Cisco 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 15 Q 211-225
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Question 211:
What is the primary function of Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)?
A) To provide wireless network encryption
B) To detect, prevent, and respond to advanced malware threats across the network and endpoints
C) To manage VPN connections
D) To configure router access control lists
Answer: B
Explanation:
Modern malware has evolved far beyond simple viruses that traditional antivirus solutions can detect through signature matching. Advanced persistent threats use polymorphic malware that changes with each infection, zero-day exploits targeting unknown vulnerabilities, and sophisticated evasion techniques including sandbox detection and delayed execution. Traditional security approaches that rely solely on known malware signatures fail against these advanced threats because malicious files appear legitimate during initial analysis and only reveal their true nature after executing in the environment. Organizations need security solutions that detect both known and unknown threats while providing continuous monitoring and retrospective analysis.
The primary function of Cisco Advanced Malware Protection is to detect, prevent, and respond to advanced malware threats across the network and endpoints. AMP provides multi-layered protection combining signature-based detection for known threats, behavioral analysis to identify suspicious activities, machine learning to detect previously unknown malware variants, sandboxing to safely detonate and analyze suspicious files, and continuous monitoring that tracks file behavior over time. This comprehensive approach protects against malware at multiple stages of the attack lifecycle from initial delivery through execution and post-compromise activities.
AMP’s architecture delivers protection across multiple enforcement points throughout the infrastructure. AMP for Endpoints protects workstations, laptops, and servers with lightweight agents that monitor file activities, network connections, and system behaviors. AMP for Networks integrates with Cisco security appliances including Firepower firewalls and email security appliances, scanning traffic for malware before it reaches endpoints. AMP for Web Security blocks malware downloads through web proxies and cloud web security services. This multi-layer deployment ensures that malware is detected and blocked at the earliest possible point whether it arrives via email, web download, USB device, or network propagation.
Retrospective security represents one of AMP’s most powerful capabilities, addressing the reality that new malware often evades initial detection. When files enter the environment, AMP calculates cryptographic hashes and tracks their disposition over time. As Cisco’s threat intelligence continuously analyzes billions of files globally, previously unknown files may be reclassified as malicious hours or days after initial detection. AMP automatically alerts on files now known to be malicious even though they were permitted initially, showing where malicious files executed, what they did, and which systems are affected. This retrospective capability enables rapid incident response to newly discovered threats.
Threat intelligence integration with Cisco Talos provides AMP with global visibility into emerging threats. Talos researchers analyze hundreds of thousands of malware samples daily, identifying new attack techniques, malware families, and threat actor behaviors. This intelligence continuously updates AMP’s detection capabilities ensuring protection against the latest threats without requiring manual signature updates. The feedback loop means that malware detected anywhere in the world becomes instantly detectable across all AMP deployments, providing collective security benefits from global threat visibility.
AMP incident response features enable security teams to understand and contain threats quickly. File trajectory tracking shows exactly where malicious files traveled through the environment, which systems executed them, and what network connections they established. Behavioral indicators reveal suspicious activities like registry modifications, process injections, or unusual network communications that indicate compromise. Isolation capabilities quarantine infected endpoints from the network preventing malware spread while allowing remediation. Integration with other security tools including SIEM, SOAR, and threat intelligence platforms enables coordinated response across the security infrastructure.
A) is incorrect because providing wireless network encryption is handled by wireless security protocols like WPA2 and WPA3, not by Advanced Malware Protection which focuses on malware detection and response.
B) is correct because detecting, preventing, and responding to advanced malware threats across the network and endpoints is indeed the primary function of Cisco AMP, providing comprehensive malware protection.
C) is incorrect because managing VPN connections is the function of VPN concentrators and remote access solutions, not AMP which focuses on malware protection.
D) is incorrect because configuring router access control lists is a network security configuration task, not the function of AMP which provides malware detection and response capabilities.
Question 212:
Which security framework provides a structured approach for improving critical infrastructure cybersecurity?
A) NIST Cybersecurity Framework
B) ISO 9001
C) ITIL
D) Six Sigma
Answer: A
Explanation:
Organizations face increasing pressure to improve cybersecurity from regulatory requirements, customer expectations, cyber insurance requirements, and the growing threat landscape. However, many organizations struggle with where to start, how to prioritize security investments, and how to measure security program effectiveness. Without structured approaches, security efforts can become fragmented with gaps in coverage, duplicated efforts, and misaligned priorities. Cybersecurity frameworks provide standardized methodologies that help organizations assess current security posture, identify improvement priorities, and implement comprehensive security programs based on industry best practices.
The security framework that provides a structured approach for improving critical infrastructure cybersecurity is the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. Developed by the National Institute of Standards and Technology in collaboration with government and private sector stakeholders, the framework provides a common language and systematic methodology for managing cybersecurity risks. Originally created to improve critical infrastructure security in sectors like energy, healthcare, finance, and transportation, the framework has been widely adopted across industries and organization sizes because of its practical, risk-based approach that aligns with business objectives.
The NIST Cybersecurity Framework organizes security activities into five core functions that represent the lifecycle of cybersecurity risk management. Identify establishes understanding of systems, assets, data, and capabilities requiring protection along with the business context, resources, and risk strategy. Protect implements safeguards ensuring delivery of critical services through access control, awareness training, data security, protective technology, and maintenance. Detect develops capabilities to identify cybersecurity events through anomaly detection, continuous monitoring, and detection processes. Respond takes action when cybersecurity incidents are detected through response planning, communications, analysis, mitigation, and improvements. Recover restores capabilities and services impaired by incidents through recovery planning, improvements, and communications.
Each core function contains categories and subcategories that provide increasingly specific guidance. Categories group cybersecurity outcomes closely tied to programmatic needs and activities, such as Asset Management, Risk Assessment, or Access Control. Subcategories further divide categories into specific outcomes of technical or management activities, such as maintaining inventories of physical devices, establishing baselines of network operations, or implementing least privilege principles. This hierarchical structure enables organizations to understand security requirements at different levels of detail appropriate for various audiences from executives to technical implementers.
A) is correct because the NIST Cybersecurity Framework indeed provides a structured approach for improving critical infrastructure cybersecurity through its five core functions and risk-based methodology.
B) is incorrect because ISO 9001 is a quality management standard focused on organizational processes and quality assurance, not specifically designed for cybersecurity management.
C) is incorrect because ITIL is an IT service management framework focused on aligning IT services with business needs, not specifically a cybersecurity framework.
D) is incorrect because Six Sigma is a quality improvement methodology focused on reducing defects and process variation, not a cybersecurity framework.
Question 213:
What is the purpose of implementing a demilitarized zone (DMZ) in network architecture?
A) To increase network bandwidth
B) To create a buffer zone between the internal network and untrusted external networks
C) To provide wireless connectivity
D) To manage IP address allocation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Organizations must provide external access to certain services like public websites, email servers, and external-facing applications while protecting internal networks from Internet threats. Placing public-facing servers directly on internal networks exposes those networks to attack if the servers are compromised. Implementing all servers externally without internal network connectivity prevents legitimate access to internal resources like databases and file servers. The DMZ network architecture solves this dilemma by creating an isolated network segment that enables controlled external access while maintaining strong separation from internal networks.
The purpose of implementing a demilitarized zone in network architecture is to create a buffer zone between the internal network and untrusted external networks. The DMZ is a separate network segment, typically positioned between two firewalls or behind a single firewall with three or more network interfaces. Public-facing servers including web servers, email gateways, DNS servers, and VPN endpoints are placed in the DMZ where they can be accessed from the Internet while maintaining security boundaries that protect internal networks. If servers in the DMZ are compromised, attackers gain access only to the DMZ segment, not the internal network, significantly limiting breach impact.
DMZ architecture typically follows specific design patterns for security effectiveness. The three-legged firewall design uses a single firewall with three network interfaces: one connected to the Internet, one to the DMZ, and one to the internal network. Security policies allow Internet traffic to DMZ servers for public services, DMZ servers to initiate limited connections to specific internal resources, and deny direct Internet access to internal networks. Dual firewall DMZ uses two separate firewalls with the DMZ between them, providing defense in depth where external firewall compromise doesn’t immediately expose internal networks. Multiple DMZ segments can segregate servers with different security requirements or trust levels.
Security policies governing DMZ traffic follow least privilege principles. Inbound traffic from the Internet is restricted to specific ports and protocols required for public services, such as HTTP and HTTPS for web servers or SMTP for email gateways. Connections initiated from the DMZ to internal networks are tightly controlled, allowing only specific servers to access specific internal resources on specific ports. For example, web servers might access specific database servers on database ports but have no other internal network access. Outbound connections from DMZ servers to the Internet may be restricted to prevent compromised servers from downloading additional malware or exfiltrating data. Internal users typically have no direct access to DMZ servers, instead accessing them through the same external pathways as Internet users or through separate management interfaces.
A) is incorrect because increasing network bandwidth is accomplished through faster network connections and infrastructure upgrades, not DMZ implementation which focuses on security segmentation.
B) is correct because creating a buffer zone between the internal network and untrusted external networks is indeed the purpose of implementing a DMZ, providing controlled external access while protecting internal networks.
C) is incorrect because providing wireless connectivity is the function of wireless access points and controllers, not DMZ which is a security segmentation concept.
D) is incorrect because managing IP address allocation is handled by DHCP servers and IP address management systems, not DMZ which provides network segmentation for security.
Question 214:
Which attack technique involves exploiting vulnerabilities in web applications by injecting malicious SQL code?
A) Cross-Site Scripting
B) SQL Injection
C) Buffer Overflow
D) Denial of Service
Answer: B
Explanation:
Web applications have become primary targets for attackers because they are accessible from anywhere on the Internet, often handle sensitive data, and frequently contain security vulnerabilities in custom code. Many web applications interact with backend databases to store and retrieve information including user credentials, personal data, financial records, and business information. When applications fail to properly validate and sanitize user inputs before incorporating them into database queries, attackers can manipulate those queries to access, modify, or delete unauthorized data. SQL injection remains one of the most dangerous and prevalent web application vulnerabilities despite being well-understood for decades.
The attack technique that involves exploiting vulnerabilities in web applications by injecting malicious SQL code is SQL injection. SQL injection occurs when attackers insert malicious SQL commands into input fields, URL parameters, cookies, or HTTP headers that are incorporated into database queries without proper validation or sanitization. The malicious SQL code executes with the application’s database privileges, potentially allowing attackers to bypass authentication, extract sensitive data, modify or delete database contents, execute administrative operations, or in some cases execute operating system commands on the database server.
SQL injection attacks exploit the way web applications construct database queries by concatenating user input directly into SQL statements. A simple authentication query might check credentials using SQL like «SELECT * FROM users WHERE username='[user input]’ AND password='[password input]'». An attacker entering username «admin’—» causes the query to become «SELECT * FROM users WHERE username=’admin’—‘ AND password=»», where the double dash comments out the password check, potentially granting access without valid credentials. More sophisticated attacks use UNION operators to combine malicious queries with legitimate ones, extracting data from other database tables. Time-based blind SQL injection infers database contents by measuring query response times when specific conditions are met.
The impact of successful SQL injection attacks can be catastrophic for organizations. Data breaches expose sensitive information including customer personal data, credit card numbers, health records, and proprietary business information, resulting in regulatory fines, lawsuits, and reputation damage. Authentication bypass enables attackers to gain unauthorized access to administrative functions or user accounts without valid credentials. Data manipulation allows attackers to modify prices, account balances, or other critical information. Data destruction through deletion or dropping database tables can cause severe business disruption. In worst cases, attackers leverage database features to execute system commands, completely compromising database servers and potentially pivoting to other systems.
A) is incorrect because Cross-Site Scripting involves injecting malicious scripts into web pages that execute in other users’ browsers, not exploiting database queries with SQL code.
B) is correct because SQL Injection indeed involves exploiting vulnerabilities in web applications by injecting malicious SQL code into database queries.
C) is incorrect because Buffer Overflow exploits memory management vulnerabilities by providing more data than allocated buffer space, not injecting SQL code into database queries.
D) is incorrect because Denial of Service attacks overwhelm systems with traffic or requests making them unavailable, not exploiting vulnerabilities through SQL code injection.
Question 215:
What is the primary purpose of implementing network segmentation using VLANs?
A) To increase wireless signal strength
B) To logically separate network traffic and improve security and performance
C) To provide backup power to network devices
D) To manage software licenses
Answer: B
Explanation:
Traditional flat networks where all devices share the same broadcast domain create security and performance challenges as networks grow. Broadcast traffic reaches all devices reducing available bandwidth, network congestion impacts all users equally, and any compromised device can easily attack other systems because all devices are in the same security zone. Physical network segmentation using separate switches and routers for each department or security zone is expensive and inflexible, requiring physical infrastructure changes for moves, adds, and changes. VLANs provide logical network segmentation without requiring additional physical infrastructure.
The primary purpose of implementing network segmentation using VLANs is to logically separate network traffic and improve security and performance. VLANs create separate Layer two broadcast domains within a single physical network infrastructure, isolating traffic between different groups of users, departments, or security zones. Devices in different VLANs cannot communicate directly even if connected to the same physical switch, requiring traffic to pass through a Layer three device like a router or Layer three switch where security policies can be enforced. This logical segmentation provides security benefits similar to physical network separation at much lower cost and with greater flexibility.
VLAN security benefits address multiple threat scenarios. Lateral movement restriction prevents attackers who compromise a system in one VLAN from easily accessing systems in other VLANs, containing breaches within limited network segments. Broadcast traffic isolation ensures that broadcast storms or malicious broadcast attacks affect only the local VLAN rather than the entire network. Sensitive data segregation places systems handling confidential information in separate VLANs with enhanced security controls. Compliance requirements for standards like PCI-DSS often mandate network segmentation that VLANs can satisfy. Guest network isolation provides Internet access for visitors while preventing access to corporate resources by placing guest systems in separate VLANs.
Performance improvements from VLAN segmentation benefit network efficiency and user experience. Reduced broadcast domains limit broadcast traffic to only devices that need it, reducing unnecessary traffic on network links. Traffic prioritization can be applied per VLAN, ensuring that voice or critical application VLANs receive appropriate quality of service. Network congestion in one VLAN doesn’t directly impact other VLANs, improving overall network reliability. Bandwidth management is simplified when different groups of users are in separate VLANs with their own traffic patterns.
VLAN management considerations ensure effective segmentation. Private VLANs provide additional isolation within VLANs, preventing communication between ports in the same VLAN except with designated uplinks. Voice VLANs separate voice traffic from data traffic enabling quality of service and simplified phone deployment. Management VLANs isolate network device management traffic from user traffic improving security. VLAN pruning removes unused VLANs from trunk links reducing unnecessary broadcast traffic. Dynamic VLAN assignment through 802.1X authentication places users in appropriate VLANs based on identity rather than physical connection location.
A) is incorrect because increasing wireless signal strength is accomplished through access point placement, antenna selection, and power settings, not VLAN configuration which provides logical network segmentation.
B) is correct because logically separating network traffic and improving security and performance is indeed the primary purpose of implementing network segmentation using VLANs.
C) is incorrect because providing backup power to network devices is accomplished through UPS systems and redundant power supplies, not VLAN configuration which segments network traffic.
D) is incorrect because managing software licenses is handled by license management systems and asset management tools, not VLAN segmentation which focuses on network traffic separation.
Question 216:
Which Cisco technology provides automated threat response by integrating security products?
A) Cisco DNA Center
B) Cisco SecureX
C) Cisco Prime Infrastructure
D) Cisco Meraki Dashboard
Answer: B
Explanation:
Modern security environments involve dozens of security products from multiple vendors including firewalls, endpoint protection, email security, web security, SIEM systems, threat intelligence platforms, and many others. Each product generates its own alerts in its own console with its own data formats. Security analysts must manually correlate information across multiple systems to understand attack scope and coordinate response actions across different tools. This fragmentation slows response times, creates gaps where threats slip through, wastes analyst time on tool-switching, and results in inconsistent security postures because not all tools have visibility into the same threat intelligence.
The Cisco technology that provides automated threat response by integrating security products is Cisco SecureX. SecureX is a cloud-native platform that connects Cisco’s integrated security portfolio and third-party security products, providing unified visibility, automated threat detection and response, and simplified security operations. Rather than requiring analysts to work in dozens of separate consoles, SecureX aggregates security data from all integrated products, correlates that data to identify related security events, and enables coordinated response actions across the entire security infrastructure from a single interface.
SecureX provides several core capabilities that transform security operations. Unified visibility aggregates security telemetry from all integrated products including firewalls, endpoints, email, web, cloud, and network devices, creating comprehensive views of security events and threats across the entire environment. Automated detection correlates security events from multiple sources using machine learning and threat intelligence to identify sophisticated attacks that individual products might miss. Threat intelligence integration enriches security events with context from Cisco Talos and third-party threat intelligence feeds, providing analysts with immediate insight into threat severity and attacker infrastructure. Incident investigation tools enable analysts to pivot between related events, query multiple data sources simultaneously, and build comprehensive understanding of attack scope and timeline.
A) is incorrect because Cisco DNA Center provides network management, automation, and assurance for enterprise networks, not security product integration and automated threat response.
B) is correct because Cisco SecureX indeed provides automated threat response by integrating security products, offering unified visibility and orchestration across the security infrastructure.
C) is incorrect because Cisco Prime Infrastructure provides network management for Cisco infrastructure devices, not security product integration and threat response automation.
D) is incorrect because Cisco Meraki Dashboard manages Meraki cloud-managed networking devices, not security product integration and automated threat response across diverse security tools.
Question 217:
What is the purpose of implementing certificate-based authentication?
A) To reduce network bandwidth usage
B) To verify identity using digital certificates instead of passwords
C) To increase wireless coverage area
D) To manage VLAN assignments
Answer: B
Explanation:
Password-based authentication faces numerous security challenges in modern environments. Users choose weak passwords that are easily guessed, reuse passwords across multiple systems creating credential stuffing vulnerabilities, and fall victim to phishing attacks that steal credentials. Password databases become targets for attackers who can crack weak password hashes offline. Multi-factor authentication addresses some password weaknesses but still relies on passwords as the primary factor. Certificate-based authentication provides a fundamentally different approach that eliminates passwords entirely while providing stronger security through public key cryptography.
The purpose of implementing certificate-based authentication is to verify identity using digital certificates instead of passwords. Certificate-based authentication relies on public key infrastructure where users or devices possess private keys that never leave their control and corresponding public key certificates signed by trusted certificate authorities. During authentication, users prove possession of private keys through cryptographic operations that can be verified using public key certificates without transmitting the private keys. This asymmetric cryptography approach eliminates password transmission, storage, and the vulnerabilities associated with them.
Certificate-based authentication operates through well-established cryptographic protocols. During authentication, the server challenges the client to prove private key possession by signing a random value with its private key. The server verifies this signature using the public key from the client’s certificate. If verification succeeds and the certificate is valid, trusted, and not revoked, authentication succeeds. The private key never leaves the client device, so network eavesdropping cannot capture authentication credentials like with password-based authentication. Even if attackers compromise servers, they obtain only public certificates rather than passwords or password hashes that could enable account compromise.
Security benefits of certificate-based authentication address multiple threat scenarios. Phishing resistance provides strong protection because attackers cannot steal private keys through phishing emails or fake login pages as keys never transmit across networks. Credential stuffing prevention eliminates password reuse vulnerabilities since each device has unique private keys rather than users choosing and reusing passwords. Man-in-the-middle attack protection results from cryptographic proof of private key possession that cannot be replayed or forwarded to other systems. Offline attack prevention eliminates password cracking because servers store only public certificates rather than password hashes that attackers could crack offline.
A) is incorrect because reducing network bandwidth usage is accomplished through compression, caching, and traffic optimization, not certificate-based authentication which focuses on identity verification.
B) is correct because verifying identity using digital certificates instead of passwords is indeed the purpose of certificate-based authentication, providing stronger security through public key cryptography.
C) is incorrect because increasing wireless coverage area is accomplished through additional access points, antenna selection, and power settings, not authentication methods.
D) is incorrect because managing VLAN assignments is handled by network access control systems and switch configurations, though certificate-based authentication may be used to authenticate users before VLAN assignment.
Question 218:
Which security principle advocates designing systems to fail in a secure state?
A) Defense in depth
B) Least privilege
C) Fail-safe defaults
D) Separation of duties
Answer: C
Explanation:
System failures are inevitable whether from hardware malfunctions, software bugs, configuration errors, network disruptions, or resource exhaustion. How systems behave during failure conditions has significant security implications. Systems that fail open, granting access when authentication servers are unreachable or allowing traffic when security inspection fails, create vulnerabilities that attackers can exploit. Conversely, systems that fail closed, denying access and blocking traffic during failures, maintain security even when components malfunction. The principle of fail-safe defaults guides system design to ensure that failures don’t compromise security.
The security principle that advocates designing systems to fail in a secure state is fail-safe defaults. This principle states that when systems encounter error conditions, lose connectivity to security services, or experience other failures, they should default to denying access rather than granting it. Access should require explicit permission through functioning security controls. When those controls fail or cannot make decisions, the safe default is to deny rather than allow potentially unauthorized access or malicious traffic. This conservative approach prioritizes security over convenience during abnormal conditions.
Fail-safe defaults apply across multiple security domains. Authentication systems should deny access when unable to verify credentials rather than granting access because verification failed. For example, if a system cannot reach its authentication server, it should deny login attempts rather than allowing access because it cannot confirm credentials are invalid. Firewall systems should deny traffic when security inspection services fail rather than bypassing inspection to maintain throughput. If antivirus scanning fails on a firewall, traffic should be blocked rather than forwarded uninspected. Authorization systems should deny resource access when unable to evaluate permissions rather than allowing access by default.
Implementing fail-safe defaults requires intentional design decisions. Default deny policies explicitly block traffic or access unless specific permit rules match, ensuring that any traffic not explicitly allowed is automatically blocked. Error handling code must specify secure behaviors during exception conditions rather than assuming default behaviors are secure. Redundant security services with failover capabilities reduce the frequency of failures, but failover itself should implement fail-safe defaults if all redundant services fail. Monitoring and alerting notify administrators of failures so they can be addressed promptly, reducing the duration of degraded security states.
A) is incorrect because defense in depth involves implementing multiple layers of security controls so that failure of one control doesn’t compromise overall security, not specifically about failing to secure states.
B) is incorrect because least privilege limits access rights to the minimum necessary for legitimate purposes, not specifically about system behavior during failures.
C) is correct because fail-safe defaults indeed advocates designing systems to fail in a secure state, defaulting to denying access rather than allowing it during error conditions.
D) is incorrect because separation of duties divides critical functions among multiple people to prevent fraud and errors, not about system behavior during failures.
Question 219:
What is the primary purpose of implementing data loss prevention (DLP) solutions?
A) To increase data storage capacity
B) To prevent unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information
C) To improve database query performance
D) To provide data backup services
Answer: B
Explanation:
Organizations accumulate vast amounts of sensitive information including customer personal data, financial records, intellectual property, trade secrets, employee information, and regulated data subject to compliance requirements. This sensitive data flows through numerous channels including email, web uploads, file transfers, cloud storage,removable media, and printing. Insider threats whether malicious employees stealing data or negligent users accidentally sharing confidential information, combined with external attackers who steal data after compromising systems, create significant risks of data breaches with severe consequences including regulatory fines, lawsuits, competitive disadvantage, and reputation damage.
The primary purpose of implementing data loss prevention solutions is to prevent unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information. DLP solutions monitor data in motion across networks, data at rest in storage systems, and data in use on endpoints, identifying sensitive information and enforcing policies that prevent unauthorized transmission, copying, or disclosure. DLP uses content inspection, contextual analysis, and policy rules to determine when data movements violate security policies, then blocks those movements, encrypts the data, alerts security teams, or applies other protective actions based on configured policies.
DLP detection methods identify sensitive data through multiple approaches. Content-based detection uses pattern matching to find data matching specific formats like credit card numbers, social security numbers, account numbers, or other structured data. Document fingerprinting creates digital signatures of sensitive documents enabling detection of those specific files or portions of them regardless of format or location. Exact data matching compares data against databases of sensitive information like employee records or customer lists. Statistical analysis identifies documents with abnormal concentrations of sensitive terms or data patterns. Keyword matching detects documents containing sensitive terms or phrases. Machine learning classifies documents based on characteristics indicating sensitivity.
DLP enforcement occurs at multiple points where data might be disclosed. Network DLP monitors traffic flowing through network gateways including email, web uploads, instant messaging, and file transfers, blocking sensitive data from being transmitted to unauthorized destinations. Endpoint DLP on workstations and laptops monitors data being copied to removable media, uploaded to cloud services, printed, or copied to clipboard, preventing local data disclosure. Cloud DLP integrates with cloud applications and storage services, enforcing policies on data stored and shared through cloud platforms. Email DLP specifically monitors email traffic applying encryption, blocking messages, or removing attachments containing sensitive data before delivery.
A) is incorrect because increasing data storage capacity is accomplished through additional storage infrastructure, not DLP which focuses on preventing unauthorized data disclosure.
B) is correct because preventing unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information is indeed the primary purpose of data loss prevention solutions, monitoring and controlling sensitive data movement.
C) is incorrect because improving database query performance is accomplished through query optimization, indexing, and database tuning, not DLP which focuses on protecting sensitive data.
D) is incorrect because providing data backup services is the function of backup solutions and disaster recovery systems, not DLP which prevents unauthorized data disclosure rather than creating data copies.
Question 220:
Which protocol provides secure file transfer with encryption?
A) FTP
B) TFTP
C) SFTP
D) HTTP
Answer: C
Explanation:
File transfers are common operations in IT environments for application deployments, configuration backups, data sharing, and system maintenance. Traditional file transfer protocols were designed when networks were trusted and security wasn’t a primary concern, resulting in protocols that transmit files, commands, and authentication credentials in cleartext without encryption. Network attackers can intercept file transfers, stealing sensitive data, capturing credentials, or modifying files in transit. Modern security requirements demand that file transfers are protected with strong encryption, authentication, and integrity verification.
The protocol that provides secure file transfer with encryption is SFTP, which stands for SSH File Transfer Protocol or Secure File Transfer Protocol. SFTP operates over SSH connections providing all the security benefits of SSH including strong encryption of file contents and commands, cryptographic authentication without transmitting passwords in cleartext, and integrity checking ensuring files are not modified during transfer. SFTP uses TCP port twenty-two by default, the same port used for SSH interactive sessions, simplifying firewall configuration as both protocols share the same network port.
SFTP provides comprehensive security features for file transfer operations. Encryption protects file contents during transfer preventing network eavesdropping even when transferring sensitive data over untrusted networks. Authentication supports multiple methods including passwords, public key authentication similar to SSH, and certificate-based authentication for enterprise deployments. Command encryption protects not just file contents but also directory listings, file operations, and all protocol commands preventing attackers from learning file structures or operations being performed. Integrity verification using cryptographic hashes ensures that files are not corrupted or modified during transfer either accidentally or maliciously.
SFTP functionality includes all operations necessary for comprehensive file management. File upload and download enable bidirectional file transfer between client and server. Directory operations create, delete, and list directories enabling complete file structure management. File operations delete, rename, and change permissions of remote files. Resume capability allows interrupted transfers to continue from the point of failure rather than starting over, valuable for large files over unreliable connections. Batch operations enable scripted file transfers automating routine file transfer tasks.
A) is incorrect because FTP transmits files, commands, and credentials in cleartext without encryption, making it insecure for modern use despite being a file transfer protocol.
B) is incorrect because TFTP is a simplified file transfer protocol without authentication or encryption, typically used only for basic file transfers in trusted network environments.
C) is correct because SFTP indeed provides secure file transfer with encryption, operating over SSH connections with strong cryptographic protection.
D) is incorrect because HTTP transmits data in cleartext without encryption, though HTTPS provides encrypted web transfers, neither is specifically a file transfer protocol like SFTP.
Question 221:
What is the primary function of a web application firewall (WAF)?
A) To provide wireless network access
B) To protect web applications from attacks like SQL injection and cross-site scripting
C) To manage email security
D) To provide VPN connectivity
Answer: B
Explanation:
Web applications face constant attack from automated scanners and human attackers seeking to exploit vulnerabilities. Traditional network firewalls that inspect traffic at network and transport layers cannot understand application-layer attacks targeting web application logic, database backends, or user sessions. Application code vulnerabilities including SQL injection, cross-site scripting, command injection, and authentication bypass require defenses that understand HTTP protocols, application structure, and common attack patterns. Web application firewalls provide specialized protection designed specifically for the unique threats facing web applications.
The primary function of a web application firewall is to protect web applications from attacks like SQL injection and cross-site scripting. WAFs sit between clients and web servers inspecting HTTP/HTTPS traffic for malicious requests that attempt to exploit application vulnerabilities. Unlike traditional firewalls that make decisions based on IP addresses and ports, WAFs analyze request URLs, parameters, headers, cookies, and message bodies comparing them against attack signatures, behavioral rules, and application security policies. When WAFs detect attack attempts, they block malicious requests before they reach vulnerable applications, log attacks for security analysis, and alert security teams about exploitation attempts.
WAF rule types provide different protection approaches. Signature-based rules match specific attack patterns in requests blocking known exploit attempts. Negative security rules define what is not allowed, blocking requests containing suspicious patterns or characters. Positive security rules define what is allowed, permitting only requests matching expected application behavior while blocking everything else. This whitelisting approach provides strongest protection but requires detailed application knowledge. Behavioral rules establish baselines of normal application traffic flagging anomalous requests that deviate from typical patterns. Virtual patching creates WAF rules that protect vulnerable applications from specific exploits, enabling rapid protection while permanent application fixes are developed and deployed.
Effective WAF operation requires ongoing management and tuning. Initial deployment in monitor mode establishes baselines and tunes rules to avoid false positives. Gradual enforcement transition moves from monitoring to blocking as confidence in rule accuracy increases. Exception management creates legitimate overrides for false positives where security rules block legitimate business functions. Regular rule updates incorporate new attack signatures and vulnerability protections as threats evolve. Application awareness tuning customizes WAF protection based on actual application structure and functionality. Security monitoring and incident response processes analyze WAF alerts identifying real attacks requiring investigation and remediation.
WAF limitations must be understood for realistic security expectations. Zero-day vulnerabilities without signatures may evade signature-based protection until rules are developed. Complex attacks spanning multiple requests may evade per-request inspection. Logic flaws in application business logic may not be detectable through traffic inspection. Performance impact from deep content inspection can affect application response times at scale. False positives where legitimate requests are incorrectly blocked require ongoing tuning. WAF complements but doesn’t replace secure coding practices and application security testing.
A) is incorrect because providing wireless network access is the function of wireless access points and controllers, not web application firewalls which protect web applications from attacks.
B) is correct because protecting web applications from attacks like SQL injection and cross-site scripting is indeed the primary function of web application firewalls, providing application-layer security.
C) is incorrect because managing email security is the function of email security gateways and anti-spam solutions, not WAF which focuses on web application protection.
D) is incorrect because providing VPN connectivity is the function of VPN concentrators and remote access solutions, not WAF which protects web applications from exploitation.
Question 222:
Which Cisco security solution provides visibility into encrypted traffic without decryption?
A) Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics (ETA)
B) Cisco AnyConnect
C) Cisco Umbrella
D) Cisco Duo
Answer: A
Explanation:
The widespread adoption of encryption has created a paradox for network security. While encryption protects privacy and data confidentiality, it also blinds security devices to threats hiding inside encrypted traffic. Traditional approaches require decrypting traffic for inspection, but this creates privacy concerns, performance overhead, operational complexity from certificate management, and compatibility issues with certificate pinning and mutual TLS authentication. Many organizations cannot or will not decrypt all encrypted traffic due to privacy regulations, employee privacy expectations, or practical limitations. This leaves significant portions of network traffic uninspected and potentially carrying hidden threats.
The Cisco security solution that provides visibility into encrypted traffic without decryption is Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics. ETA uses machine learning and behavioral analysis to identify threats in encrypted traffic by analyzing observable characteristics that don’t require decryption. These include connection patterns, packet sizes, timing, sequence of packets, initial data packet sizes, and TLS handshake characteristics. Even though payload contents remain encrypted and private, these metadata characteristics provide sufficient signal for machine learning models to distinguish malicious encrypted traffic from benign encrypted traffic with high accuracy.
ETA operates through several technical mechanisms that extract security-relevant signals from encrypted sessions. TLS fingerprinting analyzes TLS handshake characteristics including cipher suites offered, extensions negotiated, and certificate characteristics identifying specific applications and detecting anomalies indicating malware or unauthorized applications. Sequence of packet lengths and times creates patterns that differ between legitimate applications and malware, enabling classification without seeing content. Initial data packet inspection examines sizes and patterns of first data packets which differ characteristically between application types and between legitimate software and malware. Flow characteristics including total bytes transferred, session duration, and periodicity of communications distinguish between normal application behavior and command-and-control traffic or data exfiltration.
Machine learning models trained on massive datasets of both benign and malicious encrypted traffic enable accurate classification. Models learn characteristics of specific malware families, command-and-control protocols, and data exfiltration patterns that manifest in observable traffic metadata. As new threats emerge and behavioral patterns evolve, models are continuously retrained with updated datasets maintaining effectiveness against current threats. The combination of multiple traffic features analyzed holistically provides much higher accuracy than any single indicator could achieve individually.
A) is correct because Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics indeed provides visibility into encrypted traffic without decryption, using behavioral analysis and machine learning on observable traffic characteristics.
B) is incorrect because Cisco AnyConnect is a VPN client providing secure remote access, not a technology for analyzing encrypted traffic without decryption.
C) is incorrect because Cisco Umbrella provides DNS-layer security and cloud-delivered firewall, not specifically focused on analyzing encrypted traffic without decryption.
D) is incorrect because Cisco Duo provides multi-factor authentication and device trust verification, not encrypted traffic analysis capabilities.
Question 223:
What is the purpose of implementing security information and event management (SIEM) correlation rules?
A) To increase storage capacity
B) To identify related security events that may indicate attacks
C) To manage software updates
D) To provide network routing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Security devices and systems generate enormous volumes of events, logs, and alerts, with large enterprises seeing millions of security events daily. Individual events viewed in isolation often provide little actionable intelligence. A single failed login might be a typo, firewall block might be legitimate traffic denied by policy, and malware detection on one endpoint might be an isolated incident. However, when correlated with other events, these same occurrences reveal attack patterns. Multiple failed logins followed by success indicates credential brute-forcing, firewall blocks from specific sources correlating with malware detections indicates attack campaigns, and malware on multiple endpoints indicates active breach propagation.
The purpose of implementing SIEM correlation rules is to identify related security events that may indicate attacks. Correlation rules define patterns spanning multiple events, potentially from different sources and occurring over time windows, that together indicate security incidents warranting investigation. When events match correlation rule patterns, SIEM generates higher-confidence alerts that aggregate related events, provide context explaining why the pattern is significant, prioritize severity based on the attack pattern, and trigger response workflows or automated remediation. This correlation dramatically reduces alert fatigue by combining many related low-level events into single meaningful incidents while identifying sophisticated attacks that individual events wouldn’t reveal.
Correlation rules address various attack scenarios and detection objectives. Authentication attack detection correlates failed login attempts across multiple systems identifying credential stuffing, password spraying, or brute-force attacks. Malware propagation correlation connects malware detections across multiple endpoints identifying lateral movement and outbreak scope. Data exfiltration detection correlates large outbound transfers with user behavior anomalies and connections to suspicious destinations. Reconnaissance correlation identifies port scans, vulnerability scans, and enumeration activities that precede attacks. Compliance monitoring correlates events relevant to regulatory requirements generating compliance violation alerts.
Rule types provide different correlation approaches for various scenarios. Threshold-based rules trigger when event counts exceed defined limits within time windows, such as ten failed logins within five minutes. Sequence rules match specific ordered sequences of events, such as reconnaissance followed by exploitation attempt followed by lateral movement. Statistical rules detect anomalies where event patterns deviate from historical baselines, identifying unusual activity even without known attack signatures. Threat intelligence rules correlate events with indicators of compromise from threat feeds, identifying interactions with known-malicious infrastructure. Time-based rules correlate events occurring within specific time relationships, such as unusual access patterns outside business hours.
Effective correlation rule development follows systematic approaches. Threat modeling identifies attack scenarios the organization wants to detect based on risk assessments and threat intelligence. Data source mapping determines which log sources provide visibility into each attack stage enabling comprehensive detection. Rule logic definition specifies precise conditions including event types, sources, time windows, thresholds, and logical relationships. Tuning reduces false positives through testing against historical data and adjusting thresholds or conditions. Documentation explains rule purpose, detection logic, and investigation procedures for analysts responding to triggered alerts.
Correlation rule challenges include complexity of defining effective rules without generating excessive false positives, data requirements needing visibility into relevant event sources, time window selection balancing early detection against false positives from coincidental events, computational overhead from evaluating complex rules against large event volumes, and maintenance updating rules as environments and threats evolve. Advanced SIEM platforms incorporate machine learning to assist rule development by automatically identifying patterns in historical data that correlate with confirmed incidents.
Organizations should implement correlation rule management programs including regular rule review assessing effectiveness and false positive rates, rules for rule development standardizing rule creation and testing, version control tracking rule changes and enabling rollback of problematic updates, and performance monitoring ensuring correlation processing doesn’t introduce unacceptable latency in alert generation. Effective correlation transforms SIEM from a log aggregation platform generating noise into an intelligent threat detection system providing actionable security intelligence.
A) is incorrect because increasing storage capacity is a infrastructure concern, not the purpose of SIEM correlation rules which analyze relationships between security events.
B) is correct because identifying related security events that may indicate attacks is indeed the purpose of implementing SIEM correlation rules, connecting disparate events into meaningful security incidents.
C) is incorrect because managing software updates is handled by patch management systems, not SIEM correlation rules which analyze security event relationships.
D) is incorrect because providing network routing is a network infrastructure function, not related to SIEM correlation rules which detect security incidents through event analysis.
Question 224:
Which Cisco product provides centralized management for Cisco security products?
A) Cisco Firepower Management Center
B) Cisco Prime Infrastructure
C) Cisco DNA Center
D) Cisco vManage
Answer: A
Explanation:
Organizations deploying multiple security appliances across distributed locations face management complexity as each device requires individual configuration, policy updates, and monitoring. Inconsistent security policies across devices create gaps where attackers find weaknesses. Manual configuration of each device is time-consuming, error-prone, and doesn’t scale beyond small deployments. Lack of centralized visibility prevents security teams from understanding overall security posture, correlating threats across locations, or responding coordinately to incidents. Centralized management addresses these challenges by providing single-pane-of-glass administration, policy consistency, and coordinated threat response.
The Cisco product that provides centralized management for Cisco security products is Cisco Firepower Management Center. FMC provides unified management for Firepower Threat Defense firewalls, Firepower NGIPS appliances, and ASA with FirePOWER services deployed throughout the enterprise. From a single management interface, administrators create security policies, deploy those policies to multiple devices, monitor security events and threats, investigate incidents, and update software and signatures across managed devices. This centralized approach ensures consistent security postures, simplifies administration, and enables security operations that would be impractical with per-device management.
FMC management capabilities span the complete security device lifecycle. Initial device registration enrolls new security devices under FMC management establishing secure management channels. Policy creation defines security rules, intrusion prevention settings, malware protection, URL filtering, and other security controls through policy objects that can be shared across multiple devices. Policy deployment pushes policies to managed devices with validation ensuring successful application. Configuration management handles device interfaces, routing, NAT, VPN, and other settings beyond security policies. Software and signature updates deploy firmware, intrusion signatures, URL categories, and other updates across all managed devices from central location.
Security operations through FMC provide visibility and control across the distributed security infrastructure. Event monitoring aggregates security events from all managed devices providing comprehensive threat visibility. Dashboards visualize key security metrics including top threats, most targeted systems, attack trends, and device health. Correlation identifies related events across multiple devices revealing distributed attacks or lateral movement. Investigation tools enable analysts to drill into specific incidents, query event data across devices, and build timelines of attack activities. Report generation creates compliance reports, executive summaries, and operational metrics from consolidated data.
Threat response coordination enables FMC to orchestrate actions across managed devices. When new threats are identified, security policies can be updated centrally and deployed to all devices simultaneously providing rapid protection. Threat intelligence integration automatically updates security policies based on new indicators of compromise from Cisco Talos and other feeds. Remediation actions can be triggered across multiple devices, such as blocking traffic from attacker IP addresses across all firewalls or quarantining malicious files on all endpoints. This coordinated response provides faster, more comprehensive protection than per-device manual response.
A) is correct because Cisco Firepower Management Center indeed provides centralized management for Cisco security products, specifically managing Firepower firewalls and NGIPS appliances.
B) is incorrect because Cisco Prime Infrastructure provides management for Cisco network infrastructure devices like switches, routers, and wireless controllers, not specifically for security products.
C) is incorrect because Cisco DNA Center provides management and automation for enterprise networks with intent-based networking capabilities, not specifically centralized security product management.
D) is incorrect because Cisco vManage provides centralized management for Cisco SD-WAN solutions, not for security products like firewalls and IPS appliances.
Question 225:
What is the primary purpose of implementing network segmentation micro-segmentation?
A) To increase network bandwidth
B) To create granular security zones limiting lateral movement to individual workloads
C) To provide wireless coverage
D) To manage DNS services
Answer: B
Explanation:
Traditional network segmentation using VLANs and firewalls creates relatively broad security zones like user networks, server networks, and DMZ. While this provides basic isolation, entire groups of systems within each zone can communicate freely, creating large attack surfaces. If attackers compromise a single web server in the server VLAN, they can potentially access all other servers in that VLAN attempting lateral movement to more valuable targets. Data center environments with hundreds or thousands of servers in shared networks are particularly vulnerable. Cloud environments with dynamic workload placement and auto-scaling create additional challenges for traditional segmentation approaches based on static network topology.
The primary purpose of implementing network micro-segmentation is to create granular security zones limiting lateral movement to individual workloads. Micro-segmentation extends segmentation concepts to the workload level rather than network level, creating security policies that follow individual applications, containers, or virtual machines regardless of network location. Rather than grouping many servers into a single server VLAN with permissive intra-VLAN communication, micro-segmentation implements security policies between every workload pair, permitting only specifically required communications while denying everything else by default. This dramatically reduces attack surface and limits damage from any single compromised system.
Micro-segmentation implementation approaches vary based on infrastructure type and available technologies. Software-defined networking enables policy enforcement at the virtual switch or overlay network level following workloads as they move. Host-based firewalls on each system enforce policies locally without requiring network-level controls. Security tags or labels identify workloads enabling policy definitions based on attributes like application, environment, or security level rather than network location. Service meshes in container environments enforce micro-segmentation between microservices. Cloud provider security groups implement per-instance firewall rules providing workload-level isolation.
Security benefits of micro-segmentation significantly improve breach containment and damage limitation. Lateral movement restriction prevents attackers from easily moving from compromised systems to other systems because each connection attempt is individually evaluated against policies. Zero trust architecture principles are realized through continuous verification of communications rather than trusting anything inside the network perimeter. Compliance requirements for network segmentation can be satisfied more granularly than traditional approaches. Least privilege network access ensures workloads can only communicate with specific other workloads required for their function.
Policy definition in micro-segmentation requires understanding application dependencies and communication patterns. Application mapping identifies which systems need to communicate for applications to function properly. Dependency analysis determines required ports, protocols, and direction of communications. Policy modeling tests proposed policies in monitoring mode before enforcement to identify and resolve issues. Dynamic policies adapt to infrastructure changes like auto-scaling or workload migrations without manual policy updates. Visual policy management tools help administrators understand complex policy relationships and identify security gaps.
A) is incorrect because increasing network bandwidth is accomplished through faster network connections and infrastructure upgrades, not through micro-segmentation which provides granular security isolation.
B) is correct because creating granular security zones limiting lateral movement to individual workloads is indeed the primary purpose of micro-segmentation, implementing workload-level security policies.
C) is incorrect because providing wireless coverage is the function of wireless access points and site surveys, not micro-segmentation which focuses on granular security isolation.
D) is incorrect because managing DNS services is the function of DNS servers and management platforms, not related to micro-segmentation which provides workload-level security isolation.