Palo Alto Networks NGFW-Engineer Certified Next-Generation Firewall Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 11 Q151 — 165

Palo Alto Networks NGFW-Engineer Certified Next-Generation Firewall Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 11 Q151 — 165

Visit here for our full Palo Alto Networks NGFW-Engineer exam dumps and practice test questions.

Question 151

An administrator needs to configure the firewall to automatically quarantine infected hosts detected by WildFire. Which feature should be implemented?

A) Manual blocking only

B) Dynamic Address Groups with WildFire tags

C) Static address objects

D) Port-based blocking

Answer: B

Explanation:

Dynamic Address Groups with WildFire tags should be implemented to automatically quarantine infected hosts detected by WildFire. When WildFire identifies a malicious file originating from a specific IP address, it can automatically tag that address with a dynamic registered IP tag. Dynamic Address Groups can be configured to include addresses with specific WildFire tags, and security policies can reference these groups to automatically quarantine infected hosts by blocking or restricting their traffic. This automated response reduces the time infected systems remain active on the network and minimizes manual intervention requirements.

Option A is incorrect because manual blocking requires administrators to identify infected hosts and create blocking rules individually, introducing delays during which infected systems can spread malware or exfiltrate data. Manual processes cannot respond quickly enough to contain fast-moving threats.

Option C is incorrect because static address objects require manual creation and updating for each infected host, lacking the automation needed for rapid quarantine. Static objects do not dynamically update based on threat intelligence or WildFire verdicts.

Option D is incorrect because port-based blocking operates at the transport layer and cannot identify infected hosts or respond to malware detections. Port filtering lacks the threat intelligence integration needed for automated quarantine based on WildFire analysis.

Question 152

A company wants to implement Multi-Factor Authentication for administrative access to the firewall. Which authentication method should be configured?

A) Local database authentication only

B) RADIUS or TACACS+ with MFA integration

C) No authentication

D) Simple passwords only

Answer: B

Explanation:

RADIUS or TACACS+ authentication with MFA integration should be configured to implement Multi-Factor Authentication for administrative access. External authentication servers can integrate with MFA solutions like Duo, RSA SecurID, or other two-factor authentication systems, requiring administrators to provide both passwords and additional authentication factors such as tokens, push notifications, or biometrics. This approach significantly strengthens security for privileged access by ensuring that compromised passwords alone cannot grant firewall access. Centralized authentication also provides better audit trails and policy enforcement.

Option A is incorrect because local database authentication on the firewall supports only username and password credentials without native MFA capabilities. Local authentication provides single-factor protection that is vulnerable to credential compromise.

Option C is incorrect because eliminating authentication entirely would allow unrestricted access to firewall management, creating catastrophic security vulnerabilities. Administrative access must always be protected with strong authentication.

Option D is incorrect because simple passwords without additional factors provide weak authentication vulnerable to various attacks including phishing, credential stuffing, and brute force. Single-factor password authentication is inadequate for protecting critical infrastructure.

Question 153

An administrator notices that legitimate traffic is being blocked by a Threat Prevention profile. Which action should be taken to reduce false positives while maintaining security?

A) Disable all threat prevention

B) Create exception for specific threat signature with appropriate scope

C) Allow all traffic without inspection

D) Remove all security profiles

Answer: B

Explanation:

Creating an exception for the specific threat signature with appropriate scope reduces false positives while maintaining security. Threat Prevention profiles allow administrators to customize signature actions on a per-signature basis, creating exceptions for specific threats that generate false positives in particular environments. Exceptions should be scoped as narrowly as possible, applying only to specific source or destination addresses where false positives occur rather than globally disabling signatures. This balanced approach maintains protection against genuine threats while preventing disruption to legitimate business activities.

Option A is incorrect because disabling all threat prevention eliminates critical security protections and exposes the network to known exploits and attacks. Addressing false positives should not require abandoning threat prevention entirely.

Option C is incorrect because allowing all traffic without inspection defeats the purpose of deploying a security firewall. Inspection is essential for identifying and blocking threats, and eliminating it creates unacceptable security risks.

Option D is incorrect because removing all security profiles strips away multiple layers of protection including antivirus, anti-spyware, vulnerability protection, and URL filtering. This extreme response to false positives leaves the network vulnerable to numerous attack vectors.

Question 154

A company needs to implement security policies that apply to branch offices connecting through VPN tunnels. Which zone type should be used for VPN traffic?

A) Layer 3 zone only

B) Tunnel zone with associated tunnel interface

C) Virtual wire zone

D) Tap zone

Answer: B

Explanation:

A tunnel zone with an associated tunnel interface should be used for VPN traffic from branch offices. Tunnel zones are specifically designed for VPN and tunnel interfaces, allowing administrators to apply security policies to traffic entering or leaving VPN tunnels based on the tunnel endpoint. Tunnel interfaces are assigned to tunnel zones, and security policies reference these zones to control traffic between VPN-connected sites and other network segments. This zone type provides the proper context for managing encrypted tunnel traffic within the security policy framework.

Option A is incorrect because Layer 3 zones are designed for routed interfaces connecting physical networks, not for tunnel interfaces. While Layer 3 zones support standard routed traffic, tunnel interfaces require tunnel zones for proper VPN traffic management.

Option C is incorrect because virtual wire zones are used in transparent firewall deployments where the firewall operates as a bump-in-the-wire without IP addressing. Virtual wire mode is not appropriate for VPN tunnel traffic management.

Option D is incorrect because tap zones are used when the firewall monitors traffic passively without actively forwarding or inspecting it inline. Tap zones are for visibility-only deployments and cannot enforce security policies on VPN traffic.

Question 155

An administrator wants to prevent internal users from establishing unauthorized outbound VPN connections to external services. Which security feature identifies and blocks VPN traffic?

A) Port blocking only

B) App-ID identifying VPN applications with deny policy

C) MAC filtering

D) Static routes

Answer: B

Explanation:

App-ID identifying VPN applications combined with deny policies prevents internal users from establishing unauthorized outbound VPN connections. App-ID recognizes various VPN protocols and services including IPsec, SSL VPN, and commercial VPN applications regardless of port or encryption. Security policies can be configured to deny specific VPN applications or categories, blocking attempts to bypass network security controls through external VPN services. This application-aware approach is more effective than port-based blocking because VPN traffic often uses common ports or employs port hopping.

Option A is incorrect because port-based blocking is easily circumvented by VPN services that use common ports like 443 or implement dynamic port selection. Port filtering lacks the application awareness needed to reliably identify and block VPN traffic across various protocols.

Option C is incorrect because MAC filtering operates at the data link layer to control device access based on hardware addresses and cannot identify or block VPN applications. MAC filtering controls which devices connect but not what applications those devices run.

Option D is incorrect because static routes direct traffic to next-hop destinations but do not provide application identification or policy enforcement capabilities. Routing configuration cannot prevent users from establishing VPN connections.

Question 156

A security team needs to analyze packet captures to troubleshoot application identification issues. Which feature allows capturing traffic matching specific criteria?

A) ACC reports only

B) Packet capture filters with stage and application specifications

C) System logs only

D) Configuration export

Answer: B

Explanation:

Packet capture filters with stage and application specifications allow capturing traffic matching specific criteria for detailed analysis. Administrators can configure packet captures with filters based on source, destination, application, ports, and specify the capture stage such as drop, firewall, or transmit to capture packets at different points in processing. Stage selection determines whether captures include dropped packets, pre-NAT or post-NAT addresses, and decrypted content. This granular control enables targeted packet collection for troubleshooting while avoiding overwhelming amounts of irrelevant traffic.

Option A is incorrect because ACC reports provide aggregated analytics and visualizations of traffic patterns but do not capture individual packets for detailed protocol analysis. ACC shows trends and statistics but not packet-level details needed for deep troubleshooting.

Option C is incorrect because system logs record firewall events and administrative actions rather than capturing actual packet contents. System logs provide event information but not the protocol-level details found in packet captures.

Option D is incorrect because configuration export saves firewall settings to XML files for backup or migration purposes and does not capture network traffic. Configuration files contain policies and settings but not operational traffic data.

Question 157

An organization wants to ensure that antivirus signatures are automatically updated. Which configuration setting enables automatic content updates?

A) Manual updates only

B) Content update schedule with automatic download and install

C) Disabling all updates

D) Updates only during business hours

Answer: B

Explanation:

Configuring a content update schedule with automatic download and install enables automatic antivirus signature updates. Content updates include antivirus signatures, application definitions, threat signatures, and URL filtering databases that must be current for effective protection. Administrators can configure schedules that automatically check for, download, and install updates at specified intervals, ensuring the firewall maintains current threat intelligence without manual intervention. Automatic updates are essential for protection against rapidly evolving threats that require frequent signature updates.

Option A is incorrect because relying solely on manual updates creates gaps in protection when administrators delay or forget to install updates. Manual processes introduce human error and cannot respond quickly enough to emerging threats requiring immediate signature updates.

Option C is incorrect because disabling all updates leaves the firewall with outdated threat intelligence, rendering it ineffective against new malware, exploits, and malicious websites. Current signatures are fundamental to security effectiveness.

Option D is incorrect because restricting updates only to business hours when threat activity may be highest creates windows of vulnerability. While update timing can be scheduled to minimize impact, excessively restrictive schedules delay critical protection updates.

Question 158

A company needs to implement different security policies for different departments. Which feature enables this organizational segmentation?

A) Single global policy only

B) Virtual systems with separate policy sets

C) No segmentation possible

D) Port-based VLANs only

Answer: B

Explanation:

Virtual systems with separate policy sets enable organizational segmentation with different security policies for different departments. Virtual systems partition a single physical firewall into multiple logical firewalls, each with independent security policies, administrative access, and configurations. This multi-tenancy approach allows organizations to implement department-specific security requirements, delegate administration to department IT teams, and maintain policy isolation between business units. Virtual systems share hardware resources while providing logical separation equivalent to separate physical firewalls.

Option A is incorrect because a single global policy cannot easily accommodate diverse security requirements across departments with different risk profiles, compliance needs, and application usage patterns. Single policies become overly complex when trying to address multiple departments’ unique requirements.

Option C is incorrect because Palo Alto Networks firewalls explicitly support organizational segmentation through virtual systems. The platform is designed to enable multi-tenant deployments with policy isolation.

Option D is incorrect because port-based VLANs provide network segmentation at the switching layer but do not themselves create separate security policy contexts. While VLANs support network isolation, virtual systems are needed for independent firewall policy sets.

Question 159

An administrator wants to log all denied traffic for security analysis. Which logging configuration should be enabled?

A) No logging

B) Log at session end for deny actions in security policies

C) Log only allowed traffic

D) Disable all security policies

Answer: B

Explanation:

Enabling log at session end for deny actions in security policies records all denied traffic for security analysis. Security policies include logging options that determine whether allowed or denied traffic generates log entries, and whether logs are created at session start, end, or both. Logging denied traffic provides visibility into blocked connection attempts that may indicate reconnaissance, attack attempts, or misconfigurations. These logs are essential for security monitoring, incident investigation, and identifying patterns that inform policy improvements or threat responses.

Option A is incorrect because disabling logging eliminates visibility into security events and prevents analysis of denied traffic that may indicate security threats. Logging is fundamental to security monitoring and incident response capabilities.

Option C is incorrect because logging only allowed traffic misses important security information contained in denied connection attempts. Blocked traffic often reveals attack patterns, policy violations, or legitimate traffic being incorrectly denied.

Option D is incorrect because disabling security policies eliminates protection and would allow all traffic regardless of security risk. The goal is to log denied traffic, not to eliminate security controls.

Question 160

A security team needs to block access to websites hosting malware while allowing general web browsing. Which combination of security profiles provides this protection?

A) QoS policy only

B) URL Filtering with malware category blocked and Antivirus profile

C) No filtering needed

D) NAT policy only

Answer: B

Explanation:

URL Filtering with malware category blocked combined with an Antivirus profile provides comprehensive protection against websites hosting malware while allowing general web browsing. URL Filtering blocks access to known malicious websites categorized as hosting malware, phishing, or command and control infrastructure, preventing users from reaching compromised or malicious sites. The Antivirus profile provides an additional layer by inspecting files downloaded from allowed websites, catching malware that may exist on legitimate but compromised sites. This defense-in-depth approach addresses both network-level and content-level threats.

Option A is incorrect because QoS policies manage bandwidth allocation and traffic prioritization but do not provide security inspection or malware protection. Quality of Service is a traffic management feature rather than a security control.

Option C is incorrect because allowing web browsing without filtering exposes users to malicious websites and malware downloads. Modern threat landscapes require active protection against web-based threats that represent significant attack vectors.

Option D is incorrect because NAT policies translate IP addresses for routing purposes and do not inspect content or block malicious websites. NAT enables connectivity but does not provide security filtering.

Question 161

An administrator needs to verify that URL filtering is working correctly for a specific category. Which method tests URL filtering functionality?

A) Test URL through firewall CLI or GUI test feature

B) Assume it works without testing

C) Check only hardware specifications

D) Review purchase order

Answer: A

Explanation:

Testing URLs through the firewall CLI or GUI test feature verifies that URL filtering is working correctly for specific categories. Palo Alto Networks firewalls provide test tools that allow administrators to query how specific URLs would be categorized and what action would be taken based on current URL filtering profiles. The test function shows the category assignment and policy action without actually blocking or allowing the traffic, enabling verification of URL filtering behavior before policies affect user traffic. This testing capability is essential for validating configurations and troubleshooting policy issues.

Option B is incorrect because assuming functionality without testing creates risk that URL filtering may be misconfigured or ineffective. Verification is essential to ensure security controls operate as intended and protect against web-based threats.

Option C is incorrect because hardware specifications describe physical capabilities but do not verify that URL filtering policies are correctly configured and functioning. Operational testing requires checking actual policy behavior rather than hardware features.

Option D is incorrect because purchase orders document procurement but do not verify operational functionality. Having URL filtering capability does not guarantee it is properly configured and working correctly.

Question 162

A company wants to prevent employees from using peer-to-peer file sharing applications. Which security policy configuration blocks this traffic effectively?

A) Allow all applications

B) Deny policy for peer-to-peer application category

C) No policy needed

D) Port blocking on port 80 only

Answer: B

Explanation:

A deny policy for the peer-to-peer application category effectively blocks peer-to-peer file sharing applications. App-ID categorizes applications including various P2P protocols like BitTorrent, eDonkey, and others into the peer-to-peer category. Security policies can reference this category to block all applications within it, providing comprehensive protection against P2P file sharing regardless of specific protocols or ports used. This category-based approach is more maintainable than blocking individual applications and automatically covers new P2P applications as they are added to the category.

Option A is incorrect because allowing all applications explicitly permits peer-to-peer file sharing and all other traffic without restriction. This permissive approach contradicts the requirement to block P2P applications.

Option C is incorrect because without security policies to block P2P applications, the default behavior allows such traffic. Security policies must explicitly deny traffic that should be blocked based on organizational requirements.

Option D is incorrect because blocking only port 80 does not affect P2P applications which typically use random or high-numbered ports and can dynamically change ports. Port-based blocking is ineffective against modern P2P protocols.

Question 163

An administrator wants to monitor firewall CPU and memory utilization over time. Which tool provides this historical performance data?

A) Single CLI command snapshot only

B) Dashboard widgets and system resource graphs

C) Configuration file

D) URL filtering log

Answer: B

Explanation:

Dashboard widgets and system resource graphs provide historical performance data for firewall CPU and memory utilization over time. The firewall’s web interface includes customizable dashboards with widgets that display performance metrics including CPU usage, memory consumption, session counts, and throughput. These widgets show trends over various timeframes from minutes to days, allowing administrators to identify performance patterns, capacity trends, and potential issues. Historical data is essential for capacity planning, troubleshooting performance problems, and understanding resource utilization patterns.

Option A is incorrect because single CLI command snapshots show only current resource utilization at the moment of execution without historical context. While useful for immediate status checks, snapshots do not reveal trends or patterns over time.

Option C is incorrect because configuration files contain firewall settings and policies but no operational performance data or resource utilization metrics. Configuration files define how the firewall should operate but not how it is actually performing.

Option D is incorrect because URL filtering logs record website access attempts and policy enforcement but do not contain system resource utilization information. URL logs address web filtering activity rather than firewall performance metrics.

Question 164

A security policy is not matching traffic as expected. Which troubleshooting step helps identify the issue?

A) Delete all policies randomly

B) Review traffic logs with filter for specific traffic and check rule matched column

C) Ignore the problem

D) Reboot firewall without investigation

Answer: B

Explanation:

Reviewing traffic logs with filters for specific traffic and checking the rule matched column helps identify why security policies are not matching as expected. Traffic logs show exactly which policy rule processed specific sessions, allowing administrators to verify whether traffic is matching the intended rule or being caught by a different rule. Filtering logs by source, destination, application, or other criteria isolates the problematic traffic, and the rule column reveals the actual policy applying to it. This methodical approach identifies policy ordering issues, incorrect match criteria, or missing policies.

Option A is incorrect because randomly deleting policies creates unpredictable behavior and may eliminate working rules while leaving the problematic configuration intact. Policy troubleshooting requires systematic analysis rather than destructive random changes.

Option C is incorrect because ignoring policy problems allows incorrect security posture to persist, potentially blocking legitimate traffic or allowing unauthorized access. Policy issues must be resolved to ensure security controls function as intended.

Option D is incorrect because rebooting the firewall without investigation does not address policy configuration issues and causes unnecessary service disruption. Policy problems are configuration matters that persist across reboots and require targeted correction.

Question 165

An organization wants to ensure that security policies are consistently applied across multiple firewalls. Which feature enables centralized policy management?

A) Configuring each firewall independently with no coordination

B) Panorama for centralized management and policy distribution

C) Manual configuration on each device

D) No management system

Answer: B

Explanation:

Panorama for centralized management and policy distribution enables consistent security policy application across multiple firewalls. Panorama is Palo Alto Networks’ centralized management platform that allows administrators to define policies once and push them to multiple managed firewalls, ensuring consistency and reducing configuration errors. Panorama provides template-based configuration, device group policies, centralized logging, and unified reporting across the entire firewall deployment. Centralized management significantly reduces administrative overhead, improves policy consistency, and enables organization-wide visibility.

Option A is incorrect because configuring each firewall independently without coordination creates policy inconsistencies, increases administrative workload, and raises the risk of configuration errors. Independent management does not scale effectively for multiple firewalls.

Option C is incorrect because manual configuration on each device is time-consuming, error-prone, and makes it difficult to maintain consistent security posture. Manual processes do not ensure policies are identically implemented across the environment.

Option D is incorrect because operating without a management system for multiple firewalls creates significant operational challenges and inconsistent security. Centralized management is essential for effective multi-firewall deployments.