Microsoft MS-900 Microsoft 365 Fundamentals Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 2 Q16-30
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Question 16:
Which Microsoft 365 service provides organizations with advanced threat protection capabilities for files and collaboration platforms, including real-time scanning, automated investigation, and remediation of malicious content?
A) Microsoft Defender for Office 365
B) Microsoft Purview Information Protection
C) Microsoft Endpoint Manager
D) Azure AD Conditional Access
Answer:
A) Microsoft Defender for Office 365
Explanation:
Microsoft Defender for Office 365 is a security service designed to provide organizations with advanced threat protection for emails, files, and collaboration platforms such as Teams, SharePoint, and OneDrive. Its primary function is to detect and respond to malicious content, including malware, phishing attempts, unsafe attachments, and malicious links. By integrating machine learning, heuristics, and threat intelligence, Defender proactively identifies threats before they impact users and provides real-time alerts, automated investigation, and remediation to reduce the risk of compromise.
Option B, Microsoft Purview Information Protection, focuses on data classification, labeling, and encryption. While Purview ensures sensitive content is protected from unauthorized access or accidental sharing, it does not provide real-time threat detection or automated remediation for malicious content. Purview complements Defender by protecting information rather than detecting malware or phishing.
Option C, Microsoft Endpoint Manager, is a device management and security platform that ensures organizational devices comply with policies. It can enforce device encryption, configuration policies, and conditional access for endpoints. However, it does not analyze email or file content for malicious behavior, nor does it provide automated remediation for malware detected in collaboration workloads. Endpoint Manager contributes to security but does not address content-level threats directly.
Option D, Azure AD Conditional Access, enforces policies controlling user access to applications based on identity, device compliance, location, and risk signals. While Conditional Access strengthens access security, it does not detect malware, phishing, or unsafe files in real time. Its scope is limited to identity and access management rather than content protection.
Defender for Office 365 is essential for organizations to safeguard collaboration environments against evolving cyber threats. It ensures that malicious content is automatically quarantined or remediated, preventing widespread compromise and data loss. Organizations adopting Defender benefit from a proactive security posture, comprehensive reporting, and integration with other Microsoft 365 security services. Without Defender, organizations would face a higher risk of security breaches through email, collaboration tools, or document storage, which are often the most common entry points for cyberattacks.
Question 17:
Which Microsoft 365 capability allows organizations to enforce policies that control access to cloud resources based on conditions such as user role, location, device compliance, and risk level?
A) Microsoft Endpoint Manager
B) Azure AD Conditional Access
C) Microsoft Purview Compliance Portal
D) Microsoft Teams Settings
Answer:
B) Azure AD Conditional Access
Explanation:
Azure AD Conditional Access enables administrators to define policies that dynamically grant or restrict access to Microsoft 365 resources based on a combination of conditions, including user identity, group membership, device compliance, location, and detected risk. Conditional Access ensures that only authorized users on secure devices can access sensitive data, enforcing multi-factor authentication when required and blocking access under suspicious conditions. This feature is critical for implementing a zero-trust security model, where every access attempt is verified regardless of network location. Conditional Access integrates with Microsoft Endpoint Manager to verify device compliance, making access decisions context-aware and reducing the likelihood of unauthorized access.
Option A, Microsoft Endpoint Manager, manages devices and enforces compliance policies. It ensures endpoints meet organizational security requirements and can restrict access to corporate resources for non-compliant devices. While Endpoint Manager provides the device compliance signal used by Conditional Access, it does not independently enforce access policies based on multiple dynamic conditions such as user role, location, or risk level. Its role is complementary rather than central to conditional access.
Option C, Microsoft Purview Compliance Portal, focuses on governance, retention, auditing, and compliance reporting. While Purview ensures that data is managed according to regulatory requirements, it does not make dynamic access decisions based on identity, risk, or device conditions. Compliance Portal manages content lifecycle and reporting rather than enforcing secure access.
Option D, Microsoft Teams Settings, allows administrators to configure collaboration behaviors, such as team creation, guest access, and messaging policies. Teams settings control operational aspects within Teams, but do not provide organization-wide access control based on user, device, or risk conditions. They are workload-specific and insufficient for enterprise access management.
Conditional Access is critical for protecting organizational data in Microsoft 365, particularly when users access resources from multiple locations or devices. By dynamically enforcing access controls, it minimizes exposure to unauthorized access, ensures regulatory compliance, and integrates seamlessly with identity and device management solutions. Without Conditional Access, organizations would be vulnerable to account compromise, unauthorized data access, and security breaches that could have been mitigated through context-aware access controls.
Question 18:
Which Microsoft 365 service enables organizations to detect and respond to identity-based risks, such as compromised accounts, atypical sign-ins, or suspicious credential use?
A) Microsoft Purview Information Protection
B) Azure AD Identity Protection
C) Microsoft Endpoint Manager
D) Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
Answer:
B) Azure AD Identity Protection
Explanation:
Azure AD Identity Protection is designed to detect, investigate, and remediate identity-based risks across Microsoft 365. It uses signals such as anomalous sign-ins, impossible travel events, leaked credentials, and atypical user behavior to identify accounts that may be compromised. Identity Protection enables administrators to configure risk-based conditional access policies, such as requiring multi-factor authentication, blocking sign-ins, or resetting passwords for high-risk accounts. This service integrates with reporting and auditing capabilities to provide visibility into identity threats and remedial actions, helping organizations maintain a secure environment and comply with regulatory requirements.
Option A, Microsoft Purview Information Protection, focuses on classifying, labeling, and protecting sensitive data across Microsoft 365. While it protects content, it does not detect identity-related risks or respond to compromised accounts. Purview’s scope is data protection rather than identity threat mitigation.
Option C, Microsoft Endpoint Manager, ensures that devices comply with security policies and configuration profiles. Endpoint Manager contributes to security posture by managing devices, enforcing encryption, and limiting access for non-compliant endpoints. However, it does not monitor or remediate identity-based risks such as unusual sign-ins or credential compromise. Its focus is on device management rather than identity threat detection.
Option D, Data Loss Prevention (DLP), identifies and protects sensitive content from accidental or malicious sharing. DLP helps prevent organizational data from being leaked, but does not detect identity compromises or unusual sign-in behavior. Its scope is content-focused, complementing but not replacing identity monitoring services.
Azure AD Identity Protection is essential for proactively managing identity risks, particularly in cloud-first environments where user credentials are often the target of attacks. By detecting anomalies and enforcing remediation policies, Identity Protection reduces the likelihood of account compromise, limits unauthorized access, and strengthens overall organizational security posture. Without it, compromised accounts could go undetected, potentially leading to data breaches, regulatory violations, and operational disruption.
Question 19:
Which Microsoft 365 feature allows organizations to automatically classify, label, and protect sensitive data based on pre-configured rules or user-driven actions?
A) Microsoft Endpoint Manager
B) Microsoft Purview Information Protection
C) Azure AD Conditional Access
D) Microsoft Secure Score
Answer:
B) Microsoft Purview Information Protection
Explanation:
Microsoft Purview Information Protection provides organizations with the ability to classify and label sensitive data, applying protections automatically or through user-driven labeling. Sensitivity labels can be configured to encrypt content, restrict access, prevent forwarding, and track usage across Microsoft 365 applications such as Exchange Online, SharePoint Online, OneDrive, and Teams. Automatic classification rules analyze content for sensitive information such as personally identifiable information (PII), financial data, or intellectual property, and apply labels accordingly. User-driven labeling empowers employees to identify and classify data appropriately, ensuring organizational policies are consistently enforced. Purview’s integration with auditing and compliance reporting enables organizations to monitor label application and demonstrate regulatory adherence.
Option A, Microsoft Endpoint Manager, enforces device compliance and policies on endpoints. While it can control device access and configuration, it does not classify or label content within Microsoft 365. Endpoint Manager ensures devices are secure, but does not actively protect data through classification or labeling.
Option C, Azure AD Conditional Access, focuses on access control based on identity, device, location, and risk. Conditional Access enhances security by determining who can access resources, but it does not manage the classification or protection of content itself. Its scope is identity and access-focused rather than content-centric.
Option D, Microsoft Secure Score, provides a security posture assessment and recommendations to improve security across Microsoft 365. Secure Score evaluates applied policies and configurations but does not actively classify or protect sensitive data. It is a strategic assessment tool, not a content protection mechanism.
Purview Information Protection is critical for organizations to maintain confidentiality and compliance with data protection regulations. By automatically applying labels and protection policies, organizations reduce the risk of accidental data exposure, ensure consistent enforcement of security policies, and facilitate regulatory compliance. Without Purview, sensitive data could be shared or accessed inappropriately, exposing the organization to operational, legal, and reputational risks.
Question 20:
Which Microsoft 365 tool allows administrators to monitor security configuration, measure risk exposure, and receive prioritized recommendations to improve organizational security posture?
A) Microsoft Secure Score
B) Microsoft Endpoint Manager
C) Azure AD Identity Protection
D) Microsoft Teams Settings
Answer:
A) Microsoft Secure Score
Explanation:
Microsoft Secure Score is a security analytics tool that provides organizations with a comprehensive overview of their security posture in Microsoft 365. It measures applied security configurations, evaluates user behavior, and identifies gaps relative to recommended best practices. Secure Score provides a numeric representation of security posture, along with prioritized recommendations to remediate vulnerabilities and enhance protection. These recommendations may include enabling multi-factor authentication, applying data loss prevention policies, configuring conditional access, and securing collaboration tools. Secure Score allows organizations to track progress over time, ensuring continuous improvement in security posture.
Option B, Microsoft Endpoint Manager, manages devices and ensures they comply with policies. While Endpoint Manager contributes to overall security, it does not provide a unified assessment of security posture, nor does it offer prioritized recommendations for organizational improvements. Its focus is endpoint compliance and device management rather than security analytics across workloads.
Option C, Azure AD Identity Protection, detects identity-based risks and enforces remediation policies for compromised accounts. Identity Protection improves security by addressing identity threats, but it does not provide a comprehensive overview of all applied security controls or recommend specific improvements to the overall organizational security posture.
Option D, Microsoft Teams Settings, allows administrators to configure operational behavior within Teams. While these settings affect security and collaboration within Teams, they do not provide security assessments, risk scoring, or prioritized recommendations for improving enterprise security. Teams settings are workload-specific and do not provide holistic guidance for the organization.
Secure Score is essential for organizations to understand their security position, prioritize improvements, and maintain a proactive security strategy. By providing actionable insights, continuous monitoring, and measurable progress, Secure Score ensures that organizations can effectively reduce security risks, meet compliance obligations, and protect sensitive data. Without Secure Score, organizations would lack visibility into security gaps, making it difficult to systematically improve protection and reduce exposure to cyber threats.
Question 21:
A company is moving from traditional on-premises licensing to Microsoft 365. The IT Director wants to reduce device management overhead while ensuring every user receives the latest security configurations automatically. Which Microsoft 365 capability best supports this goal?
A) Microsoft Security Copilot
B) Microsoft Intune with cloud-based device configuration profiles
C) Azure Virtual Desktop pooled sessions
D) Microsoft Defender SmartScreen
Answer:
B
Explanation:
This question focuses on a core Microsoft 365 exam concept: Microsoft 365’s ability to reduce device management overhead and deliver automated, consistent, cloud-based configuration settings across all enrolled devices. Option B, Microsoft Intune with cloud-based device configuration profiles, is the correct answer because it aligns directly with modern management principles emphasized throughout MS-900. To understand why, it is important to examine each option in the context of Microsoft 365’s capabilities.
Option A, Microsoft Security Copilot, is a relatively new AI-powered cybersecurity tool that leverages generative AI to analyze incidents, generate security insights, and accelerate response actions. While it is powerful and can support security professionals with faster investigation workflows, it does not manage device configurations nor enforce security baselines on user devices. It focuses on security operations rather than device provisioning, enrollment, configuration compliance, or ongoing management. Therefore, it cannot meet the requirement to automatically deliver updated security configurations across all devices or reduce device management workload related to settings enforcement.
Option B, Microsoft Intune with cloud-based device configuration profiles, directly satisfies all requirements mentioned in the scenario. Microsoft Intune is central to Microsoft Endpoint Manager, and it allows IT departments to manage devices through the cloud without needing on-premises infrastructure. With Intune, administrators can create configuration profiles that define security baselines, compliance rules, password requirements, encryption policies, application restrictions, and dozens of other security and operational controls. These automatically apply to all enrolled devices and update dynamically anytime the administrator modifies the profiles. This ensures consistent enforcement and significantly reduces the manual overhead associated with on-premises Group Policy Objects or traditional imaging processes. Intune’s cloud delivery model ensures that configurations apply regardless of where the user is working—remote or on-site—making it ideal for cloud-first organizations adopting Microsoft 365.
Option C, Azure Virtual Desktop pooled sessions, refers to a virtualization solution that delivers a Windows desktop experience hosted in Azure. Although Azure Virtual Desktop reduces some overhead associated with maintaining physical hardware and allows shared session hosts, it is not intended to manage physical devices or automatically deliver security configurations across an organization’s endpoint fleet. Using Azure Virtual Desktop would shift workloads to virtual machines rather than solving the requirement for automated device configuration. It also does not eliminate the need for device management since users may continue to use physical laptops, mobile devices, or tablets.
Option D, Microsoft Defender SmartScreen, is a built-in protection feature that identifies malicious websites, suspicious URLs, and potentially unsafe downloads. While SmartScreen is valuable for browser-level protection and reducing phishing risks, it is not a device configuration management tool. It cannot deploy updated security settings across devices nor manage compliance requirements. SmartScreen functions as a layer of web protection, not a centralized configuration platform. Therefore, although it is part of Microsoft’s security stack, it does not reduce device management overhead.
When evaluating the options, only Intune with cloud-based configuration profiles provides centralized management and automated deployment of settings required by the scenario. For MS-900, understanding how Intune reduces overhead through cloud-based management, automated updates, and simplified administration is essential because Microsoft promotes modern management as a cornerstone of Microsoft 365 value. Therefore, Option B is correct.
Question 22:
A multinational company wants to ensure that sensitive customer information is protected across Microsoft 365, including emails and documents stored in SharePoint Online. They need automatic classification, labeling, and encryption based on data sensitivity. Which feature should the company implement?
A) Microsoft Purview Information Protection
B) Microsoft Entra ID Conditional Access
C) Microsoft Defender Antivirus
D) Microsoft Loop workspaces
Answer:
A
Explanation:
The requirement in this scenario centers on automatic classification, labeling, and encryption of sensitive information across Microsoft 365 services. This is directly aligned with Microsoft Purview Information Protection, formerly known as Azure Information Protection and unified labeling. Option A is the only feature among the listed options specifically designed for data classification and protection, making it the correct choice.
Option A, Microsoft Purview Information Protection, enables organizations to classify, label, and protect data wherever it resides—whether in emails, documents, SharePoint Online, OneDrive, or Teams messages. It uses sensitivity labels that can be applied manually by users or automatically by the system using predefined rules, machine learning, keywords, pattern detection, and sensitive information types. Once labeled, the content can be encrypted, restricted from external sharing, watermarked, or assigned access permissions. Automatic labeling capabilities ensure that protection is consistently applied even when users forget or attempt to bypass labeling requirements. This directly satisfies the company’s need for automatic classification and encryption across Microsoft 365 workloads.
Option B, Microsoft Entra ID Conditional Access, is a critical identity security feature used to enforce access policies based on signals such as user risk, device compliance, location, or application. While Conditional Access helps protect access to sensitive resources, it does not classify or encrypt documents and emails. Its focus is on controlling who can access which resources under what conditions, rather than protecting data at rest or in transit.
Option C, Microsoft Defender Antivirus, is an endpoint security solution that protects devices from malware, ransomware, and potentially unwanted applications. Although necessary for device-level defense, it does not manage data classification or encryption. Defender Antivirus plays no role in labeling documents or emails within Microsoft 365. Therefore, it cannot satisfy the requirement for content-based protection.
Option D, Microsoft Loop workspaces, is a collaboration tool designed for flexible content creation and shared workspaces. It enables teams to collaborate in real time on components that synchronize across Microsoft 365 apps. However, Loop is not related to information protection, data classification, automatic encryption, or compliance. It does not include any mechanisms for identifying sensitive data or assigning sensitivity labels based on content patterns.
Therefore, only Microsoft Purview Information Protection addresses the need for automatic classification, labeling, and encryption across Microsoft 365 services. Its integration with Outlook, SharePoint, OneDrive, Word, Excel, and Teams ensures consistent data protection across platforms, making Option A correct.
Question 23:
A company plans to migrate from traditional file servers to Microsoft 365. They want to provide users with cloud storage that syncs across devices, includes ransomware detection, and supports file sharing with internal and external users. Which service meets these requirements?
A) SharePoint Online communication sites
B) OneDrive for Business
C) Microsoft Viva Engage
D) Exchange Online Archiving
Answer:
B
Explanation:
The scenario describes a need for personalized cloud storage that syncs across devices, includes ransomware detection, and supports robust file sharing. These are defining capabilities of OneDrive for Business, making Option B the correct answer.
Option A, SharePoint Online communication sites, is intended for publishing content to wider audiences such as departments or entire organizations. It is not designed for personal storage or automatic device synchronization. Although SharePoint enables document sharing and collaboration, it is typically used for team content, intranet pages, and structured document libraries. It does not offer personal file storage or device-level ransomware recovery features available in OneDrive for Business. Thus, it is not suitable for the individual cloud storage requirement.
Option B, OneDrive for Business, provides each user with personal cloud storage that syncs across desktops, laptops, and mobile devices. It includes ransomware detection, version history, personal vault, and file restore capabilities that allow users to recover from accidental deletion, corruption, or ransomware attacks. OneDrive also supports external and internal sharing with configurable expiration dates, permissions, and access policies. In Microsoft 365 migrations, OneDrive for Business replaces traditional home drive storage and allows users to access their files from anywhere. It fully meets all requirements in the scenario.
Option C, Microsoft Viva Engage, is a social networking and community engagement platform formerly known as Yammer. It provides organization-wide conversations, knowledge sharing, and employee engagement tools. It is not a file storage or device synchronization solution and does not provide ransomware recovery or dedicated personal storage spaces. Thus, Viva Engage does not meet the requirements.
Option D, Exchange Online Archiving, is an email archiving and retention solution designed for long-term storage of mailbox data. It is not a cloud file storage service and does not allow device synchronization of user files. It has no functionality related to ransomware detection for user documents or file sharing across devices.
The only option that matches all elements—cloud storage, cross-device sync, ransomware detection, personal storage, and file sharing—is OneDrive for Business.
Question 24:
A small business without an IT department wants to deploy Microsoft 365 Business Premium. Their main requirement is to simplify security using preset policies for identity protection, device security, and application access without needing deep technical expertise. Which Microsoft solution can meet this need?
A) Microsoft 365 Lighthouse
B) Microsoft 365 Security Center
C) Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps
D) Microsoft Security Defaults
Answer:
D
Explanation:
This scenario is centered on a small business looking for simplified, preset security policies without requiring an IT department or specialized security knowledge. Option D, Microsoft Security Defaults, is the correct choice because it provides preconfigured identity security settings designed for organizations with limited technical resources.
Option A, Microsoft 365 Lighthouse, is intended for managed service providers (MSPs) who manage multiple customer tenants. It is not a solution targeted at a single small organization. Lighthouse provides centralized management dashboards, alerts, and controls for multiple tenants, not preset security policies for an individual customer environment. Therefore, it cannot satisfy the requirement.
Option B, Microsoft 365 Security Center, is a management portal for security professionals to configure advanced security settings across Microsoft 365. While it is useful for skilled administrators, it does not provide simple, turnkey security templates. Instead, it requires knowledge of Defender portals, risk levels, policies, alerts, and configuration options. A business with no IT department will struggle to configure these features.
Option C, Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps, is a cloud access security broker (CASB) that provides advanced threat detection, app governance, and cloud usage analytics. It is designed for enterprise environments with complex applications and data governance requirements. It requires significant technical expertise to configure conditional access app controls, session monitoring, and governance policies. It is not intended as a simple, one-click security solution.
Option D, Microsoft Security Defaults, provides preset security configurations such as mandatory multifactor authentication, secure registration, and modern authentication enforcement. It is specifically designed for small organizations or those without a full-time IT staff. It requires minimal configuration and automatically enables essential identity protections. This fits the requirement exactly.
Question 25:
A company wants to adopt Microsoft 365 but needs predictable monthly licensing costs, flexibility to scale licenses up or down, and cloud services that reduce the need for on-premises servers. Which licensing model should they choose?
A) Perpetual on-premises licensing
B) Volume Licensing Open License Program
C) Microsoft 365 subscription licensing
D) Windows Server CAL licensing
Answer:
C
Explanation:
The requirement emphasizes predictable monthly costs, scalability, and cloud-based services that reduce on-premises infrastructure. These are fundamental advantages of Microsoft 365 subscription licensing, making Option C the correct answer.
Option A, perpetual on-premises licensing, involves a one-time purchase model where customers own the software indefinitely. While this model may reduce long-term costs, it does not provide monthly billing flexibility or cloud service capabilities. It also requires maintaining on-premises hardware, patching, and updates. Perpetual licenses do not offer the scalability or cloud-based capabilities required.
Option B, the Volume Licensing Open License Program, traditionally allowed organizations to purchase perpetual licenses in bulk but did not offer monthly subscription flexibility. This program was retired and replaced by cloud-focused purchasing options. It does not align with a scalable subscription model or cloud service enablement.
Option C, Microsoft 365 subscription licensing, offers monthly or annual billing, flexible user-based licensing, and access to cloud services such as Exchange Online, SharePoint Online, Teams, OneDrive, and Microsoft Endpoint Manager. Customers can scale licenses easily as their workforce changes. Subscription licensing also ensures automatic updates and eliminates the need for costly on-premises servers. This perfectly aligns with the scenario.
Option D, Windows Server CAL licensing, applies to on-premises Windows Server environments and requires Client Access Licenses for users or devices. It does not reduce on-premises infrastructure needs, nor does it support a scalable subscription model with monthly billing. It is not relevant to cloud adoption or Microsoft 365.
Question 26:
A company is planning to adopt Microsoft 365 and wants to reduce its dependency on traditional imaging and complex device provisioning steps when onboarding new employees. They require a solution that can automatically configure devices with apps, settings, and security baselines as soon as users first power them on and connect to the internet. Which Microsoft 365 capability should they implement?
A) Windows Autopatch
B) Windows Autopilot
C) Azure Virtual Desktop personal desktops
D) Microsoft Configuration Manager task sequences
Answer:
B
Explanation:
This scenario specifically focuses on simplifying device provisioning and replacing traditional imaging processes. Windows Autopilot is the Microsoft 365 capability designed for this purpose, which makes Option B the correct answer. To understand this fully, each option must be analyzed in the context of provisioning, onboarding, automation, and Microsoft 365 modern device management strategies.
Option B, Windows Autopilot, is the solution that aligns precisely with the scenario. Autopilot allows organizations to pre-register devices with Microsoft’s cloud service so that when an employee turns on the device for the first time, it automatically enrolls into Microsoft Intune, applies configuration profiles, installs required applications, enforces security baselines, and completes setup with minimal IT involvement. It removes the need for imaging, manual provisioning, or physical device preparation. Autopilot supports deployment modes such as user-driven deployment, self-deploying mode, and pre-provisioning, all of which enable scalable, modern onboarding workflows. This directly matches the company’s requirement to reduce dependency on traditional imaging and improve efficiency.
Option A, Windows Autopatch, is a newer cloud-based service included in Microsoft 365 Enterprise plans that automates patching and updates for Windows, Microsoft 365 Apps, and drivers. While Autopatch helps with update management and reduces operational overhead related to patch deployment, it does not deal with initial provisioning, device setup, or replacing imaging. Autopatch comes into play after the device is already enrolled and operational, so it cannot meet the need described in the scenario.
Option C, Azure Virtual Desktop personal desktops, provides dedicated virtual machines hosted in Azure for each user. While this solution eliminates the need for some physical device management and offers a persistent cloud-based Windows experience, it does not replace device provisioning for actual hardware used by employees. Even if users connect to a virtual desktop, the physical device still needs to be managed and secured. In addition, Azure Virtual Desktop is a virtualization solution, not a provisioning system, so it does not address the requirement for automated setup of physical devices.
Option D, Microsoft Configuration Manager task sequences, is part of the traditional on-premises endpoint management approach. Task sequences in Configuration Manager allow IT teams to deploy Windows images, applications, and drivers through on-premises infrastructure. This process is time-consuming, requires infrastructure such as distribution points, and relies heavily on imaging techniques. It does not align with modern cloud-based provisioning and does not eliminate imaging, which the company explicitly wants to avoid. It increases complexity rather than reducing it.
The scenario’s requirement to automate configuration upon first power-on, reduce imaging, and leverage cloud-based provisioning maps directly to Windows Autopilot. Therefore, Option B is correct.
Question 27:
A global company is adopting Microsoft 365 and wants to strengthen identity security. They aim to require multifactor authentication for all users while applying risk-based access controls to block logins from unusual locations or suspicious activities. Which feature best supports this requirement?
A) Microsoft Entra ID Conditional Access
B) Microsoft Defender for Identity
C) Microsoft Purview eDiscovery
D) Microsoft Secure Score
Answer:
A
Explanation:
The requirement describes enforcing multifactor authentication and applying risk-based access policies. This combination is the core purpose of Microsoft Entra ID Conditional Access, making Option A the correct answer. To understand why, each option must be examined carefully.
Option A, Microsoft Entra ID Conditional Access, allows administrators to enforce policies that require MFA, assess user risk, device compliance, geographic location, and application sensitivity, and apply rules such as blocking, requiring MFA, or enforcing session controls. Conditional Access integrates with Microsoft Entra ID Protection to evaluate risky sign-ins, impossible travel events, and unfamiliar sign-in patterns. It is designed to protect user accounts by adapting access requirements in real time based on detected risks. This is exactly the functionality described in the scenario.
Option B, Microsoft Defender for Identity, focuses on detecting suspicious lateral movement, credential theft attempts, and malicious activities within on-premises Active Directory environments. Although it provides identity-based threat detection, it does not enforce access policies or MFA. Defender for Identity is a detection and monitoring tool, not a conditional access or authentication enforcement tool. Therefore, it cannot meet the requirements for MFA and risk-based access control.
Option C, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery, is a compliance and legal investigation tool that helps organizations search, export, and analyze content across Microsoft 365 workloads for legal matters. It has no relation to identity protection, MFA, risk analysis, or access control. It is used in compliance, not security enforcement.
Option D, Microsoft Secure Score, provides a security posture measurement and recommendations, but does not enforce policies. While Secure Score may recommend enabling MFA or configuring Conditional Access, the tool itself does not enforce access policies or protect sign-ins. It is an advisory and scoring mechanism rather than an enforcement mechanism.
Given that only Microsoft Entra ID Conditional Access combines MFA enforcement with risk-based conditional controls, Option A is correct.
Question 28:
A company wants to ensure that corporate data on mobile devices is protected even if employees use personal phones to access corporate resources. They want to prevent data leakage, restrict copying of corporate content, and remotely wipe corporate data without affecting personal data. Which Microsoft 365 feature should they use?
A) Microsoft Intune App Protection Policies
B) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
C) BitLocker Device Encryption
D) Microsoft Privacy Risk Management
Answer:
A
Explanation:
The requirement clearly describes a bring-your-own-device (BYOD) scenario where data separation, protection, leak prevention, and selective wipe are necessary. Microsoft Intune App Protection Policies (APP) are specifically designed for this, making Option A the correct answer.
Option A, Microsoft Intune App Protection Policies, allows administrators to enforce restrictions on how data is used within specific applications, such as Outlook, Word, Excel, Teams, and OneDrive on mobile devices. They support data loss prevention actions such as blocking copy/paste between personal and corporate apps, requiring corporate accounts to use protected applications, enforcing PIN requirements, and enabling selective wipe of corporate data without deleting personal content. This directly aligns with the company’s needs in the scenario.
Option B, Microsoft Defender for Endpoint, provides advanced threat protection for devices by detecting malware, ransomware, exploits, and suspicious behavior. While it improves device-level security, it does not provide app-level data separation or selective wiping of corporate data. Defender for Endpoint is device-focused, not app-focused.
Option C, BitLocker Device Encryption, is built into Windows and encrypts entire drives. While it protects device data if a machine is lost or stolen, it does not apply to mobile devices like iOS or Android personal phones. BitLocker also does not support selective wiping or cross-app data restrictions for BYOD scenarios.
Option D, Microsoft Privacy Risk Management, is a privacy compliance tool that analyzes privacy risks such as oversharing or data exposure. While helpful for compliance, it does not control data usage on mobile devices or enforce app-level restrictions.
Thus, only Intune App Protection Policies support separating corporate and personal data, enabling selective wipe, and ensuring secure mobile access. Therefore, Option A is correct.
Question 29:
A company wants to modernize its collaboration environment. They need a platform that supports persistent chat, online meetings, shared files, integrated apps, and the ability for departments to create dedicated workspaces. Which Microsoft 365 service best fits these needs?
A) Microsoft Teams
B) SharePoint Online hub sites
C) Microsoft Stream
D) Microsoft Planner
Answer:
A
Explanation:
The scenario describes a need for a comprehensive collaboration platform with persistent chat, meetings, shared files, and team workspaces. Microsoft Teams is the only service that provides the full combination of capabilities described, making Option A the correct choice.
Option A, Microsoft Teams, integrates chat, video meetings, calling, file sharing through SharePoint and OneDrive, channel-based collaboration, app integrations, task management, and the ability for departments to create dedicated teams and channels. It acts as a central collaboration hub for Microsoft 365. The features mentioned in the scenario—persistent chat, meetings, shared files, and workspace creation—are core components of Teams.
Option B, SharePoint Online hub sites, support document libraries, intranet pages, and content sharing, but do not provide persistent chat or meetings. SharePoint is content-focused, not communication-focused.
Option C, Microsoft Stream, is a video platform for hosting recordings, training videos, and meeting recordings. It does not provide chat or collaboration workspaces.
Option D, Microsoft Planner, offers lightweight task and project management boards, but it is not a communication or workspace platform.
Therefore, Microsoft Teams is the only option that satisfies all requirements in the scenario.
Question 30:
A company wants to migrate to Microsoft 365 but needs to ensure that users always have the latest versions of Word, Excel, PowerPoint, and Outlook with automatic updates delivered through the cloud. Which Microsoft 365 component provides this capability?
A) Office 2019 Professional Plus
B) Microsoft 365 Apps for enterprise
C) Windows Server Remote Desktop Services
D) SharePoint Server 2016
Answer:
B
Explanation:
The requirement is to provide always-up-to-date versions of Office apps delivered through the cloud. Microsoft 365 Apps for enterprise is the only option that provides cloud-delivered updates, making Option B the correct answer.
Option A, Office 2019 Professional Plus, is a perpetual license version of Office. It receives only security fixes, not feature updates. It does not offer continuous cloud updates.
Option B, Microsoft 365 Apps for enterprise, provides the full desktop versions of Office apps with automatic updates delivered via the cloud. Users always receive the latest features without manual installation. This directly meets the company’s requirement.
Option C, Windows Server Remote Desktop Services, provides session-based desktops and does not ensure up-to-date Office applications unless manually maintained.
Option D, SharePoint Server 2016, is an on-premises collaboration server unrelated to Office desktop apps.
Microsoft 365 Apps for enterprise meets the requirement because it is built specifically for organizations that need the most current, cloud-managed versions of Office applications without the traditional constraints of perpetual licensing. Unlike fixed-version Office products, this subscription-based model ensures that users continuously receive new capabilities, performance enhancements, and security improvements as soon as Microsoft releases them. This eliminates the need for IT teams to manually deploy updates or schedule major version upgrades, which can be time-consuming and disruptive. Organizations benefit from a seamless, automated update cycle that keeps all users aligned on the same modern version of apps such as Word, Excel, PowerPoint, Outlook, and Teams. This uniformity reduces compatibility issues, simplifies support, and improves collaboration since all employees use the latest features and formats.
Another critical advantage of Microsoft 365 Apps for enterprise is its integration with cloud services such as OneDrive, SharePoint, and Exchange Online. These integrations enhance productivity by enabling real-time co-authoring, automatic cloud save, version control, and seamless file access across devices. Users can move from a desktop to a mobile device or a browser session without losing their work, which supports modern, hybrid work environments. Furthermore, the software is licensed per user rather than per device, allowing installation on multiple PCs, Macs, tablets, and smartphones. This flexibility supports employees who work across several devices and ensures a consistent experience everywhere.
From a security and compliance perspective, Microsoft 365 Apps for enterprise provides additional capabilities that perpetual versions lack. Microsoft uses cloud intelligence to identify emerging threats and push security patches rapidly. This means organizations remain protected against newly discovered vulnerabilities without relying on manual patch cycles. Advanced features such as sensitivity labels, data loss prevention integration, identity-based access, and conditional access policies help strengthen the security posture of businesses that handle regulated or sensitive data. These protections align with compliance requirements in industries such as finance, healthcare, and government.
Meanwhile, the other options fail to meet the requirement because they lack cloud-delivered continuous updates. Office 2019 Professional Plus, for example, follows the traditional perpetual licensing model. Although it provides a familiar suite of Office applications, its functionality remains static after purchase. Users receive security updates but not the new features introduced after the release date. Over time, this creates gaps in functionality compared to organizations using modern Office apps, and it results in higher long-term operational burdens when future upgrades are eventually needed.