Cisco 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 10 Q 136-150
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Question 136:
Which Cisco security solution provides centralized management and monitoring of multiple security devices including firewalls, IPS, and VPN concentrators?
A) Cisco DNA Center
B) Cisco Security Manager
C) Cisco Firepower Management Center
D) Cisco Prime Infrastructure
Answer: C
Explanation:
Cisco Firepower Management Center (FMC) is the centralized management platform specifically designed for managing and monitoring Cisco security devices including Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) firewalls, next-generation firewalls, intrusion prevention systems, and VPN concentrators. FMC provides a unified interface where administrators can configure security policies, deploy configurations across multiple devices, monitor security events, analyze threats, and generate compliance reports from a single management console. This centralization significantly reduces administrative overhead and ensures consistent security policy enforcement across the entire security infrastructure.
The architecture of Firepower Management Center supports both physical and virtual deployments, scaling from small environments with a few devices to large enterprises managing hundreds of security appliances across multiple geographic locations. FMC communicates with managed devices through secure encrypted channels, pushing configuration updates and receiving event data, performance metrics, and health status information. The management platform maintains a comprehensive database of all security events, allowing administrators to perform historical analysis, correlate events across multiple devices, and identify security trends or persistent threats that might not be apparent when viewing individual devices in isolation.
Key capabilities of FMC include unified policy management where administrators create security policies once and deploy them across multiple devices with appropriate customization for each location, centralized access control defining which users and applications can access network resources, intrusion prevention policy management configuring signature-based and anomaly-based threat detection, VPN policy configuration for site-to-site and remote access VPN connections, and network discovery providing visibility into all devices, users, and applications on the network. These integrated capabilities ensure comprehensive security management from a single platform.
FMC also provides advanced threat analysis and correlation capabilities through integration with Cisco Talos threat intelligence. The platform receives real-time threat intelligence updates and automatically applies protections against newly discovered threats across all managed devices. Security analysts can investigate incidents using the integrated analysis tools that provide detailed forensic information including complete connection histories, file trajectories showing how malware spread through the network, and retrospective analysis that identifies previously unknown threats in historical data based on newly discovered indicators of compromise.
A is incorrect because Cisco DNA Center is a network management and automation platform focused on enterprise network infrastructure including switches, routers, and wireless controllers rather than security device management. While DNA Center includes some security features, it is not the primary management platform for Firepower firewalls and IPS devices.
B is incorrect because Cisco Security Manager is a legacy management platform that has been largely replaced by Firepower Management Center for modern Cisco security deployments. While Security Manager could manage older ASA firewalls and IPS devices, it does not support newer Firepower Threat Defense appliances and lacks the advanced threat analysis capabilities of FMC.
D is incorrect because Cisco Prime Infrastructure is a network management platform focused on managing enterprise wired and wireless infrastructure rather than security devices. Prime Infrastructure handles network performance monitoring, configuration management, and troubleshooting for campus and branch networks but does not manage security appliances.
Question 137:
What is the primary purpose of implementing security zones on a Cisco firewall?
A) To encrypt traffic between networks
B) To segment the network and control traffic flow between segments
C) To provide redundancy for network connections
D) To increase network bandwidth
Answer: B
Explanation:
Security zones on Cisco firewalls serve the primary purpose of segmenting the network into logical areas with different security requirements and controlling traffic flow between these segments through explicit security policies. Each security zone represents a collection of one or more interfaces that share similar security characteristics and trust levels, such as an inside zone for trusted internal networks, an outside zone for untrusted internet connections, and DMZ zones for publicly accessible servers requiring controlled access from both internal and external sources. This segmentation creates security boundaries where all traffic crossing between zones must be explicitly permitted by security policies, implementing a default-deny security posture.
The concept of security zones simplifies security policy management by allowing administrators to create policies based on zone relationships rather than individual interface pairs. Instead of creating separate policies for every possible source and destination interface combination, administrators define policies that apply to traffic from one zone to another zone. For example, a single policy allowing HTTP and HTTPS traffic from the inside zone to the outside zone applies regardless of how many physical or virtual interfaces are members of each zone. This abstraction reduces configuration complexity, especially in environments with many network segments and interfaces.
Security zone implementation follows defense-in-depth principles by creating multiple layers of protection. The most basic zone architecture includes inside (trusted internal network), outside (untrusted internet), and DMZ (semi-trusted servers) zones with carefully controlled traffic flows between them. More sophisticated implementations include additional zones such as management zones for administrative access to network devices, guest zones for visitor network access, partner zones for business partner connections, and development zones for testing environments. Each zone receives appropriate security controls based on the sensitivity of resources it contains and the trust level of users or systems within it.
Traffic inspection behavior varies based on zone-to-zone relationships and configured security policies. Traffic flowing from higher security zones to lower security zones (such as inside to outside) typically requires less restrictive policies as the traffic originates from trusted sources moving toward less trusted networks. Conversely, traffic from lower to higher security zones (outside to inside) requires strict policies with comprehensive inspection since potentially hostile traffic is attempting to access trusted resources. Same-security-level zone traffic and intra-zone traffic can be configured to require inspection or bypass it based on security requirements and performance considerations.
A is incorrect because while firewalls can encrypt traffic through VPN capabilities, this is not the primary purpose of security zones. Security zones focus on network segmentation and access control rather than encryption. Encryption is a separate security control that can be applied to traffic crossing zones when needed.
B is correct.
C is incorrect because security zones do not provide redundancy for network connections. Redundancy is achieved through techniques like interface redundancy, device clustering, or failover configurations, which are separate from the logical network segmentation that security zones provide.
D is incorrect because security zones do not increase network bandwidth. Security zones are logical constructs for organizing interfaces and controlling traffic flow based on security policies, having no direct relationship to bandwidth or network performance beyond the impact of security inspection on throughput.
Question 138:
Which protocol does Cisco TrustSec use to propagate security group tags throughout the network?
A) RADIUS
B) TACACS+
C) SXP (Security Group Tag Exchange Protocol)
D) SNMP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Security Group Tag Exchange Protocol (SXP) is the protocol specifically designed by Cisco for propagating Security Group Tags (SGTs) throughout the network infrastructure in TrustSec deployments. SXP enables network devices that cannot natively apply SGTs to traffic to learn and enforce TrustSec policies by exchanging SGT-to-IP address mappings with other network devices. This propagation mechanism ensures that security group information follows users and devices as they move through the network, enabling consistent policy enforcement regardless of network location or topology.
The SXP architecture involves speaker and listener roles where devices with SGT assignment capabilities act as SXP speakers that advertise SGT-to-IP address bindings, while devices without native SGT capabilities act as SXP listeners that receive these bindings and use them for policy enforcement. SXP connections are established over TCP connections (default port 64999) with authentication and optional encryption protecting the SGT exchange. Multiple SXP connections can exist simultaneously, allowing complex topologies where some devices act as both speakers and listeners, creating a hierarchy of SGT distribution throughout the network infrastructure.
SXP operation involves several key processes. When a device assigns an SGT to a user or endpoint through authentication or profiling, it creates a binding between the IP address and the assigned SGT. If configured as an SXP speaker, the device advertises this binding to connected SXP listeners. Listeners receive these bindings and populate their local SGT tables, enabling them to identify which SGTs are associated with specific IP addresses. When traffic arrives from these IP addresses, the device applies appropriate security policies based on the source SGT and destination SGT combination, even though the traffic itself may not carry inline SGT tags.
SXP is particularly valuable in networks with mixed device capabilities where some infrastructure cannot perform inline SGT tagging. Legacy switches, routers without TrustSec hardware support, or third-party devices can participate in TrustSec policy enforcement through SXP without requiring hardware upgrades. This extends TrustSec benefits throughout the network infrastructure, allowing organizations to implement software-defined segmentation gradually while leveraging existing investments in network equipment.
A is incorrect because while RADIUS is used in TrustSec deployments for authentication and initial SGT assignment to users or devices, it does not propagate SGTs between network infrastructure devices. RADIUS communications occur between network access devices and authentication servers, not between network devices for SGT distribution.
B is incorrect because TACACS+ is an authentication protocol primarily used for device administration rather than TrustSec SGT propagation. While TACACS+ can authenticate administrators managing TrustSec configurations, it does not exchange SGT information between network devices.
C is correct.
D is incorrect because SNMP is a network management protocol used for monitoring and managing network devices, not for propagating Security Group Tags. While SNMP might be used to monitor TrustSec operation, it does not participate in the actual distribution of SGT information throughout the network.
Question 139:
What is the function of Cisco Umbrella in a security architecture?
A) Next-generation firewall
B) Cloud-delivered secure internet gateway
C) Network access control
D) Endpoint protection platform
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cisco Umbrella functions as a cloud-delivered secure internet gateway that provides the first line of defense against internet-based threats by securing DNS requests, web traffic, and cloud application access. Umbrella operates as a cloud-native security service that protects users regardless of their location, whether they are in the office, working remotely, or traveling. By positioning security enforcement at the DNS and IP layers before connections are established, Umbrella can block threats before they reach the network or endpoints, preventing malware downloads, phishing attacks, command-and-control communications, and access to malicious websites.
The architecture of Umbrella leverages Cisco’s global network of data centers distributed worldwide to provide low-latency security enforcement for users everywhere. When users attempt to access internet resources, their DNS queries are directed to Umbrella’s resolvers through various mechanisms including network-level DNS forwarding, endpoint agents, or virtual appliances. Umbrella analyzes each DNS request against its threat intelligence database, which is continuously updated by Cisco Talos research and machine learning algorithms analyzing billions of daily internet requests. If a requested domain is associated with malware, phishing, or other threats, Umbrella blocks the request before any connection is established, preventing the threat from reaching the user.
Umbrella provides multiple security functions integrated into a single cloud service. DNS-layer security blocks requests to malicious domains identified through threat intelligence, preventing connections to command-and-control servers, phishing sites, and malware distribution points. Web security with SSL decryption inspects HTTPS traffic for threats, providing visibility into encrypted communications that might hide malicious activity. Cloud application security controls access to sanctioned and unsanctioned cloud applications, enforcing acceptable use policies and preventing data loss through unauthorized cloud services. Firewall capabilities provide additional protection by filtering traffic at the IP and port level for non-web protocols.
The benefits of Umbrella’s cloud-delivered architecture include deployment simplicity requiring minimal infrastructure changes, scalability handling traffic from small businesses to large enterprises without capacity concerns, performance with globally distributed infrastructure providing fast response times, and comprehensive protection covering all ports and protocols regardless of user location. Organizations can deploy Umbrella protection in hours rather than the weeks or months required for traditional security appliance deployments, and the service automatically scales to handle traffic growth without hardware procurement or capacity planning.
A is incorrect because while Umbrella includes some firewall capabilities, it is not a traditional next-generation firewall appliance. NGFWs typically sit at network perimeters providing stateful packet inspection, while Umbrella operates as a cloud service protecting internet-bound traffic through DNS and web security.
B is correct.
C is incorrect because network access control (NAC) systems control which devices can connect to network resources based on device posture and authentication, typically operating at network access points like switches and wireless controllers. Umbrella does not perform network access control functions.
D is incorrect because endpoint protection platforms install agents on endpoints to provide malware detection, prevention, and response capabilities at the device level. While Umbrella can deploy lightweight agents for improved functionality, it is fundamentally a cloud-delivered internet security service rather than traditional endpoint protection.
Question 140:
Which Cisco solution provides automated threat detection and response using machine learning and behavioral analytics?
A) Cisco AnyConnect
B) Cisco Stealthwatch
C) Cisco ISE
D) Cisco ASA
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cisco Stealthwatch (now part of Cisco Secure Network Analytics) provides automated threat detection and response capabilities using machine learning algorithms and behavioral analytics to identify security threats that evade traditional signature-based detection methods. Stealthwatch analyzes network telemetry data including NetFlow, IPFIX, and other flow records to establish baseline behavior patterns for users, devices, and applications, then detects anomalies indicating potential security incidents such as data exfiltration, lateral movement, command-and-control communications, or insider threats. This behavioral approach enables detection of unknown threats, zero-day attacks, and advanced persistent threats that traditional security tools might miss.
The architecture of Stealthwatch consists of several components working together to provide comprehensive threat visibility. Flow collectors gather telemetry data from network infrastructure devices including routers, switches, and firewalls, receiving millions of flow records representing network communications. The Stealthwatch Management Console (SMC) serves as the central management and analysis platform where administrators configure policies, view alerts, and investigate security incidents. Analytics engines process the collected telemetry using machine learning models that learn normal behavior patterns and statistical analysis that identifies deviations from established baselines. The system generates security alerts when suspicious activities are detected, prioritizing alerts based on threat severity and potential impact.
Stealthwatch employs sophisticated detection techniques beyond simple threshold-based alerting. Machine learning models analyze historical data to understand normal communication patterns, application usage, data transfer volumes, and user behaviors, creating dynamic baselines that adapt to changing network conditions. Behavioral analytics compare current activities against these baselines to identify anomalies such as a user suddenly accessing unusual servers, large data transfers to external destinations, or communications with known malicious IP addresses. Entity modeling tracks individual users and devices over time, building comprehensive profiles that enable detection of subtle changes in behavior indicating account compromise or insider threats.
Integration capabilities extend Stealthwatch’s value by enabling automated response actions when threats are detected. Through APIs and integrations with other security platforms, Stealthwatch can trigger automated responses including isolating compromised endpoints by quarantining them through network access control systems, blocking malicious traffic at firewalls or intrusion prevention systems, creating incident tickets in security orchestration platforms for analyst investigation, and alerting security operations teams through multiple channels. These automated responses reduce the time between threat detection and containment, limiting potential damage from security incidents.
A is incorrect because Cisco AnyConnect is a VPN client and network access solution that provides secure remote access to corporate networks and endpoint security through modules like malware protection and web security. AnyConnect does not provide network-wide threat detection using behavioral analytics.
B is correct.
C is incorrect because Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) is a network access control and policy enforcement platform that manages device authentication, authorization, and posture assessment. While ISE integrates with threat detection platforms, it does not itself perform behavioral analytics or machine learning-based threat detection.
D is incorrect because Cisco ASA (Adaptive Security Appliance) is a firewall and VPN platform providing network security through stateful packet inspection, VPN connectivity, and integration with threat intelligence. While ASA can detect some threats, it does not employ the machine learning and behavioral analytics capabilities characteristic of Stealthwatch.
Question 141:
What is the primary function of Cisco Secure Endpoint (formerly AMP for Endpoints)?
A) Network access control
B) Advanced malware protection for endpoints
C) Web application firewall
D) Email security gateway
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cisco Secure Endpoint (formerly Advanced Malware Protection for Endpoints) provides advanced malware protection for endpoint devices including workstations, servers, and mobile devices through a combination of prevention, detection, and response capabilities. The solution goes beyond traditional antivirus approaches by employing multiple protection techniques including signature-based detection, behavioral analysis, machine learning, sandboxing, and continuous monitoring with retrospective analysis that can identify previously unknown threats in historical data. This comprehensive approach protects against malware, ransomware, fileless attacks, and advanced persistent threats throughout the attack lifecycle.
The architecture of Secure Endpoint consists of lightweight agents installed on endpoint devices and cloud-based intelligence and analysis infrastructure. The endpoint agent continuously monitors system activity including file operations, process execution, network connections, and registry modifications, sending telemetry data to the cloud for analysis while performing local protection actions based on policies and threat intelligence. The cloud infrastructure leverages Cisco Talos threat intelligence, one of the world’s largest commercial threat intelligence organizations, providing real-time protection updates against newly discovered threats without requiring agent updates or signature downloads.
Key capabilities of Secure Endpoint include prevention through blocking known malware using signatures and file reputation analysis, detection of suspicious behaviors indicating unknown malware or attack techniques through behavioral monitoring and machine learning models, containment through isolation of compromised endpoints and blocking of malicious processes, investigation through detailed forensic data showing complete attack timelines and affected files, and remediation through automated or guided cleanup of malware artifacts. The continuous monitoring approach means protection doesn’t stop after initial file scanning but continues throughout file lifecycle, detecting threats that might bypass initial inspection.
One of Secure Endpoint’s most powerful features is retrospective security, which continuously analyzes file behavior and reputation even after files have been permitted onto systems. When new threat intelligence identifies a previously unknown file as malicious, retrospective analysis automatically searches all endpoints for that file, identifies where it exists and what actions it has performed, and enables rapid response across the entire organization. This capability is particularly valuable against targeted attacks or zero-day threats where initial detection might miss malicious files that are only later identified as threats.
A is incorrect because network access control systems like Cisco ISE manage which devices can connect to the network based on authentication and posture assessment, rather than providing malware protection on endpoints. NAC and endpoint protection are complementary but distinct security functions.
B is correct.
C is incorrect because web application firewalls protect web applications from attacks by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic between clients and web servers, operating at the application layer rather than providing endpoint malware protection. WAFs and endpoint protection address different attack vectors.
D is incorrect because email security gateways filter email traffic to block spam, phishing, and malware delivered through email, operating at the network perimeter rather than on individual endpoints. While email security and endpoint protection often work together, they are separate security solutions.
Question 142:
Which encryption algorithm is considered most secure for protecting sensitive data in transit over VPN connections?
A) DES
B) 3DES
C) AES-256
D) RC4
Answer: C
Explanation:
AES-256 (Advanced Encryption Standard with 256-bit keys) is considered the most secure encryption algorithm among the given options for protecting sensitive data in transit over VPN connections. AES-256 uses symmetric key encryption with 256-bit keys, providing an extremely high level of security that is resistant to brute-force attacks even with significant computational resources. The algorithm performs multiple rounds of substitution and permutation operations (14 rounds for AES-256) that thoroughly mix and obscure the relationship between plaintext, ciphertext, and key, ensuring that encrypted data remains confidential even if intercepted by attackers.
The security strength of AES-256 comes from its large key space and proven cryptographic design. With 256-bit keys, there are 2^256 possible key combinations, a number so astronomically large that trying all possible keys would require more time and computational power than is feasibly available, even considering advances in computing technology. AES has been extensively analyzed by cryptographers worldwide since its adoption as a federal standard in 2001, and no practical attacks against properly implemented AES encryption have been discovered. This track record of security, combined with its endorsement by security agencies including the NSA for protecting classified information up to Top Secret level, establishes AES-256 as the preferred choice for protecting highly sensitive data.
Performance considerations make AES-256 practical for real-world deployments despite its strong security. Modern processors include AES-NI (Advanced Encryption Standard New Instructions) hardware acceleration that dramatically improves AES encryption and decryption performance, allowing VPN connections to maintain high throughput while using strong encryption. This hardware support makes AES-256 as fast or faster than legacy algorithms like 3DES in most modern systems, eliminating the historical tradeoff between security and performance that previously influenced algorithm selection.
Implementation of AES-256 in VPN contexts typically occurs within cipher suites that specify the complete set of cryptographic algorithms used for the connection. Common VPN protocols like IPsec and SSL/TLS VPN support AES-256 as part of their cipher suite options. Best practices recommend configuring VPN systems to prefer or require AES-256, disabling weaker legacy algorithms to prevent downgrade attacks where attackers might force connections to use less secure encryption. Organizations handling highly sensitive data, operating in regulated industries, or subject to compliance requirements should mandate AES-256 or equivalent strength encryption for all VPN connections.
A is incorrect because DES (Data Encryption Standard) uses only 56-bit keys and is considered cryptographically broken, vulnerable to brute-force attacks that can recover keys in hours or days using readily available computing resources. DES should never be used for protecting sensitive data in modern systems.
B is incorrect because 3DES (Triple DES) applies DES encryption three times to increase security, but even with this approach the effective key strength is approximately 112 bits, significantly weaker than AES-256. Additionally, 3DES has known vulnerabilities and performance limitations, leading security standards to deprecate its use in favor of AES.
C is correct.
D is incorrect because RC4 is a stream cipher that has been found to have serious cryptographic weaknesses making it unsuitable for protecting sensitive data. Major security standards and browsers have deprecated RC4, and it should not be used in any modern security implementations.
Question 143:
What is the purpose of implementing dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) on Cisco switches?
A) To prevent VLAN hopping attacks
B) To prevent ARP spoofing and man-in-the-middle attacks
C) To encrypt Layer 2 traffic
D) To provide load balancing across switch ports
Answer: B
Explanation:
Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) is a security feature implemented on Cisco switches specifically designed to prevent ARP spoofing attacks and the man-in-the-middle attacks that result from them. ARP spoofing occurs when malicious actors send forged ARP messages to associate their MAC address with the IP address of legitimate network devices such as the default gateway, allowing them to intercept, modify, or block traffic intended for other hosts. DAI mitigates this threat by inspecting ARP packets on untrusted ports, validating them against a trusted database of IP-to-MAC address bindings, and dropping any ARP packets that contain invalid or suspicious mappings. This inspection prevents attackers from poisoning ARP caches and redirecting traffic through their systems.
The operation of DAI relies on the DHCP snooping binding database, which maintains a record of legitimate IP-to-MAC address mappings learned from DHCP transactions. When DHCP snooping is enabled, switches monitor DHCP exchanges and record which IP addresses are assigned to which MAC addresses on specific ports. DAI references this database when inspecting ARP packets on untrusted ports, comparing the sender’s IP and MAC addresses in ARP messages against the known valid bindings. If an ARP packet claims an IP-to-MAC mapping that contradicts the DHCP snooping database, DAI drops the packet and optionally generates a log message or SNMP trap alerting administrators to the attempted attack.
Port trust configuration is fundamental to DAI implementation. Ports are designated as either trusted or untrusted, with different inspection behaviors for each. Trusted ports, typically uplinks to other switches or connections to routers and servers, bypass DAI inspection because these infrastructure devices are presumed to be under administrative control and not sources of malicious ARP traffic. Untrusted ports, typically access ports connecting to end-user devices, undergo full DAI inspection with all ARP packets validated before being forwarded. This trust model focuses inspection resources on ports most likely to be sources of attacks while avoiding unnecessary inspection overhead on infrastructure links.
Advanced DAI features provide additional protection beyond basic binding validation. Rate limiting prevents ARP flooding attacks where attackers send large volumes of ARP packets to overwhelm switch processing or disrupt network operations, by limiting the number of ARP packets per second on each port. Validation checks can inspect additional ARP packet fields beyond source IP and MAC addresses, including destination MAC address validation, IP address validation to ensure addresses are valid and not reserved addresses, and source MAC address validation comparing the sender’s MAC in the Ethernet header against the MAC in the ARP payload. These additional checks detect more sophisticated ARP-based attacks that might bypass basic binding validation.
A is incorrect because VLAN hopping attacks involve attackers gaining unauthorized access to VLANs by exploiting trunking protocols or double-tagging techniques, which are prevented by features like disabling DTP (Dynamic Trunking Protocol) and native VLAN modification rather than DAI. DAI specifically addresses ARP-based attacks, not VLAN security.
B is correct.
C is incorrect because DAI does not encrypt Layer 2 traffic; it validates ARP messages to prevent spoofing attacks. Encryption of Layer 2 traffic requires different technologies such as MACsec (Media Access Control Security), which provides point-to-point encryption between network devices.
D is incorrect because DAI does not provide load balancing functionality. Load balancing across switch ports is achieved through technologies like EtherChannel (Link Aggregation) or multipath routing, which are unrelated to the ARP validation functions that DAI performs.
Question 144:
Which AAA component determines what actions an authenticated user is permitted to perform?
A) Authentication
B) Authorization
C) Accounting
D) Auditing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Authorization is the AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) component that determines what actions an authenticated user is permitted to perform, which resources they can access, and what level of privileges they possess within the system. After a user’s identity has been verified through the authentication process, authorization policies evaluate that identity against defined rules and permissions to make access control decisions. This separation of authentication and authorization allows organizations to implement granular access controls where users can be authenticated to confirm their identity but then receive different levels of access based on their roles, group memberships, time of day, device posture, or other contextual factors.
The authorization process involves several steps and considerations. When an authenticated user attempts to access a resource or execute a command, the system consults authorization policies to determine if that specific action should be permitted. These policies can be configured locally on network devices or centrally on AAA servers like Cisco ISE (Identity Services Engine), TACACS+ servers, or RADIUS servers. Central authorization management provides significant advantages in large environments by allowing administrators to define and maintain access policies in one location rather than configuring each device individually, ensuring consistency across the infrastructure and simplifying policy updates when personnel changes or security requirements evolve.
Authorization can be applied at multiple levels and contexts within network security. Network access authorization determines which network segments, VLANs, or access control lists apply to users based on their identity and device characteristics, commonly used in Network Access Control (NAC) deployments. Administrative authorization controls which commands network administrators can execute on network devices, often implementing role-based access control (RBAC) where different administrator roles receive different privilege levels. Application authorization determines which applications or services users can access, frequently used in firewall policies and web filtering. VPN authorization specifies which resources remote users can access through VPN connections and what group policies apply to their sessions.
Modern authorization implementations often incorporate attribute-based access control (ABAC) that makes decisions based on multiple attributes rather than simple role assignments. Attributes can include user properties like department or security clearance, device properties like operating system version or presence of security software, environmental properties like time of day or source network location, and resource properties like data classification or sensitivity level. This contextual authorization enables adaptive security policies that dynamically adjust access based on risk factors, such as requiring additional authentication for sensitive resource access or restricting access to corporate data from unmanaged personal devices.
A is incorrect because authentication is the process of verifying user identity through credentials like usernames and passwords, certificates, or biometric factors, establishing who the user is rather than what they can do. Authentication must occur before authorization, but the two serve distinct purposes in the security framework.
B is correct.
C is incorrect because accounting records and tracks user activities, resource usage, and security events for purposes like billing, auditing, and forensic investigation. Accounting captures what users did rather than determining what they’re allowed to do, providing the logging and monitoring component of AAA rather than the access control component.
D is incorrect because while auditing involves reviewing logs and records of system activities, it is not a standard component of the AAA framework. Auditing uses accounting data but is a separate operational practice rather than one of the three core AAA components.
Question 145:
What is the function of Cisco Security Group Access (SGA) in a TrustSec deployment?
A) To authenticate users to the network
B) To provide software-defined network segmentation based on user and device identity
C) To encrypt all network traffic
D) To manage security device configurations
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cisco Security Group Access (SGA), a core component of TrustSec architecture, provides software-defined network segmentation based on user and device identity rather than traditional IP addresses or VLANs. SGA uses Security Group Tags (SGTs) that are assigned to users, devices, or resources based on their identity, role, or context, with these tags then used throughout the network to enforce access control policies regardless of network location or topology. This approach enables highly granular microsegmentation where access policies follow users and devices as they move through the network, maintaining consistent security enforcement without requiring complex VLAN restructuring or firewall rule modifications.
The architecture of SGA involves several key components and processes. During network access, Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) authenticates users and devices, then assigns appropriate SGTs based on identity attributes such as user group membership, device type, endpoint posture compliance, or location. These SGTs are propagated through the network infrastructure either inline (tagged directly in packet headers on capable devices) or through the SXP protocol for devices without native tagging support. Network devices throughout the infrastructure learn these SGT assignments and apply security policies based on source SGT (the tag of the packet sender) and destination SGT (the tag of the intended recipient), creating a security matrix that defines which communications are permitted between different security groups.
The benefits of SGA over traditional segmentation approaches are substantial. Location independence means security policies apply consistently whether users connect from office networks, remote locations, or guest networks, eliminating the need for complex location-specific firewall rules. Administrative simplification results from defining policies based on meaningful business roles rather than IP addresses, reducing policy complexity and maintenance overhead. Dynamic policy application automatically adjusts access permissions when users change roles or devices fail compliance checks, without requiring manual reconfiguration. Scalability improves dramatically as policies are defined once for security group relationships rather than repeatedly for every network location or subnet combination.
Implementation of SGA typically follows a phased approach starting with network infrastructure preparation ensuring devices support TrustSec capabilities, ISE deployment and integration for authentication and SGT assignment, security group definition identifying logical groups that reflect business organizational structure and access requirements, policy definition creating the security matrix specifying which groups can access which other groups, and phased enforcement beginning with monitoring-only mode to validate policies before enabling enforcement. Organizations should also establish governance processes for managing security group membership and policy changes to maintain security effectiveness as environments evolve.
A is incorrect because user authentication to the network is performed by the authentication component of AAA systems like ISE, not by SGA itself. SGA uses the results of authentication (user identity) to assign SGTs and enforce policies, but it doesn’t perform the authentication process.
B is correct.
C is incorrect because while TrustSec includes optional encryption capabilities through MACsec, the primary function of SGA specifically is policy-based segmentation rather than encryption. Encryption is an additional TrustSec feature that can complement SGA segmentation but is not SGA’s core function.
D is incorrect because management of security device configurations is performed by management platforms like Firepower Management Center or Cisco Security Manager, not by SGA. SGA focuses on network segmentation and access control policy enforcement, not device configuration management.
Question 146:
Which Cisco technology provides network visibility by analyzing metadata from network traffic without requiring full packet capture?
A) NetFlow
B) SPAN
C) Packet capture
D) Syslog
Answer: A
Explanation:
NetFlow is the Cisco technology that provides comprehensive network visibility by collecting and analyzing metadata from network traffic without requiring full packet capture, making it highly scalable and efficient for monitoring large networks. NetFlow works by examining packets flowing through network devices and creating flow records that summarize communication sessions, including information such as source and destination IP addresses, source and destination ports, protocol type, byte and packet counts, timestamps, and Type of Service markings. These flow records are then exported to collectors for storage, analysis, and reporting, providing deep insights into network behavior, application usage, security threats, and performance issues while consuming far less bandwidth and storage than full packet capture approaches.
The architecture of NetFlow consists of several components working together to provide visibility. Flow exporters, typically routers or switches, analyze passing traffic and generate flow records based on defined flow keys (the combination of packet header fields that uniquely identify a flow). Flow collectors receive exported flow records from multiple network devices and store them in databases for analysis. Analysis tools process the collected flow data to generate reports, detect anomalies, identify security threats, and provide visualization of network traffic patterns. This distributed architecture allows NetFlow to scale to very large networks where centralized packet capture would be impractical due to bandwidth and storage constraints.
NetFlow provides valuable insights for multiple network operations use cases. Capacity planning benefits from understanding which applications consume bandwidth, which links approach saturation, and how traffic patterns change over time, informing decisions about network upgrades and expansion. Security analysis uses NetFlow to detect anomalous traffic patterns indicating malware infections, data exfiltration, denial-of-service attacks, or unauthorized application usage, with behavioral analytics platforms like Stealthwatch specializing in NetFlow-based threat detection. Performance troubleshooting identifies sources of network congestion, asymmetric routing issues, or application performance problems by examining detailed flow-level communication patterns. Billing and cost allocation tracks network usage by department or application for chargeback purposes.
Multiple NetFlow versions and related standards exist with different capabilities. Original NetFlow v5 provides basic flow information suitable for most visibility needs. NetFlow v9 introduced flexible templates allowing custom flow record definitions and support for IPv6 and MPLS. IPFIX (IP Flow Information Export) is an IETF standard based on NetFlow v9, ensuring interoperability between vendors. Flexible NetFlow allows Cisco devices to customize which fields are included in flow records, enabling optimization for specific use cases like security monitoring or application performance management. Organizations should select appropriate NetFlow versions based on their specific visibility requirements and device capabilities.
A is correct.
B is incorrect because SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer) or port mirroring copies complete packets from one or more ports to a monitoring port where analysis tools can capture full packets. While SPAN provides visibility, it requires significantly more bandwidth and processing than NetFlow’s metadata approach and doesn’t scale well to large networks.
C is incorrect because packet capture involves collecting complete packet payloads for detailed analysis, consuming substantial bandwidth and storage resources. While packet capture provides the most detailed visibility, it’s impractical for continuous monitoring of large networks, unlike NetFlow’s efficient metadata collection.
D is incorrect because Syslog is a protocol for transmitting event messages and log information from network devices and systems to central log servers. While Syslog provides visibility into device events and security incidents, it doesn’t analyze network traffic flows as NetFlow does, focusing on system events rather than traffic patterns.
Question 147:
What is the primary benefit of implementing Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics (ETA)?
A) Decrypting all traffic for inspection
B) Detecting malware in encrypted traffic without decryption
C) Increasing network bandwidth
D) Replacing traditional firewalls
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics (ETA) provides the primary benefit of detecting malware and threats hidden within encrypted traffic without requiring decryption of the traffic itself. As encryption adoption increases across the internet, with HTTPS now comprising the majority of web traffic, traditional security approaches that rely on inspecting packet payloads become ineffective or require computationally expensive SSL/TLS decryption. ETA solves this challenge by analyzing metadata and behavioral patterns observable in encrypted traffic flows, using machine learning models trained to identify characteristics associated with malicious communications. This approach maintains security effectiveness while preserving encryption privacy and avoiding the performance overhead and privacy concerns associated with SSL decryption.
The technical foundation of ETA relies on analyzing multiple aspects of encrypted traffic that reveal information about underlying communications without accessing encrypted payloads. Sequence of packet lengths and timing provides a fingerprint of applications and can reveal data exfiltration or command-and-control communications through pattern analysis. Initial data packet analysis examines the first few packets of TLS connections which contain unencrypted handshake information revealing certificate details, cipher suites, and protocol versions that can indicate malicious tools or outdated vulnerable clients. TLS metadata including certificate properties, domain names in Server Name Indication (SNI), and certificate chain validation results provide indicators of potentially malicious sites or man-in-the-middle attacks. Statistical flow features such as bytes transferred, packet rates, and session duration contribute to behavioral models distinguishing normal from malicious activity.
Machine learning models are central to ETA’s detection capabilities, trained on vast datasets of both benign and malicious encrypted traffic patterns to identify subtle indicators of compromise. These models recognize patterns associated with specific malware families, command-and-control protocols, and data exfiltration techniques, even when encrypted. Global threat intelligence from Cisco Talos continuously updates ETA with information about newly discovered threats, improving detection accuracy for emerging attack techniques. The combination of local behavioral analysis and global threat intelligence enables high-confidence threat detection while maintaining low false positive rates that would otherwise overwhelm security teams.
Implementation of ETA occurs through integration with network infrastructure, particularly Cisco Catalyst switches and routers that export telemetry data to Stealthwatch or Secure Network Analytics platforms for analysis. Network devices collect the relevant flow metadata and behavioral characteristics, then export this information to analysis platforms running ETA algorithms. The analysis platforms process the telemetry, apply machine learning models, and generate alerts when malicious patterns are detected. This architecture distributes the collection function across network infrastructure while centralizing the intensive analysis processing, allowing ETA to scale across large enterprise networks without requiring dedicated appliances at every location.
A is incorrect because ETA specifically avoids decrypting traffic, which is its key advantage. Decrypting all traffic would require significant computational resources, create potential privacy concerns, and might violate policies or regulations regarding inspection of encrypted communications. ETA’s value lies in detecting threats without decryption.
B is correct.
C is incorrect because ETA does not increase network bandwidth. ETA is a security analytics technology that analyzes traffic patterns to detect threats, having no effect on available bandwidth. The lightweight telemetry collection has minimal impact on network performance.
D is incorrect because ETA is not a replacement for firewalls but rather a complementary technology that enhances threat detection capabilities. Firewalls provide access control and some threat prevention, while ETA adds visibility into encrypted traffic threats. Organizations need both technologies for comprehensive security.
Question 148:
Which command is used to enable port security on a Cisco switch interface?
A) switchport security enable
B) port-security enable
C) switchport port-security
D) enable port-security
Answer: C
Explanation:
The command «switchport port-security» is used to enable port security on a Cisco switch interface, providing protection against unauthorized devices connecting to switch ports by limiting and controlling which MAC addresses can send traffic through each port. Port security is a fundamental Layer 2 security feature that prevents several types of attacks including MAC flooding attacks that attempt to overflow switch MAC address tables, unauthorized access by unknown devices, and MAC spoofing where attackers impersonate legitimate devices. By restricting which MAC addresses are permitted on each port, port security ensures that only authorized devices can access the network through specific switch ports.
Configuration of port security involves several steps and related commands beyond simply enabling the feature. First, the interface must be configured as an access port using «switchport mode access» as port security is incompatible with dynamic trunking. Then «switchport port-security» enables the feature. Additional configuration specifies the maximum number of MAC addresses allowed on the port using «switchport port-security maximum [number]», with a default of one MAC address if not specified. The administrator can statically configure allowed MAC addresses using «switchport port-security mac-address [address]» or allow the switch to dynamically learn addresses from traffic. The violation action defines what happens when unauthorized MAC addresses are detected, configured with «switchport port-security violation {shutdown | restrict | protect}».
The three violation modes provide different levels of response to security violations. Shutdown mode (the default) places the interface in an error-disabled state when a violation occurs, requiring administrator intervention to restore connectivity with «shutdown» followed by «no shutdown» commands or automatic recovery if error-disabled recovery is configured. This aggressive response ensures that security violations result in immediate isolation but may cause operational disruption. Restrict mode drops packets from unauthorized MAC addresses and increments a violation counter while keeping the port operational for traffic from authorized addresses, providing a less disruptive response suitable when some security violations might be false positives. Protect mode simply drops packets from unauthorized addresses without logging violations or incrementing counters, offering the least visible but also least disruptive response.
Advanced port security features provide additional flexibility. Sticky MAC learning combines dynamic and static approaches by allowing the switch to dynamically learn MAC addresses from traffic and then automatically convert them to static secure MAC addresses stored in running configuration. This simplifies configuration while maintaining security after devices are identified as legitimate. Aging configuration allows secure MAC addresses to age out after periods of inactivity, accommodating environments where devices legitimately change occasionally without requiring manual MAC address updates. Violation counters track how many security violations have occurred on each port, helping administrators identify problem areas or potential ongoing attacks.
A is incorrect because «switchport security enable» is not a valid Cisco IOS command. The proper syntax for enabling port security includes the word «port-security» hyphenated together rather than as separate words.
B is incorrect because «port-security enable» is not valid Cisco IOS syntax. Port security commands must begin with «switchport» to indicate they configure switchport features, and port-security is enabled by the command itself without requiring an additional «enable» keyword.
C is correct.
D is incorrect because «enable port-security» is not valid Cisco IOS command syntax. The proper command structure requires «switchport port-security» in interface configuration mode, not «enable» as the command verb.
Question 149:
What is the purpose of implementing DHCP snooping on Cisco switches?
A) To increase DHCP server performance
B) To prevent rogue DHCP servers and DHCP-based attacks
C) To encrypt DHCP traffic
D) To load balance DHCP requests
Answer: B
Explanation:
DHCP snooping is a security feature implemented on Cisco switches specifically designed to prevent rogue DHCP servers from providing false network configuration to clients and to mitigate various DHCP-based attacks that could compromise network security or disrupt network operations. DHCP snooping works by classifying switch ports as either trusted or untrusted, allowing DHCP server responses only from trusted ports while dropping DHCP server messages received on untrusted ports. This prevents attackers from deploying unauthorized DHCP servers that could provide malicious network configurations directing traffic through attacker-controlled systems for man-in-the-middle attacks, providing incorrect DNS servers to redirect users to phishing sites, or causing denial of service by providing invalid network configurations.
The operation of DHCP snooping involves inspecting DHCP messages at the switch level and taking appropriate actions based on port trust configuration and message content. Trusted ports, typically uplink ports connecting to legitimate DHCP servers or other switches, can send all types of DHCP messages without restriction. Untrusted ports, typically access ports connecting to end-user devices, can send DHCP client messages like DISCOVER and REQUEST but any DHCP server messages like OFFER or ACK are dropped, preventing devices on these ports from acting as DHCP servers. Additionally, DHCP snooping performs various validity checks on DHCP messages including verifying that RELEASE and DECLINE messages come from MAC addresses that actually obtained leases, ensuring DHCP messages are not malformed or contain suspicious options, and rate-limiting DHCP messages to prevent DHCP starvation attacks.
A critical function of DHCP snooping beyond immediate attack prevention is building and maintaining the DHCP snooping binding database, which records legitimate IP-to-MAC address mappings learned from DHCP transactions. This database contains entries showing which IP addresses are assigned to which MAC addresses on which switch ports, creating a trusted source of truth about network addressing. Other security features including Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) and IP Source Guard rely on this binding database to validate that traffic comes from legitimate IP addresses, creating a layered security architecture where DHCP snooping forms the foundation for multiple security controls.
Configuration of DHCP snooping requires several steps to ensure proper operation. Global enablement uses «ip dhcp snooping» to activate the feature, with «ip dhcp snooping vlan [vlan-list]» specifying which VLANs should have DHCP snooping active. Port trust configuration uses «ip dhcp snooping trust» in interface configuration mode to designate trusted ports. Rate limiting prevents DHCP packet floods with «ip dhcp snooping limit rate [rate]» specifying maximum DHCP packets per second on untrusted ports. Option 82 handling requires configuration as switches normally drop DHCP packets containing option 82 inserted by other devices. The binding database can be saved to flash or external servers to survive switch reboots using «ip dhcp snooping database [url]».
A is incorrect because DHCP snooping does not increase DHCP server performance. While it processes DHCP messages at the switch level, the purpose is security rather than performance improvement. DHCP snooping actually adds processing overhead on switches, though the security benefits justify this minimal impact.
B is correct.
C is incorrect because DHCP snooping does not encrypt DHCP traffic. DHCP communications remain unencrypted as they traverse the network. DHCP snooping focuses on validating and filtering DHCP messages rather than providing confidentiality through encryption.
D is incorrect because DHCP snooping does not provide load balancing of DHCP requests across multiple servers. Load balancing DHCP typically uses server-side configurations or DHCP relay agents with load-balancing capabilities. DHCP snooping is purely a security feature focused on preventing rogue servers and validating DHCP transactions.
Question 150:
Which protocol does Cisco ISE use for device administration providing full command authorization and accounting?
A) RADIUS
B) TACACS+
C) LDAP
D) SNMP
Answer: B
Explanation:
TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control-System Plus) is the protocol Cisco ISE and other AAA servers use for device administration, providing comprehensive authentication, command authorization, and detailed accounting for administrator access to network devices. TACACS+ was specifically designed for device administration scenarios where granular control over administrative commands is essential, unlike RADIUS which was originally designed for network access authentication. The protocol separates authentication, authorization, and accounting into distinct processes, allowing flexible policy implementation where administrators might authenticate successfully but receive different authorization levels based on their roles, and where every command execution can be individually authorized and logged for comprehensive audit trails.
The architecture of TACACS+ provides several security and functional advantages for device administration. Complete packet encryption protects all communication between network devices and TACACS+ servers, including usernames, passwords, and command details, preventing credential theft or eavesdropping on administrative activities. Separate AAA functions allow independent configuration and processing of authentication, authorization, and accounting, enabling scenarios like authenticating against one database while authorizing based on different policies, or implementing detailed accounting even when authorization is not required. TCP transport (port 49) provides reliable delivery of AAA messages, important for ensuring authorization checks and accounting records are not lost due to network issues.
Command authorization is a key TACACS+ capability particularly valuable for network device administration. Unlike RADIUS which provides only attribute-based authorization at connection time, TACACS+ can authorize individual commands, allowing granular control over what each administrator can execute on network devices. For example, junior administrators might be permitted to execute show commands for viewing configurations but denied configuration commands that modify settings, while senior administrators receive full configuration privileges. This granularity enables role-based access control (RBAC) implementations where different administrator tiers receive appropriate privilege levels without requiring shared passwords or full administrative access for all staff.
Implementation of TACACS+ for device administration in ISE environments involves configuration on both ISE servers and network devices. ISE configuration includes defining device administration policy sets that specify which administrators can access which device groups, creating authorization policies that determine privilege levels and command sets for different administrator roles, and configuring accounting policies that log administrative activities. Network devices must be configured to use ISE as a TACACS+ server with commands specifying server addresses and shared secrets for secure communication. Best practices include implementing redundant TACACS+ servers for high availability, using strong shared secrets for server communication, enabling detailed accounting to capture all administrative commands for security auditing, and regularly reviewing authorization policies to ensure appropriate access controls as organizational roles evolve.
A is incorrect because while RADIUS can be used for device administration in some scenarios, it lacks the granular command authorization capabilities and complete packet encryption that TACACS+ provides. RADIUS was designed primarily for network access authentication and is less suitable for detailed device administration control, though it is commonly used for that purpose in some environments.
B is correct.
C is incorrect because LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is a directory service protocol used for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services, typically storing user and group information. While ISE can integrate with LDAP directories for authentication, LDAP itself is not an AAA protocol and does not provide command authorization or accounting capabilities.
D is incorrect because SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for managing and monitoring network devices through reading and writing management information, not for device administration authentication, authorization, or accounting. SNMP provides device management capabilities but does not control administrative access or authorize commands.