on client devices. While DDoS disrupts service availability, XSS targets the confidentiality and integrity of data in users’ browsers.
The fourth choice, intercepting encrypted network communications, describes man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks. MITM attacks exploit network communication vulnerabilities to steal credentials or alter data in transit. XSS does not intercept network traffic; it exploits a web application’s output handling to execute malicious scripts on the client side.
XSS attacks can have significant consequences. Attackers can hijack user accounts by stealing session cookies, redirecting victims to malicious websites, performing phishing attacks, or executing arbitrary actions on behalf of users. Security teams use input validation, output encoding, secure development practices, and automated scanning tools to detect and remediate XSS vulnerabilities. Regular security testing, including penetration testing and code reviews, is essential to prevent XSS in web applications.
XSS attacks involve injecting malicious scripts into web pages so that other users unknowingly execute them. They exploit weaknesses in web application input handling and can compromise user data, browser sessions, and website integrity. Preventing XSS requires proper coding practices, validation, encoding, and client-side security measures.
Question 112
Which of the following best describes a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack?
A) Exploiting weak passwords to gain unauthorized access
B) Flooding a target system with traffic from multiple sources to make it unavailable
C) Stealing sensitive data from a database
D) Injecting malicious scripts into a web application
Answer: B) Flooding a target system with traffic from multiple sources to make it unavailable
Explanation:
A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack is a coordinated attempt to disrupt the availability of a system, application, or network by overwhelming it with excessive traffic from multiple sources. Unlike a standard denial-of-service attack originating from a single device, DDoS attacks leverage networks of compromised machines, often called botnets, to generate massive amounts of traffic. These attacks aim to exhaust system resources, such as CPU, memory, or bandwidth, preventing legitimate users from accessing the targeted service.
The first choice, exploiting weak passwords, refers to brute-force attacks that aim to gain unauthorized access to accounts. This differs from DDoS attacks, which focus on resource exhaustion rather than credential compromise. The third choice, stealing data from a database, describes data exfiltration attacks. While such attacks target confidentiality, DDoS targets availability. The fourth choice, injecting malicious scripts, describes cross-site scripting (XSS) or other code injection attacks, which compromise integrity or confidentiality rather than availability.
DDoS attacks can take multiple forms. Volumetric attacks generate massive traffic to saturate bandwidth. Protocol attacks exploit weaknesses in network protocols to consume server resources. Application-layer attacks target specific services, such as HTTP or DNS requests, overwhelming the service with legitimate-looking traffic. Mitigating DDoS requires multi-layered defenses, including traffic filtering, rate limiting, load balancing, and cloud-based DDoS protection services. Monitoring network traffic patterns and implementing redundancy can reduce the impact of attacks. DDoS attacks continue to grow in frequency and complexity, making proactive preparation critical.
Question 113
Which of the following best describes a brute-force attack?
A) Attempting to guess passwords or cryptographic keys through exhaustive trial-and-error
B) Exploiting vulnerabilities in software to execute unauthorized commands
C) Intercepting network traffic to steal credentials
D) Delivering malicious payloads via email attachments
Answer: A) Attempting to guess passwords or cryptographic keys through exhaustive trial-and-error
Explanation:
A brute-force attack is a method used by attackers to systematically guess passwords, encryption keys, or authentication tokens until the correct one is found. The attacker uses computing power to attempt every possible combination of characters or keys, making brute-force attacks effective against weak or short passwords. These attacks exploit the predictability and simplicity of user-generated passwords or improperly configured cryptographic systems.
The second choice, exploiting software vulnerabilities, describes attacks such as remote code execution, which rely on flaws in applications rather than guessing secrets. The third choice, intercepting network traffic, refers to man-in-the-middle attacks that capture data, while brute-force does not rely on interception. The fourth choice, delivering malicious payloads via email, describes phishing or malware distribution, which relies on social engineering rather than exhaustive guessing.
Mitigation of brute-force attacks includes enforcing strong password policies, implementing account lockouts after repeated failures, using multi-factor authentication, and employing rate-limiting mechanisms. Brute-force attacks are time-consuming but can succeed if credentials are weak, making preventive measures critical. Organizations can also monitor authentication logs for unusual patterns indicating brute-force attempts.
Question 114
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a virtual private network (VPN)?
A) To provide end-to-end encryption and secure communication over untrusted networks
B) To prevent all malware infections on a device
C) To monitor network traffic for malicious activity
D) To authenticate users based on role assignments
Answer: A) To provide end-to-end encryption and secure communication over untrusted networks
Explanation:
A virtual private network (VPN) is a security technology that establishes an encrypted connection between a user or device and a remote network. VPNs protect data confidentiality and integrity by encrypting traffic over untrusted networks, such as public Wi-Fi or the internet. VPNs also provide authentication, ensuring that only authorized users can access network resources.
The second choice, preventing malware infections, is the function of endpoint protection software rather than VPNs. The third choice, monitoring network traffic, describes intrusion detection systems. The fourth choice, authenticating users based on roles, is the function of identity and access management. VPNs focus on protecting communication and maintaining privacy.
VPNs can use protocols such as IPsec, SSL/TLS, or WireGuard, providing confidentiality, integrity, and authentication. They are widely used for remote work, secure cloud access, and protecting sensitive communications. Proper VPN configuration and endpoint security are critical for ensuring effective protection and minimizing potential vulnerabilities.
Question 115
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a penetration test?
A) To exploit known vulnerabilities to evaluate the security posture of systems
B) To prevent all cyberattacks from occurring
C) To monitor network traffic for anomalies
D) To encrypt sensitive data
Answer: A) To exploit known vulnerabilities to evaluate the security posture of systems
Explanation:
A penetration test, or pen test, is a controlled security assessment in which ethical hackers attempt to exploit vulnerabilities in systems, networks, or applications. The goal is to identify weaknesses, evaluate security controls, and provide actionable recommendations to improve the organization’s security posture. Pen tests simulate real-world attacks to determine the effectiveness of defenses and uncover risks before malicious actors can exploit them.
The second choice, preventing all cyberattacks, is unrealistic; pen testing identifies weaknesses but does not prevent attacks in real time. The third choice, monitoring network traffic, describes intrusion detection systems rather than penetration testing. The fourth choice, encrypting sensitive data, protects confidentiality but does not involve active testing of defenses.
Penetration testing includes reconnaissance, vulnerability scanning, exploitation, and reporting. Tests can be external, internal, black-box, or white-box, depending on the knowledge and scope provided. Recommendations from pen tests help organizations prioritize mitigation, patch vulnerabilities, improve policies, and strengthen incident response.
Question 116
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a firewall in a network?
A) To encrypt all network traffic
B) To control incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules
C) To scan endpoints for malware
D) To monitor user login behavior
Answer: B) To control incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules
Explanation:
A firewall is a network security device or software that monitors and controls traffic between networks based on predetermined security rules. Its primary function is to allow legitimate traffic while blocking unauthorized or potentially harmful communication. Firewalls operate at various layers of the network stack and may be configured to filter traffic based on IP addresses, ports, protocols, or application behavior. Firewalls are fundamental components of network security, providing the first line of defense against external threats and helping to enforce organizational policies regarding network access.
The first choice, encrypting all network traffic, is a function of encryption technologies such as TLS or VPNs, not firewalls. While firewalls may inspect encrypted traffic with SSL/TLS inspection, their core purpose is filtering traffic rather than providing encryption. The third choice, scanning endpoints for malware, is handled by endpoint protection platforms and antivirus software, not firewalls. The fourth choice, monitoring user login behavior, is the function of identity and access management systems or security information and event management solutions.
Firewalls can be implemented as hardware appliances, software solutions, or cloud-based services. They can enforce security policies at the perimeter, segment internal networks, and filter traffic between different network zones. Stateful firewalls track the state of connections and allow return traffic based on established sessions, while next-generation firewalls incorporate advanced features such as intrusion prevention, deep packet inspection, and application awareness.
Proper firewall deployment requires defining rules that balance security and operational needs. Misconfigured or overly permissive rules can create vulnerabilities, while overly restrictive rules can impede legitimate traffic. Organizations should regularly review firewall policies, monitor logs, and update rules to reflect changes in business requirements and emerging threats. Firewalls work in conjunction with other security controls to form a defense-in-depth strategy, ensuring that multiple layers of protection are in place to mitigate risk.
Firewalls are essential for controlling network traffic based on security policies. They enforce rules to allow legitimate communication and block unauthorized access, forming a critical component of an organization’s network security strategy. Firewalls complement other security technologies such as intrusion detection systems, endpoint protection, and encryption to provide comprehensive protection for networked environments.
Question 117
Which of the following best describes the purpose of patch management?
A) To monitor network traffic for anomalies
B) To regularly update software and systems to fix security vulnerabilities
C) To prevent unauthorized access to files through encryption
D) To perform penetration testing on applications
Answer: B) To regularly update software and systems to fix security vulnerabilities
Explanation:
Patch management is the process of acquiring, testing, and deploying updates or patches to software, operating systems, and applications to address security vulnerabilities and improve functionality. Timely patching is critical because unpatched systems are common targets for attackers who exploit known vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access, install malware, or disrupt operations. Patch management helps organizations maintain a secure IT environment and reduce the risk of cyberattacks.
The first choice, monitoring network traffic, describes intrusion detection or network monitoring systems, not patch management. The third choice, encrypting files, is a data protection measure unrelated to patch management. The fourth choice, penetration testing, is a security assessment activity rather than ongoing software maintenance.
Effective patch management involves inventorying all systems and applications, evaluating available updates for relevance and compatibility, testing patches in a controlled environment, and deploying them across the organization. Prioritization is important; critical patches addressing severe vulnerabilities should be applied immediately, while lower-risk patches may follow standard update cycles. Automation tools can streamline the process, ensuring timely deployment and reducing human error.
Patch management also includes monitoring systems to verify that updates are installed correctly and evaluating for potential conflicts or failures. Proper patching minimizes exposure to exploits and enhances overall security posture. It is often integrated with change management processes to ensure updates do not disrupt business operations. Compliance regulations frequently mandate patch management to demonstrate proactive risk mitigation and adherence to security standards.
Patch management ensures that systems and applications are updated to fix vulnerabilities, enhance security, and maintain operational stability. It is a fundamental practice for protecting IT environments against cyber threats and supporting compliance efforts.
Question 118
Which of the following best describes the function of a honeypot in cybersecurity?
A) To encrypt sensitive data on endpoints
B) To act as a decoy system to attract attackers and study their behavior
C) To prevent phishing attacks from reaching users
D) To monitor user login attempts for suspicious activity
Answer: B) To act as a decoy system to attract attackers and study their behavior
Explanation:
A honeypot is a cybersecurity mechanism that simulates a vulnerable system or network to attract attackers. The primary purpose is to observe attacker techniques, gather intelligence on threats, and detect intrusion attempts. Honeypots are intentionally designed to appear legitimate and valuable, enticing attackers to interact with them rather than real systems. This provides security teams with insights into attack methods, tools, and behavior patterns.
The first choice, encrypting data, is a protective measure unrelated to honeypots. The third choice, preventing phishing attacks, is a function of email security solutions. The fourth choice, monitoring login attempts, is part of identity and access management or intrusion detection, not the primary function of honeypots.
Honeypots can be low-interaction, simulating basic services, or high-interaction, mimicking fully functional systems. Security analysts use data collected from honeypots to improve defenses, update intrusion detection rules, and study emerging threats. Honeypots are valuable in research, threat intelligence, and early-warning systems, allowing organizations to understand attacker behavior without compromising real assets. Proper isolation and monitoring are essential to prevent attackers from using the honeypot as a staging point for further attacks.
Question 119
Which of the following best describes the purpose of multi-factor authentication (MFA)?
A) To encrypt user credentials
B) To require multiple forms of verification before granting access
C) To monitor user network activity for anomalies
D) To perform automated patching on endpoints
Answer: B) To require multiple forms of verification before granting access
Explanation:
Multi-factor authentication (MFA enhances security by requiring users to provide two or more independent credentials before access is granted. Typically, these factors include something the user knows (password), something the user has (token or mobile device), and something the user is (biometric). MFA mitigates risks associated with stolen or compromised passwords and ensures that even if one factor is compromised, unauthorized access is prevented.
The first choice, encrypting credentials, is a data protection measure but does not provide authentication verification. The third choice, monitoring activity, is the function of security monitoring or SIEM systems. The fourth choice, automated patching, is part of patch management. MFA focuses on verifying identity and access control.
MFA is widely used in enterprise networks, cloud services, and sensitive applications. Implementing MFA significantly reduces the risk of account compromise, supports compliance, and improves overall security posture. It is a cornerstone of identity and access management strategies and complements other security controls like strong passwords and endpoint protection.
Question 120
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system?
A) To encrypt all organizational data
B) To collect, correlate, and analyze security events from multiple sources
C) To manage software updates across endpoints
D) To block network traffic automatically
Answer: B) To collect, correlate, and analyze security events from multiple sources
Explanation:
A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system centralizes the collection, correlation, and analysis of security-related data from multiple sources across an organization. SIEM solutions ingest logs from servers, applications, network devices, endpoints, and cloud services, providing visibility into potential threats and supporting incident response. By correlating events, SIEMs can identify patterns indicative of attacks, insider threats, or misconfigurations.
The first choice, encrypting data, protects confidentiality but is not SIEM’s purpose. The third choice, managing updates, relates to patch management. The fourth choice, blocking traffic, is a function of firewalls or IPS; SIEM focuses on detection and analysis rather than prevention.
SIEM provides real-time monitoring, alerting, historical analysis, and compliance reporting. Security teams rely on SIEM to detect threats, prioritize incidents, and improve overall security posture. Integration with threat intelligence, incident response workflows, and dashboards makes SIEM a central tool in modern cybersecurity operations.