Checkpoint 156-215.81.20 Certified Security Administrator — R81.20 (CCSA) Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 4 Q46-60

Checkpoint 156-215.81.20 Certified Security Administrator — R81.20 (CCSA) Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 4 Q46-60

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Question 46

Which Check Point blade is designed to protect against advanced threats by combining real-time intelligence feeds with proactive prevention technologies?

A) Threat Prevention
B) IPS
C) Application Control
D) URL Filtering

Answer: A) Threat Prevention

Explanation:

The first choice refers to the overarching blade that integrates multiple advanced security technologies into a unified framework. Threat Prevention combines intrusion prevention, anti-bot, antivirus, threat emulation, and threat extraction to deliver layered defense against modern cyberattacks. It leverages real-time intelligence feeds from Check Point’s ThreatCloud, ensuring that protections are continuously updated with the latest indicators of compromise, malicious IPs, and malware signatures. By combining proactive prevention with intelligence-driven detection, Threat Prevention provides comprehensive protection against zero-day attacks, ransomware, phishing, and advanced persistent threats.

The second choice is a blade that inspects traffic for exploit attempts and protocol anomalies. While IPS is a critical component of Threat Prevention, it does not encompass the full suite of technologies. Its role is vulnerability shielding rather than integrated advanced threat protection.

The third choice is a blade that governs application usage. It identifies applications regardless of port or protocol and allows administrators to permit or block them based on policy. While it controls application behavior, it does not provide advanced threat protection. Its focus is on acceptable use policies rather than layered defense.

The fourth choice is a blade that categorizes websites and enforces access policies based on categories and risk. While it protects against malicious websites, it does not provide comprehensive advanced threat protection. Its role is web filtering rather than integrated defense.

Comprehensive advanced threat protection requires a blade that integrates multiple technologies and leverages real-time intelligence. That role is fulfilled by the Threat Prevention blade. IPS, application governance, and URL filtering are important complementary functions, but they do not provide integrated advanced threat protection. Therefore, the Threat Prevention blade is the correct answer because it is designed to protect against advanced threats by combining real-time intelligence feeds with proactive prevention technologies.

Question 47

Which Check Point utility is used to view and analyze logs generated by gateways for traffic and security events?

A) SmartView Tracker
B) cpstop
C) fw stat
D) cpconfig

Answer: A) SmartView Tracker

Explanation:

The first choice refers to the utility that provides administrators with the ability to view and analyze logs generated by gateways. It displays detailed information about traffic, rule matches, and security events. Administrators use it to investigate incidents, troubleshoot connectivity issues, and verify policy enforcement. SmartView Tracker supports filtering, searching, and exporting logs, making it a powerful tool for operational visibility. It is critical for auditing and compliance, as it provides evidence of policy enforcement and security activity.

The second choice is a command that stops all Check Point processes on a gateway. It halts the firewall engine, management daemons, and related services. While it disables enforcement, it does not view or analyze logs. Its role is process control rather than log analysis.

The third choice is a command that displays the current installed policy name on a gateway. It shows which policy is active and provides information about the policy installation. While useful for verifying policies, it does not view or analyze logs. Its role is policy verification rather than log analysis.

The fourth choice is a configuration utility used to set up basic parameters such as Secure Internal Communication. It is interactive and allows administrators to configure trust and other system settings. While important for initial setup, it does not view or analyze logs. Its role is configuration rather than log analysis.

Viewing and analyzing logs requires a utility that can display detailed information about traffic and security events. That role is fulfilled by SmartView Tracker. Process control, policy verification, and configuration utilities serve other purposes but do not provide log analysis. Therefore, SmartView Tracker is the correct answer because it is used to view and analyze logs generated by gateways for traffic and security events.

Question 48

Which Check Point blade protects against viruses and other malware by scanning files and traffic in real time?

A) Antivirus
B) IPS
C) Threat Extraction
D) Application Control

Answer: A) Antivirus

Explanation:

The first choice refers to the blade that scans files and traffic in real time to detect and block viruses, worms, and other malware. It uses signature-based detection, heuristics, and behavioral analysis to identify malicious content. Antivirus protection is critical for preventing infections from spreading through email attachments, downloads, and network traffic. It integrates with ThreatCloud to receive continuous updates, ensuring that protections remain current against emerging threats. Scanning traffic at the gateway provides a first line of defense against malware before it reaches endpoints.

The second choice is a blade that inspects traffic for exploit attempts and protocol anomalies. While it prevents exploitation, it does not specifically scan for viruses. Its role is vulnerability shielding rather than malware detection.

The third choice is a blade that sanitizes documents by removing active content such as macros or scripts. While it prevents infection by removing risky elements, it does not scan for viruses. Its role is content sanitization rather than malware detection.

The fourth choice is a blade that governs application usage. It identifies applications and allows administrators to permit or block them based on policy. While it controls application behavior, it does not scan for viruses. Its focus is on acceptable use policies rather than malware detection.

Detecting and blocking viruses requires a blade that can scan files and traffic in real time. That role is fulfilled by the antivirus blade. Intrusion prevention, content sanitization, and application governance are important complementary functions, but they do not provide malware detection. Therefore, the antivirus blade is the correct answer because it protects against viruses and other malware by scanning files and traffic in real time.

Question 49

Which Check Point blade is designed to protect against ransomware by detecting suspicious encryption activity and blocking malicious processes?

A) Anti-Ransomware
B) IPS
C) Threat Extraction
D) Application Control

Answer: A) Anti-Ransomware

Explanation:

The first choice refers to the blade specifically engineered to detect and stop ransomware attacks. Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts files and demands payment for decryption. The Anti-Ransomware blade monitors file activity and identifies suspicious encryption patterns, such as mass file renaming or rapid encryption attempts. Once detected, it blocks the malicious process and prevents further damage. This blade is critical in modern environments where ransomware attacks are prevalent and devastating. It integrates with Check Point’s ThreatCloud intelligence to stay updated on the latest ransomware variants and tactics. Proactively detecting suspicious behavior, it provides protection even against unknown ransomware strains.

The second choice is a blade that inspects traffic for exploit attempts and protocol anomalies. While IPS can block exploit attempts that deliver ransomware, it does not specifically monitor file encryption activity. Its role is vulnerability shielding rather than ransomware-specific prevention.

The third choice is a blade that sanitizes documents by removing active content such as macros or scripts. While it can prevent ransomware from being delivered via malicious attachments, it does not monitor encryption activity. Its role is content sanitization rather than ransomware detection.

The fourth choice is a blade that governs application usage. It identifies applications regardless of port or protocol and allows administrators to permit or block them based on policy. While it controls application behavior, it does not detect ransomware encryption activity. Its focus is on acceptable use policies rather than ransomware prevention.

Stopping ransomware requires a blade that can detect suspicious encryption activity and block malicious processes. That role is fulfilled by the Anti-Ransomware blade. Intrusion prevention, content sanitization, and application governance are important complementary functions, but they do not provide ransomware-specific protection. Therefore, the Anti-Ransomware blade is the correct answer because it is designed to protect against ransomware by detecting suspicious encryption activity and blocking malicious processes.

Question 50

Which Check Point utility is used to collect and package system information for technical support analysis?

A) cpinfo
B) cpstop
C) fw ver
D) cphaprob stat

Answer: A) cpinfo

Explanation:

The first choice refers to the utility that collects and packages system information, including configuration files, logs, and diagnostic data. Administrators use it to create a snapshot of the system’s state, which can then be sent to technical support for analysis. This utility is critical for troubleshooting complex issues, as it provides comprehensive information about the gateway or management server. It can be run proactively to collect data before making changes or reactively when issues arise. By packaging data into a single file, it simplifies communication with support teams and accelerates problem resolution.

The second choice is a command that stops all Check Point processes on a gateway. It halts the firewall engine, management daemons, and related services. While it disables enforcement, it does not collect or package system information. Its role is process control rather than troubleshooting.

The third choice is a command that displays the installed software version on a gateway. While useful for verifying versions, it does not collect or package system information. Its role is version verification rather than troubleshooting.

The fourth choice is a diagnostic command that displays the current state of clustering. It shows whether members are active or standby, whether synchronization is working, and whether interfaces are healthy. While it provides cluster information, it does not collect or package system information. Its role is cluster monitoring rather than troubleshooting.

Collecting and packaging system information requires a utility that can gather comprehensive data and create a file for support analysis. That role is fulfilled by the cpinfo utility. Process control, version verification, and cluster monitoring commands serve other purposes but do not collect system information. Therefore, cpinfo is the correct answer because it is used to collect and package system information for technical support analysis.

Question 51

Which Check Point blade protects against phishing by analyzing email content and blocking suspicious messages?

A) Anti-Spam and Email Security
B) IPS
C) URL Filtering
D) Threat Emulation

Answer: A) Anti-Spam and Email Security

Explanation:

The first choice refers to the blade that protects email traffic by detecting and blocking spam, phishing attempts, and malicious attachments. It analyzes email headers, content, and attachments to identify suspicious messages. By leveraging threat intelligence feeds, it can block known phishing domains and malicious payloads. This blade is critical for protecting users from email-based attacks, which are among the most common vectors for compromise. It ensures that users receive only legitimate messages, reducing the risk of credential theft and malware infection.

The second choice is a blade that inspects traffic for exploit attempts and protocol anomalies. While it prevents exploitation, it does not specifically analyze email content. Its role is vulnerability shielding rather than email security.

The third choice is a blade that categorizes websites and enforces access policies based on categories and risk. While it protects against phishing websites, it does not analyze email content. Its role is web filtering rather than email security.

The fourth choice is a blade that emulates file execution in a sandbox to detect unknown malware. While it prevents infection by analyzing attachments, it does not specifically analyze email content for phishing. Its role is advanced threat prevention rather than email security.

Protecting against phishing requires a blade that can analyze email content and block suspicious messages. That role is fulfilled by the Anti-Spam and Email Security blade. Intrusion prevention, web filtering, and sandbox analysis are important complementary functions, but they do not provide email-specific protection. Therefore, the Anti-Spam and Email Security blade is the correct answer because it protects against phishing by analyzing email content and blocking suspicious messages.

Question 52

Which Check Point blade is designed to protect against malicious mobile applications and secure access for smartphones and tablets?

A) Mobile Access
B) IPS
C) Threat Extraction
D) URL Filtering

Answer: A) Mobile Access

Explanation:

The first choice refers to the blade that provides secure connectivity and protection for mobile devices. In today’s enterprise environments, employees often use smartphones and tablets to access corporate resources. The Mobile Access blade ensures that these devices connect securely through encrypted channels, protecting sensitive data from interception. It also integrates with authentication mechanisms, such as multifactor authentication, to verify user identities before granting access. Beyond secure connectivity, Mobile Access can enforce policies that restrict or allow specific mobile applications, ensuring that only trusted apps interact with corporate systems. This blade is critical for organizations that embrace bring-your-own-device (BYOD) policies, as it balances flexibility with security.

The second choice is a blade that inspects traffic for exploit attempts and protocol anomalies. While IPS prevents exploitation, it does not specifically secure mobile devices or applications. Its role is vulnerability shielding rather than mobile access.

The third choice is a blade that sanitizes documents by removing active content such as macros or scripts. While it prevents infection from malicious files, it does not secure mobile devices. Its role is content sanitization rather than mobile access.

The fourth choice is a blade that categorizes websites and enforces access policies based on categories and risk. While it protects against malicious websites, it does not secure mobile devices or applications. Its role is web filtering rather than mobile access.

Securing mobile devices requires a blade that can provide encrypted connectivity, enforce authentication, and control mobile applications. That role is fulfilled by the Mobile Access blade. Intrusion prevention, content sanitization, and web filtering are important complementary functions, but they do not provide mobile-specific protection. Therefore, the Mobile Access blade is the correct answer because it is designed to protect against malicious mobile applications and secure access for smartphones and tablets.

Question 53

Which Check Point utility is used to configure and manage licensing information on gateways and management servers?

A) SmartUpdate
B) cpstop
C) fw stat
D) cphaprob stat

Answer: A) SmartUpdate

Explanation:

The first choice refers to the utility that provides administrators with the ability to manage licenses and software updates across gateways and management servers. Licensing is critical in Check Point environments, as blades and features require valid licenses to function. SmartUpdate allows administrators to install, update, and verify licenses from a centralized interface. It also supports the distribution of software updates, ensuring that gateways remain consistent and up to date. This utility simplifies administrative tasks by consolidating license management, reducing the risk of misconfiguration.

The second choice is a command that stops all Check Point processes on a gateway. It halts the firewall engine, management daemons, and related services. While it disables enforcement, it does not manage licensing information. Its role is process control rather than license management.

The third choice is a command that displays the current installed policy name on a gateway. While useful for verifying policies, it does not manage licensing information. Its role is policy verification rather than license management.

The fourth choice is a diagnostic command that displays the current state of clustering. It shows whether members are active or standby, whether synchronization is working, and whether interfaces are healthy. While it provides cluster information, it does not manage licensing information. Its role is cluster monitoring rather than license management.

Managing licensing requires a utility that can install, update, and verify licenses across gateways and management servers. That role is fulfilled by SmartUpdate. Process control, policy verification, and cluster monitoring commands serve other purposes but do not manage licensing. Therefore, SmartUpdate is the correct answer because it is used to configure and manage licensing information on gateways and management servers.

Question 54

Which Check Point blade protects against data breaches by monitoring and controlling sensitive information in outbound traffic?

A) Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
B) IPS
C) Anti-Bot
D) Threat Emulation

Answer: A) Data Loss Prevention (DLP)

Explanation:

The first choice refers to the blade that monitors outbound traffic for sensitive information such as credit card numbers, social security numbers, or confidential documents. It enforces policies that prevent unauthorized transmission of sensitive data, ensuring compliance with regulations and protecting intellectual property. DLP is critical for organizations that handle sensitive customer or business data, as it prevents accidental or malicious leaks. It integrates with identity awareness to provide user-specific controls, ensuring that policies reflect organizational roles and responsibilities. By monitoring outbound traffic, DLP provides visibility into data movement and enforces controls to prevent breaches.

The second choice is a blade that inspects traffic for exploit attempts and protocol anomalies. While it prevents exploitation, it does not specifically monitor outbound traffic for sensitive information. Its role is vulnerability shielding rather than data protection.

The third choice is a blade that detects and blocks botnet communications. While it prevents malware from communicating with command-and-control servers, it does not monitor outbound traffic for sensitive information. Its role is communication prevention rather than data protection.

The fourth choice is a blade that emulates file execution in a sandbox to detect unknown malware. While it prevents infection, it does not monitor outbound traffic for sensitive information. Its role is advanced threat prevention rather than data protection.

Preventing data breaches requires a blade that can monitor and control sensitive information in outbound traffic. That role is fulfilled by the data loss prevention blade. Intrusion prevention, botnet detection, and sandbox analysis are important complementary functions, but they do not provide data protection. Therefore, the data loss prevention blade is the correct answer because it protects against data breaches by monitoring and controlling sensitive information in outbound traffic.

Question 55

Which Check Point blade is designed to protect against malicious code hidden in files by executing them in a virtual environment before delivery?

A) Threat Emulation
B) IPS
C) Anti-Bot
D) URL Filtering

Answer: A) Threat Emulation

Explanation:

The first choice refers to the blade that emulates file execution in a sandbox environment to detect unknown malware. It analyzes payloads, observes behaviors, and blocks delivery if malicious indicators are found. This blade is critical for detecting zero-day threats that evade signature-based detection. By running files in a controlled environment, it can identify malicious activity before the file reaches the endpoint. Threat Emulation integrates with other Check Point components to provide layered defense, ensuring that threats are stopped before they can compromise systems. It is particularly effective against advanced persistent threats and targeted attacks, as it can detect novel techniques that traditional antivirus software might miss.

The second choice is a blade that inspects traffic for exploit attempts and protocol anomalies. While IPS prevents exploitation, it does not emulate file execution. Its role is vulnerability shielding rather than sandbox analysis.

The third choice is a blade that detects and blocks botnet communications. It identifies endpoints communicating with malicious hosts and prevents command-and-control traffic. While it is critical for stopping malware spread, it does not emulate file execution. Its role is communication prevention rather than sandbox analysis.

The fourth choice is a blade that categorizes websites and enforces access policies based on categories and risk. While it protects against malicious websites, it does not emulate file execution. Its role is web filtering rather than sandbox analysis.

Detecting unknown malware requires a blade that can emulate file execution in a sandbox. That role is fulfilled by the Threat Emulation blade. Intrusion prevention, botnet detection, and web filtering are important complementary functions, but they do not provide sandbox analysis. Therefore, the Threat Emulation blade is the correct answer because it protects against malicious code hidden in files by executing them in a virtual environment before delivery.

Question 56

Which Check Point utility is used to configure cluster membership and synchronization settings during setup?

A) ClusterXL configuration via cpconfig
B) fw stat
C) cpstop
D) SmartView Tracker

Answer: A) ClusterXL configuration via cpconfig

Explanation:

The first choice refers to the configuration utility that administrators use when setting up Check Point ClusterXL, which is the platform’s high availability and load balancing solution. This utility, accessed through cpconfig, plays a foundational role in defining how gateways participate within a cluster. During initial deployment or reconfiguration, administrators rely on this utility to specify cluster membership, synchronize critical operational data, and establish the trust required for secure communication between nodes. When configuring ClusterXL, several parameters are essential. These include selecting the interfaces that will participate in state synchronization, determining how traffic distribution should occur, and ensuring that the cluster components are able to recognize each other and maintain consistent session information. Without these settings, the redundancy and failover capabilities provided by ClusterXL would not function properly. The utility also enables administrators to activate cluster features so that the gateways begin exchanging synchronization information. This ensures that in the event of a failure, the standby gateway can immediately take over connections without disrupting user sessions or active traffic. Because failover continuity is a core aspect of Check Point’s high availability architecture, properly configuring these parameters through cpconfig is essential. If synchronization interfaces are not correctly defined or trust is not properly established, the cluster may fail to operate as intended, potentially resulting in inconsistent enforcement between nodes or dropped connections during failover. The reliable operation of ClusterXL depends heavily on the correct use of this configuration utility, making it indispensable during setup.

The second choice is a command that simply displays the current installed policy name on a gateway. This provides visibility into which security policy is actively enforced at any given moment. While this is undoubtedly useful for operational verification—such as ensuring that a recently pushed policy is now active—it does not have any role in establishing or configuring cluster membership. This command does not modify cluster settings, does not define synchronization parameters, and does not influence how gateways communicate with one another in a high availability environment. Its purpose is informational and operational rather than architectural. Administrators may use it during troubleshooting or routine checks, but it plays no part in cluster setup or defining the relationships between gateways.

The third choice involves a command that stops all Check Point processes running on a gateway. This includes the firewall engine, management-related daemons, and other underlying processes that support enforcement and communication. While this command temporarily disables enforcement and is commonly used before performing maintenance tasks, it does not provide any configuration settings, nor does it assist with cluster membership. Its purpose is solely operational and focused on process control. It cannot define synchronization networks, cannot activate cluster functions, and cannot establish trust. Because cluster configuration requires dedicated tools that manipulate cluster parameters and define behavior across nodes, this process-control command does not meet any of the requirements for cluster setup. Its value lies in allowing administrators to restart services or perform troubleshooting, not in building ClusterXL environments.

The fourth choice refers to a utility that provides log viewing and analysis capabilities. This tool is essential in operational environments where administrators need to assess traffic flows, investigate security incidents, or monitor general gateway activity. Log analysis is an important part of security management because it provides visibility into events, connections, and threats. However, this tool does not configure cluster membership or synchronization. It does not influence how gateways share state information, how they fail over, or how they operate within a high-availability framework. Its focus is strictly on log retrieval, filtering, and visualization, providing administrators with insights into the performance and security posture of their network. Since configuring ClusterXL requires adjustments to cluster parameters rather than log data, this utility serves a different operational purpose.

Setting up cluster membership and synchronization requires a specialized configuration tool capable of defining cluster settings, enabling cluster operations, and establishing secure communication between gateways. The cpconfig utility with ClusterXL configuration fulfills this function. It enables administrators to activate cluster features, select synchronization interfaces, define membership, and establish trust, all of which are needed to ensure reliable high availability. Policy verification tools, process control commands, and log analysis utilities all serve valuable operational roles, but they cannot configure or establish cluster membership. For this reason, ClusterXL configuration using cpconfig is the correct choice because it specifically provides the necessary settings and tools to configure cluster membership and synchronization during setup.

Question 57

Which Check Point blade protects malicious files by removing risky elements such as macros or embedded scripts before delivery?

A) Threat Extraction
B) IPS
C) Anti-Spam and Email Security
D) Application Control

Answer: A) Threat Extraction

Explanation:

The first choice refers to the blade that sanitizes documents by removing active content such as macros, scripts, or embedded objects. This ensures that users receive safe versions of files without harmful components. Threat Extraction is particularly effective against zero-day threats, as it does not rely on signatures but instead proactively removes risky elements. It integrates with Threat Emulation to provide layered defense, combining sandbox analysis with content sanitization. This blade is critical for protecting users from malicious attachments and downloads, ensuring that productivity is not disrupted by hidden threats.

The second choice is a blade that inspects traffic for exploit attempts and protocol anomalies. While it prevents exploitation, it does not sanitize documents. Its role is vulnerability shielding rather than content sanitization.

The third choice is a blade that protects email traffic. It detects and blocks spam, malicious attachments, and phishing attempts. While it protects against email-based threats, it does not sanitize documents. Its role is email security rather than content sanitization.

The fourth choice is a blade that governs application usage. It identifies applications and allows administrators to permit or block them based on policy. While it controls application behavior, it does not sanitize documents. Its focus is on acceptable use policies rather than content sanitization.

Sanitizing documents requires a blade that can remove active content before delivery. That role is fulfilled by the Threat Extraction blade. Intrusion prevention, email security, and application governance are important complementary functions, but they do not sanitize documents. Therefore, the Threat Extraction blade is the correct answer because it protects malicious files by removing risky elements such as macros or embedded scripts before delivery.

Question 58

Which Check Point blade protects against malicious code by scanning traffic for viruses, worms, and trojans in real time?

A) Antivirus
B) IPS
C) Threat Extraction
D) Application Control

Answer: A) Antivirus

Explanation:

The first choice refers to the blade that performs real-time scanning of traffic and files passing through a Check Point Security Gateway in order to detect and block malicious software such as viruses, worms, and trojans. This blade uses a combination of signature-based detection, heuristics, and behavioral analysis to identify harmful code. Signature-based scanning allows the blade to quickly identify known malware by comparing file patterns against a vast database of threat signatures maintained in Check Point’s ThreatCloud. This database is continuously updated, ensuring that the gateway receives new protections as soon as they are released. Heuristics enable the gateway to analyze characteristics of files or traffic even when no signature match exists, allowing it to recognize potentially harmful content based on suspicious traits. Behavioral analysis further strengthens the detection capabilities by observing how files behave or are structured, identifying malware that may attempt to hide its true purpose. By performing these checks in real time, the blade can halt malicious traffic before it reaches users or internal systems. This is especially important because malware often spreads through email attachments, downloads, file transfers, and even compromised websites. The antivirus blade acts as a barrier to these threats by intercepting them at the network gateway. Neutralizing infections early, prevents them from proliferating within the network. This blade works seamlessly with other Check Point protections to create a layered defense strategy, ensuring that even sophisticated or evasive malware has difficulty bypassing security controls. It also provides detailed logs and alerts that help administrators identify attempted infections and respond accordingly.

The second choice is a blade that focuses specifically on detecting and preventing exploitation attempts and protocol-based attacks. It examines network traffic for signs that attackers are attempting to exploit vulnerabilities in operating systems, applications, or network services. While this inspection is vital for preventing intrusions, especially through zero-day exploits or flawed protocol implementations, it does not function as a virus scanner. It identifies and blocks exploit attempts, but it does not scan files to detect viruses, nor does it examine data for malware signatures. This means that if a virus or Trojan is embedded inside a file, this blade will not identify it unless it triggers a specific exploit. The goal of this blade is to prevent vulnerabilities from being leveraged, not to detect malicious code. Its role is to provide vulnerability shielding rather than direct malware detection. Although frequently used alongside an antivirus engine to provide stronger overall protection, it cannot replace the functionality required to detect viruses.

The third choice refers to a blade designed to sanitize documents by removing potentially harmful content such as macros, embedded scripts, or other active components. When users receive documents, especially from unfamiliar sources, there is a risk that embedded code could execute on the user’s system, leading to malware infections or exploitation. This blade addresses that risk by reconstructing the document into a safe, clean version. While this approach is highly effective for preventing certain infection vectors, it does not scan for or detect viruses. If a document contains a hidden virus that does not rely on active content, this blade would not detect or prevent it. Its purpose is content sanitization to eliminate risky elements, not malware identification through scanning. It complements antivirus technology by preventing infections through document manipulation, but it does not substitute for malware detection mechanisms.

The fourth choice refers to a blade that provides administrators with the ability to control how applications are used within the network. It identifies applications regardless of port, protocol, or encryption, allowing administrators to define rules that permit or block usage based on organizational policy. This might include restricting access to social media platforms, allowing specific business applications, or blocking high-risk applications that may introduce vulnerabilities. While this blade is useful for governance and acceptable use enforcement, it does not scan files or traffic for viruses. It does not identify malicious code, nor does it detect malware infections. Its focus is on application visibility and behavioral control, not malware detection.

Detecting and blocking viruses requires a blade specifically designed to scan files and traffic in real time using signatures, heuristics, and behavioral techniques. The antivirus blade fulfills this requirement by stopping threats before they reach endpoints, preventing widespread infections and ensuring traffic is free of malicious software. Other blades provide valuable complementary protection but do not deliver real-time malware scanning. Therefore, the antivirus blade is the correct choice because it is purpose-built to detect and block viruses, worms, trojans, and other forms of malicious code by performing continuous inspection of traffic and files.

Question 59

Which Check Point utility is used to verify the policy installation date and time on a gateway?

A) fw stat
B) cpstop
C) cpconfig
D) cphaprob stat

Answer: A) fw stat

Explanation:

The first choice is a command that displays the current installed policy name on a gateway, along with the date and time of installation. Administrators use it to verify that the correct policy has been applied and to troubleshoot policy-related issues. This command is critical for ensuring that gateways are enforcing the intended rules. It provides visibility into the policy state, helping administrators confirm that changes have been successfully deployed.

The second choice is a command that stops all Check Point processes on a gateway. It halts the firewall engine, management daemons, and related services. While it disables enforcement, it does not verify policy installation. Its role is process control rather than policy verification.

The third choice is a configuration utility used to set up basic parameters such as Secure Internal Communication. It is interactive and allows administrators to configure trust and other system settings. While important for initial setup, it does not verify policy installation. Its role is configuration rather than policy verification.

The fourth choice is a diagnostic command that displays the current state of clustering. It shows whether members are active or standby, whether synchronization is working, and whether interfaces are healthy. While essential for monitoring, it does not verify policy installation. Its role is cluster monitoring rather than policy verification.

Verifying policy installation requires a command that can display the policy name and installation details. That role is fulfilled by the fw stat command. Process control, configuration utilities, and cluster monitoring commands serve other purposes but do not verify policy installation. Therefore, fw stat is the correct answer because it is used to verify the policy installation date and time on a gateway.

Question 60

Which Check Point blade provides protection against malicious websites by decrypting SSL/TLS traffic and applying security policies?

A) HTTPS Inspection
B) IPS
C) URL Filtering
D) Threat Emulation

Answer: A) HTTPS Inspection

Explanation:

The first choice refers to the blade that provides the capability to inspect SSL and TLS encrypted traffic within a Check Point environment. As encryption has become the standard for most internet communication, a significant portion of traffic passing through a security gateway is no longer visible without special inspection mechanisms. This blade works by decrypting the encrypted session, allowing the security gateway to apply all configured protections—including malware scanning, URL filtering, intrusion prevention, and application control—before re-encrypting the traffic and sending it to its destination. This ensures that encrypted sessions do not create blind spots where threats can hide. Attackers frequently use encrypted channels to deliver malware, initiate command-and-control communications, or exfiltrate data because they know that many networks lack the ability to inspect encrypted flows. This blade eliminates that challenge by allowing full inspection while maintaining secure communication. It also integrates with other security features, enabling advanced protections to function properly even when traffic is encrypted. Administrators can define exceptions, select which categories of traffic should be inspected, and configure certificates for client-side detection. Because modern networks rely heavily on encrypted transactions, this blade has become essential for comprehensive threat detection. It ensures that encrypted traffic is subject to the same rigorous protections as clear-text communication, maintaining both security and visibility across the environment.

The second choice describes a blade that focuses on protecting systems from exploitation attempts by analyzing network traffic for known vulnerabilities, attack patterns, and protocol anomalies. While this intrusion prevention blade is an important component of network defense, its capabilities apply to unencrypted traffic unless it is paired with another mechanism capable of decrypting SSL or TLS sessions. By itself, it cannot inspect encrypted data because the gateway cannot see the contents of the traffic until it is decrypted. This means that if an attack is hidden inside an encrypted stream, this blade alone would be unable to detect it. Its primary purpose is to block exploit attempts targeting servers, clients, or network protocols by using a combination of signatures, heuristics, and real-time protections. It helps prevent zero-day attacks, buffer overflows, and other forms of exploitation. However, it does not decrypt encrypted traffic, which is required for reviewing and analyzing such traffic. Its focus is on vulnerability mitigation, not encrypted traffic inspection. Therefore, although very effective when used in conjunction with other blades, it cannot fulfill the specific requirement of decrypting and analyzing SSL or TLS sessions.

The third choice refers to the blade responsible for website categorization and URL-based access control. It allows administrators to regulate which types of websites users can access based on categories such as streaming media, social networking, gambling, or high-risk sites known for distributing malware. This blade plays a major role in controlling browsing behavior and preventing users from navigating to malicious or inappropriate content. It uses a cloud-based database that continuously updates categories and risk scores for millions of domains. Although it can apply policies to both encrypted and unencrypted traffic, this blade does not decrypt SSL or TLS sessions on its own. If used without a decryption mechanism, it relies solely on hostname and certificate information to categorize traffic, which limits its visibility and effectiveness. It does not examine the encrypted payload inside the session, meaning it cannot detect hidden threats or malicious downloads embedded within encrypted connections. Its main function is web filtering rather than encrypted traffic inspection.

The fourth choice refers to a blade designed to detect unknown or advanced forms of malware by executing suspicious files in an isolated virtual environment, commonly referred to as a sandbox. This blade observes the behavior of files, looking for malicious activities such as unauthorized system changes, communication attempts, or exploitation techniques. It focuses on identifying new or previously unseen malware that traditional signature-based methods may not detect. While it provides powerful protection against sophisticated threats, it does not decrypt SSL or TLS sessions. It generally analyzes downloaded files or email attachments after they have already been processed through other security mechanisms. This blade focuses on behavior-based malware detection, not encrypted traffic visibility, so it cannot fulfill the role required for SSL/TLS inspection.

Because encrypted traffic inspection requires the ability to decrypt, analyze, and re-encrypt SSL or TLS sessions, the blade that provides HTTPS Inspection is the only one designed specifically for this task. It gives administrators the visibility necessary to detect threats hidden in encrypted channels and ensures that the full security stack can be applied to encrypted traffic. Other blades provide critical protections but cannot independently decrypt or inspect encrypted sessions. Thus, the HTTPS Inspection blade is the correct choice because it provides full visibility into SSL/TLS traffic and ensures that encrypted communication receives comprehensive security enforcement.