Cisco 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 4 Q 46-60
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Question 46:
Which Cisco security solution provides advanced malware protection and sandboxing capabilities?
A) Cisco ISE
B) Cisco Firepower
C) Cisco Umbrella
D) Cisco AnyConnect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Modern cyber threats have evolved significantly beyond traditional viruses and worms to include sophisticated malware that employs evasion techniques, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats designed to avoid detection by signature-based security tools. Organizations require comprehensive threat protection that combines multiple detection methods including signatures, behavioral analysis, machine learning, and sandboxing to identify and block both known and unknown threats. Cisco’s security portfolio includes various solutions addressing different aspects of network security, with specific products focused on advanced threat protection.
Cisco Firepower provides advanced malware protection and sandboxing capabilities as part of its next-generation firewall and threat defense platform. Firepower integrates multiple security technologies including traditional firewall functions, intrusion prevention, URL filtering, and most importantly for this question, advanced malware protection through Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) and sandboxing via Cisco Threat Grid. These capabilities work together to detect, block, and analyze sophisticated malware that might evade traditional security controls.
The advanced malware protection in Firepower operates through several mechanisms. File reputation analysis checks files against Cisco’s global threat intelligence database containing billions of file dispositions, instantly identifying known malicious files. Retrospective security continuously monitors file behavior even after initial delivery, automatically detecting and alerting on files that were initially deemed clean but later classified as malicious. File trajectory tracking shows where files have traveled across the network, which systems accessed them, and what actions they performed. Dynamic analysis submits suspicious files to sandboxing environments where they execute in isolated virtual machines while behavioral analysis identifies malicious activities.
Cisco Threat Grid provides the sandboxing component, creating secure virtual environments where suspicious files execute while comprehensive monitoring captures all behaviors including network connections, file modifications, registry changes, and process creation. This behavioral analysis identifies malicious intent regardless of whether the specific malware variant has been seen before. The sandbox generates detailed reports including threat scores, behavioral indicators, and network indicators of compromise. Integration with Firepower enables automatic blocking of files identified as malicious through sandbox analysis across all Firepower deployments.
The combination of these technologies provides defense-in-depth against advanced threats. Known malware is blocked immediately through signature and reputation checks. Unknown files undergo dynamic analysis in sandboxes before being allowed into the network. Files that evade initial detection are caught through retrospective security as their malicious nature becomes apparent. This multi-layered approach significantly reduces the window of exposure to advanced threats compared to relying solely on signature-based detection.
A is incorrect because Cisco ISE (Identity Services Engine) provides network access control, policy enforcement, and guest management based on user and device identity, not advanced malware protection or sandboxing. ISE focuses on authentication, authorization, and profiling rather than threat detection.
C is incorrect because Cisco Umbrella provides cloud-delivered security including DNS-layer security, secure web gateway, and cloud-access security broker functions, but does not provide the same advanced sandboxing capabilities as Firepower. While Umbrella includes threat intelligence and some file inspection, its architecture differs from Firepower’s approach.
D is incorrect because Cisco AnyConnect is a VPN client that provides secure remote access to corporate networks, potentially including endpoint security modules, but it is not primarily a malware protection and sandboxing solution like Firepower.
Question 47:
What is the primary function of Cisco Talos?
A) Network access control
B) Threat intelligence and research
C) VPN connectivity
D) Wireless management
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cybersecurity effectiveness depends heavily on timely and accurate threat intelligence that enables security systems to identify and block emerging threats before they impact organizations. Threat intelligence encompasses information about threat actors, attack methodologies, indicators of compromise, malicious infrastructure, and vulnerabilities being exploited in the wild. Major security vendors maintain threat research teams that continuously analyze the threat landscape, discovering new threats, reverse-engineering malware, tracking threat actor campaigns, and developing protections that are deployed to customer security products.
Cisco Talos is Cisco’s threat intelligence and research organization, representing one of the largest commercial threat intelligence teams in the world. Talos’s primary function is researching cybersecurity threats, analyzing malware samples, tracking threat actors, discovering vulnerabilities, and producing threat intelligence that feeds into Cisco’s security products. The team operates continuously monitoring the global threat landscape through extensive telemetry from Cisco security products deployed worldwide, analyzing billions of security events daily to identify emerging threats and attack patterns.
Talos performs multiple critical functions that enhance Cisco’s security ecosystem. Malware research involves receiving and analyzing millions of malware samples, reverse-engineering malicious code to understand functionality and develop detection signatures, tracking malware families and their evolution, and identifying command-and-control infrastructure. Vulnerability research discovers security flaws in software and systems through coordinated disclosure programs, analyzes exploits being used in attacks, and works with vendors to develop patches. Threat actor tracking monitors advanced persistent threat groups, analyzes their tactics, techniques, and procedures, attributes attacks to specific actors, and publishes reports on threat campaigns.
The threat intelligence produced by Talos feeds directly into Cisco security products, providing protection updates. Firepower receives intrusion prevention signatures detecting exploit attempts and attack patterns. AMP gets file reputation updates identifying malicious files. Umbrella obtains malicious domain and URL intelligence blocking access to threat infrastructure. Email Security gets spam and phishing signatures preventing malicious messages. Web Security receives URL categories and reputation scores. This continuous intelligence flow ensures Cisco security products protect against the latest threats.
Talos also engages with the broader security community through various channels. The Talos blog publishes research findings, threat analysis, and security advisories making threat intelligence publicly available. Vulnerability disclosures follow responsible disclosure practices reporting flaws to vendors before public release. SNORT rules provide open-source intrusion detection signatures used worldwide. Participation in industry groups contributes to collaborative threat intelligence sharing. Conference presentations educate the security community on threat trends and research findings.
The scale of Talos operations provides unique visibility into global threats. Monitoring billions of daily web requests, emails, malware samples, and network events across Cisco’s installed base creates comprehensive telemetry. This visibility enables early detection of emerging threats often before they become widespread. Machine learning and automation help analyze the massive data volumes identifying patterns and anomalies that indicate new threats. Human analysts then investigate high-priority findings performing deep analysis that automated systems cannot provide.
A is incorrect because network access control is the function of products like Cisco ISE that manage which users and devices can access network resources, not the function of Talos which focuses on threat research and intelligence.
C is incorrect because VPN connectivity is provided by products like Cisco AnyConnect, ASA, or routers with VPN capabilities, not by Talos which is a threat intelligence organization rather than a product providing network services.
D is incorrect because wireless management is provided by Cisco wireless controllers and management platforms like Cisco DNA Center or Meraki, not by Talos which specializes in cybersecurity threat research and intelligence.
Question 48:
Which protocol does Cisco TrustSec use to propagate security group tags?
A) RADIUS
B) TACACS+
C) SXP (Security Group Tag Exchange Protocol)
D) SNMP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Traditional network security relies heavily on IP addresses to define security policies, creating challenges in dynamic environments where IP addresses change frequently, applications span multiple network segments, and security policies should follow users and devices rather than static network locations. Cisco TrustSec represents a paradigm shift toward identity-based security that tags traffic with security group information and enforces policies based on those tags regardless of network topology or IP addressing. Understanding how these security group tags propagate across the network infrastructure is essential for implementing TrustSec effectively.
Security Group Tag Exchange Protocol, commonly abbreviated as SXP, is the protocol Cisco TrustSec uses to propagate security group tags across network devices that may not support native TrustSec tagging. SXP creates TCP connections between network devices to exchange mappings between IP addresses and security group tags, enabling security group-based policies even on devices that cannot insert or process inline security group tags in packet headers. This propagation mechanism ensures consistent security enforcement throughout the network regardless of hardware capabilities.
SXP operates by establishing speaker and listener relationships between network devices. SXP speakers, typically devices like Cisco ISE or TrustSec-capable switches that know IP-to-SGT mappings, send this binding information to listeners. SXP listeners, which might be firewalls, routers, or switches that enforce policies but cannot determine SGTs independently, receive the mappings and use them for policy enforcement. This architecture allows security group information to reach all enforcement points across the network even when some devices lack full TrustSec support.
The protocol functions through several mechanisms. Binding exchange communicates which IP addresses currently belong to which security groups based on authentication events, profiling information, or static assignments. Connection management establishes and maintains TCP connections between speakers and listeners on port 64999, implementing keepalives and retry logic for reliability. Filtering capabilities limit which bindings are exchanged based on configured filters, reducing unnecessary propagation. Hold-down timers prevent rapid binding changes from causing instability. Reconciliation ensures listeners maintain accurate binding tables even after connection interruptions.
SXP deployment typically follows certain architectures. Cisco ISE commonly serves as the central SXP speaker knowing all IP-to-SGT mappings from authentication and profiling. Network infrastructure devices like switches act as intermediate speakers and listeners, receiving bindings from ISE and propagating to other devices. Security enforcement points like firewalls and routers act as listeners receiving bindings they need for policy enforcement. This tiered approach scales to large networks efficiently.
The protocol provides security features protecting the integrity of security group information. Password authentication on SXP connections prevents unauthorized devices from injecting false bindings. TCP MD5 signatures can optionally protect connection integrity. Source validation verifies bindings originate from trusted speakers. These protections ensure the accuracy of security group mappings that form the foundation of TrustSec policy enforcement.
A is incorrect because while RADIUS is used in TrustSec deployments for authentication and downloading security group assignments to access switches, it does not propagate security group tags between network devices. RADIUS communicates between ISE and network access devices during authentication, not for ongoing SGT propagation.
B is incorrect because TACACS+ provides device administration authentication, authorization, and accounting for network device management, not for propagating security group tags. TACACS+ secures administrative access to infrastructure but does not participate in TrustSec tag distribution.
D is incorrect because SNMP is used for network monitoring and management, collecting statistics and managing device configurations, not for propagating security group tags. SNMP provides visibility and management capabilities unrelated to TrustSec security group distribution.
Question 49:
What is the purpose of using VLAN Access Control Lists (VACLs)?
A) To filter traffic between VLANs only
B) To filter traffic within a VLAN
C) To encrypt traffic on VLANs
D) To provide QoS on VLANs
Answer: B
Explanation:
Network segmentation using VLANs provides Layer 2 isolation between different groups of users or systems, preventing broadcast domains from spanning the entire network and providing basic security separation. However, standard VLANs only control traffic between different VLANs when it passes through a router or Layer 3 switch where traditional ACLs can be applied. Traffic between devices within the same VLAN typically flows directly through the switch without any filtering, creating security gaps where compromised systems can attack other systems in the same VLAN. Organizations need mechanisms to enforce security policies for traffic that remains within a single VLAN.
VLAN Access Control Lists, commonly abbreviated as VACLs, serve the purpose of filtering traffic within a VLAN, providing security enforcement at Layer 2 for traffic that never leaves the VLAN or reaches a Layer 3 interface where traditional router ACLs would apply. VACLs are configured on switches and applied to specific VLANs, inspecting all traffic in that VLAN regardless of source or destination. This capability enables enforcing security policies between devices in the same VLAN, implementing micro-segmentation, preventing lateral movement after compromise, and protecting critical infrastructure within broadcast domains.
VACLs operate differently from traditional router ACLs, evaluating traffic at the VLAN level rather than at interface ingress or egress points. When enabled on a VLAN, VACLs examine every frame in that VLAN including unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic. The switch compares each frame against VACL rules defining permitted and denied traffic patterns. Traffic matching permit rules forwards normally, traffic matching deny rules drops without forwarding, and traffic not matching any rules follows default behavior which is typically to drop, implementing an implicit deny similar to router ACLs.
Common use cases demonstrate VACL value for network security. Preventing lateral movement within compromised network segments stops attackers from pivoting from an initially compromised system to other systems in the same VLAN. Protecting servers in the same VLAN blocks certain traffic types between servers that share a VLAN for operational reasons but should not communicate freely. Enforcing compliance requirements implements required security controls like blocking certain protocols within sensitive segments. Protecting infrastructure devices prevents regular users from accessing network infrastructure management interfaces even when they share VLANs. Implementing defense in depth adds another security layer complementing perimeter security and host-based protection.
VACLs support various filtering criteria providing flexibility for security policies. MAC addresses enable filtering based on Layer 2 addresses useful for controlling specific devices. IP addresses allow filtering based on source and destination IP addresses even for intra-VLAN traffic. Protocols permit controlling specific protocols within VLANs like blocking NetBIOS or restricting which systems can use ICMP. Ports enable filtering based on TCP or UDP port numbers controlling application-level access within VLANs. These criteria can combine to create granular security policies.
Configuration considerations ensure effective VACL deployment. Performance impact must be considered since VACLs consume switch resources particularly on access switches handling numerous VLANs. Rule optimization minimizes processing overhead through efficient rule ordering and consolidation. Testing validates rules achieve desired security without disrupting legitimate traffic. Documentation maintains records of security policies and their business justifications. Regular review ensures VACLs remain appropriate as network and security requirements evolve.
A is incorrect because filtering traffic between VLANs is the function of router ACLs applied to Layer 3 interfaces or SVIs (Switched Virtual Interfaces), not VACLs. Traffic between different VLANs must pass through a router where traditional ACLs apply, while VACLs specifically filter traffic within a single VLAN.
C is incorrect because VACLs filter traffic based on rules but do not encrypt traffic on VLANs. Encryption requires technologies like MACsec for Layer 2 encryption or IPsec for Layer 3 encryption, which are separate from the filtering functions VACLs provide.
D is incorrect because providing QoS (Quality of Service) on VLANs involves marking, queuing, and shaping traffic to prioritize certain applications or traffic types, which is separate from the security filtering function that VACLs provide. QoS uses different mechanisms like class of service markings and queuing algorithms.
Question 50:
Which Cisco product provides email security including anti-spam and anti-malware protection?
A) Cisco Umbrella
B) Cisco Email Security Appliance (ESA)
C) Cisco Firepower
D) Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Email remains one of the most common vectors for cyber attacks despite decades of security awareness and technology improvements. Threat actors exploit email to deliver malware attachments, phishing links, business email compromise schemes, ransomware, and various social engineering attacks. Organizations require specialized email security solutions that understand email protocols, analyze message content and attachments, correlate sender reputation, identify impersonation attempts, and enforce data loss prevention policies. Generic security tools lack the email-specific context and analysis needed for comprehensive email threat protection.
Cisco Email Security Appliance, commonly abbreviated as ESA, is Cisco’s product that provides comprehensive email security including anti-spam, anti-malware protection, phishing defense, data loss prevention, and encryption capabilities. ESA functions as an email gateway positioned between the internet and organizational email servers, inspecting all inbound and outbound email to identify and block threats, enforce acceptable use policies, and prevent data leakage. The appliance can be deployed as physical hardware, virtual appliance, or cloud-based service depending on organizational requirements.
ESA provides multiple layers of email threat protection addressing different attack vectors. Anti-spam capabilities block unwanted commercial email using techniques including reputation filtering based on sender IP addresses and domains, content analysis examining message characteristics, authentication checking SPF, DKIM, and DMARC, and Bayesian learning adapting to evolving spam patterns. Anti-malware protection scans attachments for malicious files using multiple detection engines, integrates with Cisco AMP for advanced threat detection, performs sandboxing of suspicious attachments through integration with Threat Grid, and implements outbreak filters providing zero-hour threat protection based on emerging threat patterns detected globally.
Advanced threat protection capabilities address sophisticated attacks. URL analysis inspects links in emails, checking reputation and performing time-of-click protection that re-verifies URLs when users click them. Phishing defense identifies impersonation attempts, detects social engineering indicators, and protects against credential harvesting. Forged Email Detection analyzes sender information identifying spoofing attempts even from compromised legitimate accounts. Business Email Compromise protection detects anomalous sender patterns and potential financial fraud attempts. Graymail management identifies legitimate but unwanted email from marketing and social networks allowing users to unsubscribe or filter.
Outbound email security prevents data loss and protects organizational reputation. Data Loss Prevention scans outbound email for sensitive information like credit card numbers, social security numbers, or confidential documents based on defined policies. Content filtering enforces acceptable use policies blocking inappropriate content or file types. Encryption capabilities automatically encrypt sensitive messages meeting policy criteria ensuring confidential information protects in transit. Outbreak filters prevent compromised internal systems from sending spam protecting organizational sending reputation.
ESA integrates with the broader Cisco security ecosystem providing coordinated threat defense. Talos threat intelligence continuously updates ESA with the latest threat information including spam patterns, malicious URLs, and malware signatures. Cognitive Threat Analytics provides behavioral analysis detecting anomalous email patterns. Cloud-based intelligence correlates data from ESA deployments worldwide identifying emerging threats. Integration with other security tools like firewalls and web gateways enables coordinated response to detected threats.
A is incorrect because Cisco Umbrella provides cloud-delivered security focused on DNS-layer protection, secure web gateway, and cloud access security broker functions, not comprehensive email security. While Umbrella protects against threats accessed through web browsing, it is not designed for email gateway protection with anti-spam and email-specific threat analysis.
C is incorrect because Cisco Firepower provides next-generation firewall, intrusion prevention, and advanced malware protection for network traffic, not email-specific security. While Firepower can inspect some protocols and provides malware protection, it does not function as an email gateway with anti-spam and email-specific capabilities.
D is incorrect because Cisco Web Security Appliance provides secure web gateway functions protecting web browsing traffic including URL filtering, malware scanning, and data loss prevention for HTTP/HTTPS traffic, not email security. WSA and ESA are complementary products addressing different threat vectors.
Question 51:
An administrator needs to segment the network using Security Group Tags (SGTs) assigned to users based on their Active Directory group membership. Which Cisco technology enables this capability?
A) Cisco TrustSec
B) Cisco AnyConnect
C) Cisco Umbrella
D) Cisco Firepower
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco TrustSec enables network segmentation using Security Group Tags that can be dynamically assigned based on Active Directory group membership, making A the correct answer. TrustSec provides software-defined segmentation that simplifies policy enforcement by tagging traffic based on user or device identity rather than relying on IP addresses or VLANs.
TrustSec fundamentally changes network segmentation by abstracting security policy from network topology. Traditional segmentation uses VLANs and IP subnets requiring complex firewall rules that reference specific addresses, which becomes unmanageable as networks grow. TrustSec assigns numerical Security Group Tags to users, devices, or resources representing their role or classification. For example, «Finance-Users» might receive SGT 5, «HR-Users» receive SGT 10, and «Database-Servers» receive SGT 20. These tags are inserted into packet headers as they enter the TrustSec domain, and network devices make forwarding and security decisions based on tags rather than addresses. This approach enables consistent policy enforcement regardless of user location or IP address changes.
Integration with Cisco ISE enables dynamic SGT assignment based on authentication context including Active Directory group membership. When users authenticate via 802.1X, ISE queries Active Directory to determine group membership, then assigns appropriate SGTs based on configured authorization policies. For example, if a user belongs to the «Finance-Department» AD group, ISE assigns SGT 5 to their traffic. Network access devices receive SGT assignments from ISE during RADIUS authorization and tag traffic accordingly. SGT assignment can also be based on device type, location, posture compliance, or other contextual factors. Static SGT assignment is available for devices without authentication capabilities by mapping IP addresses or subnets to specific tags. Once assigned, SGTs remain with traffic as it traverses the network, with enforcement occurring at strategic control points.
Security Group Access Control Lists define enforcement policy specifying which SGT-to-SGT communications are permitted. Instead of traditional ACLs with hundreds of IP-based rules, administrators create simple policies like «Finance-Users (SGT 5) can access Database-Servers (SGT 20) on ports 1433 and 443.» These policies are configured centrally in ISE and distributed to enforcement points including switches, routers, firewalls, and wireless controllers. The scalability advantage is significant because policies are role-based rather than address-based, remaining valid even as users move, IP addresses change, or the network grows. TrustSec supports inline tagging where capable devices insert and read SGT values in packet headers, or Security Group Tag Exchange Protocol for communicating tags between devices. B is incorrect because AnyConnect is a VPN client providing secure remote access but does not perform network segmentation or SGT assignment. C is incorrect because Umbrella provides DNS-layer security for threat protection but does not implement SGT-based segmentation. D is incorrect because while Firepower can enforce TrustSec policies, it is the enforcement point rather than the technology that enables SGT assignment based on AD groups.
Question 52:
Which Cisco Web Security Appliance feature provides protection against malware by sandboxing suspicious files for behavioral analysis?
A) Advanced Malware Protection
B) URL filtering
C) Data loss prevention
D) Application visibility and control
Answer: A
Explanation:
Advanced Malware Protection on Cisco Web Security Appliance provides protection through sandboxing capabilities that execute suspicious files in isolated environments for behavioral analysis, making A the correct answer. This capability detects sophisticated malware that evades traditional signature-based detection by observing actual file behavior during execution.
AMP file sandboxing operates through a multi-stage analysis process. When users download files through the web proxy, AMP performs initial file reputation checks comparing file hashes against Cisco Talos threat intelligence cloud. Files with known good reputation pass through immediately, while known malicious files are blocked. Files with unknown or suspicious reputation are candidates for sandbox analysis. The WSA can be configured to hold suspicious files temporarily while sending copies to Cisco Threat Grid cloud sandbox for analysis. Threat Grid executes the file in secure virtual environments running various operating systems and application versions, monitoring all behaviors including file system modifications, registry changes, network connections, process creation, and API calls. If malicious behaviors are detected, the file is classified as malware and blocked from user access.
The sandbox analysis process provides detailed threat intelligence beyond simple malware detection. Threat Grid generates comprehensive reports documenting all observed behaviors, network indicators, dropped files, and malicious activities. These reports help security teams understand attack methodologies and develop additional defensive measures. Behavioral indicators discovered during sandboxing are shared with the global Talos intelligence network, improving protection for all Cisco security products. Organizations can configure custom sandboxing policies determining which file types undergo analysis, maximum file sizes for sandboxing, and whether to block or allow files pending sandbox results. Balance between security and user experience is achieved through configurations allowing certain trusted file sources to bypass sandboxing or enabling immediate download with retrospective scanning.
Integration with other WSA security features creates defense-in-depth protection against web-based threats. URL filtering blocks access to malicious sites before file downloads occur. Outbreak filters provide rapid protection against newly discovered threats before signature updates distribute. Data loss prevention prevents sensitive information from being uploaded to external sites. Application visibility and control manages which web applications users can access. Real-time web reputation evaluates website trustworthiness before permitting access. These layered protections work together ensuring that even if one defense is bypassed, additional controls prevent compromise. B is incorrect because URL filtering categorizes and controls website access based on content categories but does not sandbox files for behavioral analysis. C is incorrect because DLP prevents sensitive data exfiltration by inspecting outbound content but does not analyze inbound files in sandboxes. D is incorrect because application visibility and control identifies and manages web application usage but does not provide file sandboxing or malware analysis capabilities.
Question 53:
An administrator needs to configure a Cisco ASA firewall to authenticate VPN users against an external RADIUS server. Which AAA command must be configured?
A) aaa-server
B) radius-server
C) authentication-server
D) access-server
Answer: A
Explanation:
The aaa-server command configures external AAA servers including RADIUS servers for authentication, authorization, and accounting on Cisco ASA firewalls, making A the correct answer. This command defines server groups, specifies server addresses, and configures authentication parameters necessary for VPN user authentication against external identity sources.
AAA server configuration on ASA involves creating server groups and adding individual servers to those groups. The «aaa-server» command creates a named server group specifying the protocol type such as RADIUS or TACACS+. For example, «aaa-server RADIUS-GROUP protocol radius» creates a server group named «RADIUS-GROUP» using RADIUS protocol. Within the server group, administrators add individual RADIUS servers using additional «aaa-server» commands specifying server IP addresses, authentication ports, shared secrets, and timeout values. Multiple servers can be added to a single group for redundancy, with the ASA attempting authentication against servers in order until one responds successfully or all servers are exhausted.
RADIUS server configuration requires several parameters for proper operation. The server IP address or hostname identifies the RADIUS server location. The authentication port specifies which UDP port the RADIUS server uses, typically 1812 for authentication or 1645 for legacy configurations. Shared secrets provide encryption keys for secure communication between ASA and RADIUS servers, with strong secrets recommended for security. Timeout values determine how long ASA waits for RADIUS responses before trying the next server or failing authentication. Retry attempts specify how many times ASA contacts a non-responsive server before moving to the next server in the group. Additional options include accounting configuration for tracking user sessions, authorization for receiving user attributes, and various RADIUS attributes for passing specific information.
Once AAA servers are configured, VPN tunnel groups reference the server group for authentication. Remote access VPN configurations specify which aaa-server group to use for validating user credentials submitted during VPN connection attempts. When users connect via AnyConnect or IPsec, ASA forwards their credentials to the configured RADIUS server for validation. Upon successful authentication, RADIUS can return user attributes including group policies, VPN access hours, split tunneling configurations, and other parameters that ASA applies to the VPN session. This integration enables centralized identity management where VPN access decisions are based on Active Directory groups or other identity attributes without duplicating user accounts locally on ASA. Fallback authentication allows local database authentication if RADIUS servers are unavailable, ensuring administrative access remains possible during authentication infrastructure outages. B is incorrect because «radius-server» is not the correct ASA syntax for configuring AAA servers. C and D are incorrect because these are not valid ASA commands for AAA server configuration.
Question 54:
Which type of access control list on Cisco routers is processed faster due to its compiled nature?
A) Standard ACL
B) Extended ACL
C) Named ACL
D) Reflexive ACL
Answer: B
Explanation:
Extended ACLs are processed faster than other ACL types because Cisco routers compile them into optimized lookup tables, making B the correct answer. This compilation process converts extended ACL rules into efficient data structures enabling rapid packet classification without examining every ACL entry sequentially for each packet.
Extended ACLs provide granular traffic filtering based on multiple criteria including source and destination IP addresses, protocol types, source and destination ports, TCP flags, and other packet characteristics. Traditional ACL processing evaluates each packet against ACL entries sequentially from top to bottom, stopping at the first matching entry. This sequential processing becomes inefficient for long ACLs with hundreds of rules, as every packet might require comparison against many entries before a match is found. Cisco introduced turbo ACLs and compiled ACL technology addressing this performance limitation. When extended ACLs are compiled, the router builds optimized data structures such as hash tables or tree structures enabling constant-time or logarithmic-time lookups rather than linear sequential searches.
The compilation process occurs automatically on platforms supporting this feature, including modern ISR and ASR routers. When extended ACLs are applied to interfaces, the router analyzes the ACL rules and generates optimized lookup mechanisms. The compiled structure groups related rules, eliminates redundancies, and creates indexed data structures accelerating matching decisions. This optimization dramatically improves forwarding performance, particularly for routers processing high packet rates or implementing large complex ACL policies. Compilation occurs when ACLs are modified, with the router rebuilding optimized structures to reflect rule changes. The performance advantage is most significant for large ACLs and high-traffic environments where packet processing speed directly impacts throughput and latency.
Standard ACLs, which filter only based on source IP addresses, use simpler matching logic but are not typically compiled into optimized structures because their limited criteria don’t benefit as much from advanced data structures. Named ACLs are simply extended or standard ACLs with descriptive names rather than numbers, inheriting the processing characteristics of their type. Reflexive ACLs provide stateful filtering by dynamically creating temporary entries for return traffic but use different processing mechanisms focused on session tracking rather than compiled lookups. The compilation advantage of extended ACLs makes them preferred for performance-critical deployments with complex filtering requirements. However, proper ACL design remains important regardless of compilation, with most specific rules placed near the top and most frequently matched rules prioritized for optimal performance. A is incorrect because standard ACLs filter only source addresses and lack the compilation optimization of extended ACLs. C is incorrect because named ACLs are organizational structures, not performance-optimized types. D is incorrect because reflexive ACLs focus on session tracking rather than compiled processing.
Question 55:
An administrator wants to prevent users from accessing newly registered domains that are often used for phishing attacks. Which Cisco Umbrella feature provides this protection?
A) Newly Seen Domains
B) File reputation
C) SSL decryption
D) Application control
Answer: A
Explanation:
Newly Seen Domains feature in Cisco Umbrella identifies and blocks access to recently registered domains that are statistically likely to be malicious, making A the correct answer. This predictive security capability protects against phishing campaigns and malware distribution sites that rely on newly created domains to evade traditional reputation-based security controls.
Newly Seen Domains leverages Umbrella’s global visibility into DNS activity across millions of users worldwide. Cisco’s threat intelligence team analyzes patterns associated with malicious domains, finding that many phishing campaigns and malware distribution sites use freshly registered domains for their attacks. These domains are «newly seen» from Umbrella’s perspective, meaning they have recently appeared in global DNS queries after having little or no previous query history. Attackers prefer new domains because traditional reputation systems haven’t had time to classify them as malicious, allowing the domains to bypass URL filters and web security controls that rely on categorization databases. The window between domain registration and classification is exploited to launch attacks before security vendors can respond.
Umbrella’s Newly Seen Domains protection applies statistical modeling and machine learning to predict malicious intent based on domain characteristics. The system examines factors including domain registration age, registrar reputation, DNS infrastructure patterns, lexical analysis of domain names, TLS certificate attributes, and website content characteristics visible through passive DNS intelligence. Domains exhibiting suspicious patterns receive risk scores indicating likelihood of malicious intent. Organizations configure thresholds determining which risk levels trigger blocking, with options ranging from blocking all newly seen domains to blocking only those with highest risk scores. This predictive approach provides zero-day protection against phishing campaigns using brand-new domains before the first victim is compromised.
The implementation of Newly Seen Domains protection requires balancing security and user experience. Blocking all newly registered domains would prevent some legitimate website access, as benign organizations also register new domains for product launches, marketing campaigns, or rebranding initiatives. Umbrella addresses this through intelligent risk scoring, whitelist capabilities for known legitimate domains, and category-based exemptions. Organizations can whitelist specific newly registered domains after verification, allow newly seen domains in certain categories like established brands, or implement warnings instead of blocks for moderate risk levels. Reporting shows which newly seen domains users attempt to access, enabling security teams to refine policies based on actual usage patterns. Integration with other Umbrella features including threat intelligence feeds, file reputation analysis, and SSL inspection creates comprehensive protection against threats delivered through multiple attack vectors. B is incorrect because file reputation analyzes downloaded files rather than assessing domain registration age and characteristics. C is incorrect because SSL decryption enables inspection of encrypted traffic but doesn’t specifically identify newly registered malicious domains. D is incorrect because application control manages which applications users can access but doesn’t provide predictive protection based on domain age.
Question 56:
Which Cisco technology uses NetFlow data to detect anomalous network behavior that may indicate security threats or compromised devices?
A) Cisco Stealthwatch
B) Cisco Umbrella
C) Cisco AMP
D) Cisco Duo
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Stealthwatch analyzes NetFlow data and other network telemetry to detect anomalous behavior patterns indicating security threats or compromised devices, making A the correct answer. Stealthwatch provides network visibility and security analytics by examining actual network communications rather than relying solely on signature-based detection or perimeter security controls.
Stealthwatch operates by collecting network telemetry from diverse sources across the infrastructure. NetFlow, IPFIX, and other flow protocols provide detailed information about network conversations including source and destination addresses, ports, protocols, timestamps, byte counts, and packet counts. Stealthwatch collectors aggregate this flow data from routers, switches, firewalls, and other network devices. The system also collects additional telemetry including SNMP data, NetFlow application recognition data, and context from identity sources like ISE or Active Directory. This comprehensive telemetry provides complete visibility into network communications, including east-west traffic between internal systems that may bypass perimeter security controls. The scale of data collection enables analysis of the entire network rather than sampling or monitoring only critical segments.
Advanced analytics applied to collected telemetry detect security threats through multiple techniques. Behavioral modeling establishes baselines for normal network behavior patterns specific to each device, user, and application. Machine learning algorithms identify deviations from established baselines that may indicate threats. For example, a workstation normally communicating with local servers that suddenly contacts external IP addresses in suspicious geographic locations triggers anomaly alerts. Data hoarding behavior where a device suddenly accesses and downloads large volumes of data suggests potential data exfiltration. Command and control detection identifies periodic communications patterns characteristic of malware beaconing to external controllers. Lateral movement detection recognizes infected devices scanning or attempting connections across multiple internal systems. Distributed denial of service attack detection identifies coordinated traffic patterns overwhelming target systems.
Stealthwatch provides specific security use cases beyond generic anomaly detection. Encrypted malware detection identifies threats hiding in encrypted traffic by analyzing metadata and communication patterns without decryption. Ransomware detection recognizes file sharing patterns associated with encryption activity. Insider threat detection identifies employees accessing sensitive systems outside normal behavior patterns or exfiltrating data. Policy violation monitoring ensures network usage complies with acceptable use requirements. Integration with other security tools including firewalls, SIEM platforms, and orchestration systems enables automated response when threats are detected. Security teams use Stealthwatch investigation capabilities to understand attack scope, identify patient zero, and track attacker movement through the environment. B is incorrect because Umbrella provides DNS-layer security through domain intelligence rather than analyzing NetFlow data for behavioral anomalies. C is incorrect because AMP focuses on malware detection through file analysis rather than network traffic behavioral analysis. D is incorrect because Duo provides multi-factor authentication and device trust rather than NetFlow-based threat detection.
Question 57:
An administrator needs to configure a Cisco firewall to allow remote access VPN users to access specific internal resources while preventing access to the entire internal network. Which feature should be configured?
A) Split tunneling
B) Access control lists
C) Network address translation
D) Port address translation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Access control lists applied to VPN group policies restrict which internal resources remote access VPN users can access, making B the correct answer. ACLs provide granular control over VPN user permissions, implementing least privilege principles by permitting access only to necessary resources rather than granting full network access.
VPN access control implementation on Cisco firewalls uses ACLs within group policies or dynamic access policies to restrict authenticated VPN user traffic. When VPN users connect, they are assigned to group policies based on authentication attributes like Active Directory group membership, RADIUS/LDAP attributes, or connection type. Each group policy can reference an ACL defining permitted and denied traffic. The ACL specifies allowed destination IP addresses, networks, ports, and protocols that VPN users in that group can access. For example, an ACL might permit access to specific application servers on ports 80 and 443 while denying access to database subnets, management networks, or other sensitive infrastructure. The firewall enforces these ACLs by filtering traffic from VPN sessions, dropping packets that violate policy while allowing compliant traffic through the tunnel.
Configuration of VPN ACLs requires careful planning balancing security and functionality. Administrators identify which internal resources each user group requires, documenting specific servers, applications, and services necessary for job functions. ACLs are created permitting only these necessary communications while denying all other traffic through implicit or explicit deny statements. Testing ensures that legitimate workflows function properly while unauthorized access is blocked. ACLs can be as granular as needed, specifying individual server IP addresses for highly restricted access or allowing broader subnet access for groups requiring extensive internal access. Using object groups and network objects simplifies ACL management by providing logical names for resources rather than manually managing IP addresses. Dynamic updates through AAA server integration enable real-time access changes when user roles change without modifying firewall configurations directly.
VPN ACLs address multiple security and compliance requirements. Least privilege principle is enforced by limiting access to only necessary resources. Contractors or third-party VPN access can be strictly confined to specific systems they support. Compliance frameworks requiring network segmentation are satisfied through ACL enforcement. Security risk is reduced because compromised VPN credentials provide limited network access rather than full internal network access. Incident response is simplified because ACL violations generate logs identifying unauthorized access attempts. Combining ACLs with other security features including multi-factor authentication, device posture assessment, and session timeouts creates defense-in-depth for remote access. A is incorrect because split tunneling determines whether all user traffic or only corporate traffic goes through VPN, not which internal resources are accessible. C and D are incorrect because NAT and PAT handle address translation for routing rather than restricting VPN user access to specific resources.
Question 58:
Which Cisco DNA Center feature provides automated network segmentation based on user and device identity?
A) Software-Defined Access
B) Assurance
C) Automation
D) Policy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Software-Defined Access in Cisco DNA Center provides automated network segmentation based on user and device identity using policy-based automation, making A the correct answer. SD-Access transforms traditional network architectures by abstracting physical topology from security policy, enabling consistent enforcement regardless of user location or connection method.
SD-Access architecture implements intent-based networking where administrators define security and connectivity policies in business terms rather than configuring individual network devices. The system leverages several underlying technologies including Cisco TrustSec for segmentation, LISP for location-independent addressing, VXLAN for overlay networking, and DNA Center as the central management and automation platform. When users or devices connect to the network, they are authenticated through ISE integration. Based on authentication context including user identity, device type, location, and posture compliance, ISE dynamically assigns Security Group Tags. DNA Center propagates security policies throughout the fabric determining which SGTs can communicate with each other. This architecture enables «connect anywhere» functionality where users receive consistent policy enforcement whether connecting wired, wirelessly, or remotely without complex VLAN and subnet designs.
Implementation of SD-Access through DNA Center significantly simplifies network operations compared to traditional segmentation approaches. Administrators define virtual networks representing logical segmentation boundaries, assign users and devices to appropriate virtual networks, and configure inter-virtual-network communication policies. DNA Center automatically provisions all necessary configurations across fabric edge nodes, border nodes, and control plane nodes. Device onboarding is automated with fabric edge switches automatically discovering and configuring themselves. Policy changes are applied centrally and pushed across the fabric without manually configuring each device. Integration with external systems including ISE for identity, IPAM for addressing, and CMX for location services provides contextual awareness for policy decisions. Scalability is achieved through distributed control and data planes where individual device failures don’t impact the entire network.
SD-Access provides specific advantages addressing modern network security challenges. Micro-segmentation restricts lateral movement by controlling communications between individual devices or user groups. Zero-trust principles are implemented by requiring authentication and authorization before granting network access. Device mobility is supported as policies follow users regardless of connection location. IoT device integration enables secure connectivity for devices lacking 802.1X capabilities. Guest access is provided with appropriate isolation from corporate resources. Threat containment is simplified because compromised devices can be automatically quarantined through ISE integration with security products. Visibility into device communications and policy effectiveness is provided through DNA Center analytics. B is incorrect because Assurance provides network health monitoring and troubleshooting capabilities rather than identity-based segmentation. C is incorrect because while Automation provides workflow capabilities, it’s the SD-Access feature specifically that implements identity-based segmentation. D is incorrect because Policy is a component of SD-Access rather than a separate feature providing segmentation.
Question 59:
An administrator needs to configure a Cisco router to authenticate administrative users locally when external AAA servers are unavailable. Which configuration enables this fallback authentication?
A) aaa authentication login default local
B) aaa authentication login default group radius local
C) username admin privilege 15 secret password
D) enable secret password
Answer: B
Explanation:
The command «aaa authentication login default group radius local» configures fallback authentication where the router first attempts RADIUS authentication and falls back to local database authentication if RADIUS servers are unavailable, making B the correct answer. This configuration ensures administrative access remains possible during authentication infrastructure outages while preferring centralized authentication when available.
AAA authentication configuration on Cisco routers specifies method lists defining authentication order and sources. The «aaa authentication login» command creates named or default method lists for login authentication. The «default» keyword creates the default method list applied to all login attempts unless a specific line references a different named list. The «group radius» parameter instructs the router to attempt authentication against configured RADIUS servers first. If RADIUS servers don’t respond due to network issues, server failures, or configuration problems, the router proceeds to the next authentication method in the list. The «local» parameter specifies that the router’s local username database should be used as fallback authentication. This configuration provides resilience ensuring that administrators can always access the device even when external authentication infrastructure is unavailable.
Implementation of fallback authentication requires both AAA configuration and local username creation. The AAA commands configure authentication ordering, while local usernames must be created using «username» commands providing fallback credentials. For example, «username admin privilege 15 secret StrongPassword123» creates a local account with full administrative privileges used when RADIUS authentication is unavailable. Multiple method lists can be configured for different purposes, such as using RADIUS with local fallback for standard logins while using local-only authentication for console access ensuring recovery access always works. Method list ordering is critical as authentication proceeds left to right through specified methods. Careful design prevents lockout scenarios while maintaining security through centralized authentication when possible.
The fallback authentication model provides operational benefits and risk management. Centralized authentication through RADIUS integrates with Active Directory or other identity sources, enabling consistent credential management and simplified account administration. User activity logging through RADIUS accounting provides comprehensive audit trails. However, single points of failure in authentication infrastructure could prevent device access during outages. Fallback to local authentication ensures that critical network maintenance can proceed even during authentication infrastructure failures. Local accounts should use strong unique passwords different from central credentials, documented in secure password management systems, and regularly audited to ensure appropriate users have local access. Some organizations disable fallback for highly secure devices requiring absolute authentication through external systems, accepting potential lockout risk for enhanced security. A is incorrect because it configures only local authentication without RADIUS, lacking centralized authentication benefits. C is incorrect because this only creates a local username without configuring AAA authentication methods or fallback. D is incorrect because enable secret only secures enable mode access and doesn’t configure AAA authentication fallback mechanisms.
Question 60:
Which Cisco security technology uses DNS tunneling detection to identify malware communicating through DNS queries?
A) Cisco Umbrella
B) Cisco AMP
C) Cisco Firepower
D) Cisco ISE
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Umbrella provides DNS tunneling detection capabilities identifying malware that exfiltrates data or receives commands through encoded DNS queries, making A the correct answer. This protection addresses a sophisticated evasion technique where attackers abuse DNS protocol for command and control communications that often bypass traditional security controls.
DNS tunneling works by encoding arbitrary data within DNS queries and responses, essentially using DNS as a covert communication channel. Malware on infected systems generates DNS queries where the hostname encodes stolen data or command requests. These queries reach attacker-controlled authoritative DNS servers that decode the data and respond with encoded commands or acknowledgments. Because DNS traffic is usually permitted through firewalls and rarely inspected for malicious content, DNS tunneling provides attackers with reliable communication channels that evade detection. The technique is used for various malicious purposes including command and control for botnets, data exfiltration bypassing DLP controls, and establishing persistence channels that survive network changes.
Umbrella detects DNS tunneling through multiple analytical techniques applied to its global visibility into DNS traffic. Statistical analysis identifies DNS queries with unusual characteristics such as excessive query length, high entropy in hostnames suggesting encoded data, unusual character distributions, or query patterns inconsistent with legitimate DNS usage. Behavioral analysis establishes baselines for normal DNS query patterns and identifies deviations such as devices generating unusually high volumes of DNS traffic, querying suspicious domains, or demonstrating periodic query patterns characteristic of automated malware beacons. Machine learning models trained on known tunneling samples identify subtle patterns associated with tunneling activity. Real-time threat intelligence correlates queried domains with known malicious infrastructure. When tunneling is detected, Umbrella blocks the DNS queries preventing command and control communications and data exfiltration.
Protection against DNS tunneling provides several security benefits beyond blocking specific attacks. Infected devices attempting tunneling are identified, enabling incident response teams to locate and remediate compromised systems. Data exfiltration attempts through DNS are prevented, protecting sensitive information from theft. Command and control channels are disrupted, limiting attacker capabilities to control malware or deploy additional payloads. Integration with other security tools enables coordinated response such as automatically isolating detected devices through ISE or triggering endpoint scans through AMP. Umbrella’s position as a recursive DNS service ensures that all DNS queries are inspected regardless of whether they originate from corporate networks, remote offices, or mobile users, providing consistent protection across distributed environments. B is incorrect because AMP focuses on malware detection through file analysis and behavioral monitoring rather than DNS protocol analysis. C is incorrect because while Firepower can inspect DNS traffic, it doesn’t have the global DNS visibility and specialized tunneling detection capabilities of Umbrella’s cloud-based DNS security. D is incorrect because ISE provides network access control and policy enforcement but does not analyze DNS traffic for tunneling attempts.