Cisco 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 7 Q 91-105
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Question 91:
An administrator needs to configure Cisco Firepower to allow specific applications while blocking others based on application categories. Which feature should be configured?
A) Application filters
B) URL filtering
C) Geolocation
D) Security Intelligence
Answer: A
Explanation:
Application filters in Cisco Firepower provide granular control over applications based on categories, allowing administrators to permit or block applications according to business requirements, making A the correct answer. This feature enables organizations to implement acceptable use policies while maintaining productivity by controlling which applications traverse the network.
Application filters work by categorizing applications into logical groups based on characteristics including business purpose, risk level, functionality, and behavior. Firepower includes predefined application categories such as social networking, file sharing, gaming, streaming media, business applications, collaboration tools, and others. Each category contains multiple individual applications sharing similar characteristics or purposes. Administrators create access control rules referencing these application filters rather than listing individual applications, significantly simplifying policy management. For example, a single rule can block all social networking applications by referencing the social networking filter, automatically including Facebook, Twitter, Instagram, LinkedIn, and hundreds of other social platforms without explicitly naming each.
The application identification engine in Firepower uses multiple detection techniques ensuring accurate application recognition regardless of evasion attempts. Deep packet inspection analyzes application-layer protocols identifying characteristic patterns and behaviors unique to specific applications. Port-agnostic detection identifies applications using non-standard ports or encryption to avoid detection. SSL/TLS inspection decrypts encrypted traffic enabling application identification within encrypted sessions. Behavioral analysis recognizes applications based on communication patterns, data transfer characteristics, and protocol behaviors. This comprehensive approach ensures that applications are correctly identified even when using techniques like port hopping, protocol tunneling, or encryption to bypass traditional firewall controls.
Beyond simple allow or block actions, application filters support sophisticated policy configurations. Administrators can combine application filters with other access control criteria including source and destination networks, users and groups, URLs, file types, and security intelligence data. Different actions can be applied including allowing traffic, blocking traffic, resetting connections, logging events, or applying specific intrusion and file policies. Application conditions enable fine-grained control within applications, such as allowing Webex meetings while blocking file transfers within the same application. Risk-based filtering blocks high-risk applications while permitting low-risk business tools. Productivity versus security balance is achieved by understanding which applications are necessary for business operations versus those that introduce unnecessary risk. B is incorrect because URL filtering controls web access based on website categories rather than application-layer control. C is incorrect because geolocation filtering restricts traffic based on geographic locations rather than application types. D is incorrect because Security Intelligence blocks traffic based on IP reputation and threat intelligence rather than application categories.
Question 92:
Which AAA component is responsible for tracking user activities and resource consumption for billing or auditing purposes?
A) Authentication
B) Authorization
C) Accounting
D) Administration
Answer: C
Explanation:
Accounting is the AAA component responsible for tracking and logging user activities, resource consumption, and session details for auditing, compliance, and billing purposes, making C the correct answer. Accounting provides comprehensive records of who accessed what resources, when access occurred, and what actions were performed during the session.
Accounting operates by generating detailed logs of user sessions from start to finish. When users establish connections to network resources through services like VPN, wireless access, or administrative sessions, accounting records capture session initiation including username, source IP address, connection timestamp, authentication method, and assigned resources. During active sessions, interim accounting updates can be sent at configured intervals providing ongoing visibility into session status and resource utilization. When sessions terminate, stop accounting records document disconnection time, session duration, bytes transferred, packets sent and received, disconnect reason, and final session statistics. This comprehensive logging creates complete audit trails documenting all network access and activities.
RADIUS and TACACS+ protocols support accounting through dedicated accounting messages separate from authentication and authorization functions. RADIUS accounting uses UDP port 1813 or legacy port 1646 for sending accounting records from network access servers to accounting servers. Accounting-Start messages signal session beginning, Accounting-Interim-Update messages provide periodic updates during long sessions, and Accounting-Stop messages record session termination. Each message includes extensive attributes describing session characteristics, user identity, resource usage, and connection details. Accounting servers receive these messages, store records in databases or log files, and may generate alerts for unusual activities. Multiple accounting servers can be configured for redundancy ensuring that records are preserved even during server failures.
The value of accounting extends across multiple organizational requirements. Security auditing uses accounting logs to investigate security incidents, identifying compromised accounts, tracking attacker activities, and reconstructing attack timelines. Compliance requirements mandating access logging are satisfied through comprehensive accounting records proving who accessed regulated systems and data. Billing capabilities enable service providers to charge customers based on actual resource consumption measured through accounting data. Capacity planning analyzes accounting records to understand network utilization patterns, peak usage times, and growth trends. User behavior analysis identifies anomalous activities indicating insider threats or compromised credentials. Troubleshooting benefits from accounting providing detailed session information helping resolve connectivity issues. Legal requirements for data retention are addressed through accounting log preservation. However, accounting generates significant data volumes requiring adequate storage capacity, log retention policies, and often SIEM integration for analysis. A is incorrect because authentication verifies user identity rather than tracking activities. B is incorrect because authorization determines access permissions rather than logging resource usage. D is incorrect because administration is not a standard AAA component.
Question 93:
An administrator needs to configure a Cisco ASA to perform destination NAT for incoming connections to a web server in the DMZ. Which NAT type should be configured?
A) Static NAT
B) Dynamic NAT
C) Dynamic PAT
D) Policy NAT
Answer: A
Explanation:
Static NAT provides permanent one-to-one IP address mapping ideal for destination NAT scenarios where external users need consistent access to internal servers, making A the correct answer. Static NAT ensures that a specific public IP address always translates to the same internal server IP address, enabling reliable inbound connectivity to published services like web servers in DMZ networks.
Static NAT configuration on ASA creates bidirectional translation between external and internal addresses. For publishing a DMZ web server, administrators configure a static NAT statement mapping a public IP address on the outside interface to the server’s private IP address in the DMZ. When external clients initiate connections to the public IP address, the ASA translates the destination address to the server’s internal IP, forwards the traffic to the DMZ, and translates response traffic back using the public address. The mapping remains permanent regardless of traffic patterns, ensuring that DNS records pointing to the public IP consistently reach the correct internal server. This predictability is essential for services requiring stable addressing including web servers, mail servers, VPN concentrators, and other externally accessible resources.
Implementation of static NAT for DMZ servers involves several configuration elements. The NAT statement specifies source and destination security zones, typically outside to DMZ for inbound server access. Real IP addresses identify the actual server addresses in the DMZ network. Mapped IP addresses specify public addresses used externally. Interface selection determines which interface provides the public IP addresses. Access control lists must permit the desired traffic from external sources to the translated destination addresses, as NAT alone does not override security policy. Service translation can optionally map destination ports, such as translating external port 8080 to internal port 80, though this is more commonly configured through separate port forwarding rules. Multiple servers can each receive static NAT mappings using different public IPs from available address pools.
Static NAT serves several important use cases beyond simple server publishing. One-to-one NAT provides dedicated public addresses for servers requiring inbound and outbound connectivity with consistent addressing. Identity NAT translates addresses to themselves, useful when servers in different security zones need to communicate using their original addresses. Twice NAT combines source and destination translation in single rules for complex scenarios. Load balancing can distribute traffic across multiple servers by combining static NAT with access control policies and load balancing devices. Disaster recovery configurations use static NAT to enable failover between primary and backup servers by changing mapped addresses. However, static NAT consumes one public IP per internal host, creating address exhaustion concerns in environments with many published servers. B is incorrect because dynamic NAT provides temporary translations from address pools, inappropriate for servers requiring consistent inbound addressing. C is incorrect because dynamic PAT is for outbound internet access sharing single public IPs, not inbound server publishing. D is incorrect because policy NAT adds conditions to NAT rules but doesn’t specifically address the inbound destination NAT requirement.
Question 94:
Which Cisco security solution provides protection against DNS tunneling and data exfiltration through DNS queries?
A) Cisco Umbrella
B) Cisco AMP
C) Cisco Firepower
D) Cisco ISE
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Umbrella provides comprehensive protection against DNS tunneling and data exfiltration attempts using DNS queries as covert communication channels, making A the correct answer. Umbrella’s cloud-based DNS security architecture provides unique visibility into DNS traffic patterns enabling detection of tunneling attempts that often bypass traditional security controls.
DNS tunneling protection in Umbrella leverages multiple detection techniques analyzing DNS query characteristics. Statistical analysis examines query patterns identifying anomalies such as unusually long domain names, high query volumes from single sources, excessive subdomain queries, or queries with high entropy indicating encoded data rather than legitimate domain names. Legitimate DNS queries typically involve recognizable domain names with standard lengths and character distributions. Tunneling attempts encode arbitrary data into DNS queries creating distinctive patterns including random-looking characters, base64 encoding artifacts, and query lengths exceeding typical values. Behavioral analysis establishes baselines for normal DNS behavior from each organization and endpoint, detecting deviations indicating potential tunneling activity.
Machine learning models trained on known tunneling samples and legitimate DNS traffic enhance detection accuracy. These models recognize subtle indicators that rule-based systems might miss, including specific encoding schemes used by tunneling tools, timing patterns characteristic of automated data exfiltration, and domain generation algorithm patterns used by some tunneling implementations. Umbrella’s global visibility across millions of endpoints worldwide provides massive datasets for training these models, improving detection accuracy and reducing false positives. When tunneling is detected, Umbrella can block the malicious queries preventing command and control communications or data exfiltration, generate alerts for security team investigation, and provide forensic details about the tunneling attempt including involved domains and affected endpoints.
Integration with threat intelligence enhances DNS tunneling detection. Umbrella correlates queried domains against Cisco Talos intelligence identifying domains associated with known tunneling tools or malicious infrastructure. Newly registered domains frequently used in tunneling campaigns receive additional scrutiny. Domain reputation analysis identifies suspicious domains lacking legitimate web presence, having recently changed ownership, or associated with hosting providers favored by attackers. The combination of behavioral analysis, machine learning detection, and threat intelligence provides layered defense against sophisticated tunneling attempts. Organizations benefit from protection regardless of endpoint location because Umbrella inspects DNS queries from corporate networks, branch offices, remote workers, and mobile devices, providing consistent security enforcement across distributed environments. B is incorrect because AMP focuses on malware detection through file analysis rather than DNS traffic analysis for tunneling detection. C is incorrect because while Firepower can inspect some DNS traffic, it lacks Umbrella’s cloud-based global visibility and specialized DNS security capabilities. D is incorrect because ISE provides network access control rather than DNS security and tunneling detection.
Question 95:
An administrator needs to configure Cisco WSA to scan files for malware using multiple antivirus engines. Which feature provides this capability?
A) Multi-scanning
B) Advanced Malware Protection
C) Webroot integration
D) Sophos integration
Answer: B
Explanation:
Advanced Malware Protection on Cisco WSA provides comprehensive file scanning using multiple detection engines including signature-based scanning, behavioral analysis, and cloud-based threat intelligence, making B the correct answer. AMP integration enables the WSA to detect sophisticated malware that might evade single-vendor antivirus solutions through multi-layered analysis.
AMP file scanning on WSA operates through a multi-stage analysis process providing defense in depth. When users download files through the web proxy, WSA performs initial file type identification and size checks. Files meeting scanning criteria are analyzed through multiple engines including local antivirus scanning using integrated engines like Sophos or Webroot, file reputation checks querying Cisco Talos cloud intelligence for known malicious file hashes, and behavioral analysis examining file characteristics for suspicious attributes. The local antivirus engines provide traditional signature-based detection identifying known malware variants. File reputation analysis compares file SHA-256 hashes against global threat intelligence databases containing billions of known malicious file signatures collected from worldwide AMP deployments.
Advanced analysis capabilities extend beyond simple signature matching. For files with unknown reputation, WSA can optionally send samples to Cisco Threat Grid cloud sandbox for dynamic analysis. Threat Grid executes files in isolated virtual environments observing behaviors including file system modifications, registry changes, network connections, process creation, and API calls. Malicious behaviors trigger threat verdicts with detailed reports documenting observed activities. File trajectory tracking shows where files originated, how they spread through the network, and which users encountered them. Retrospective security continuously re-evaluates previously allowed files against emerging threat intelligence, automatically detecting files that were initially clean but later identified as malicious. This ongoing analysis provides protection against zero-day threats and polymorphic malware that evade initial detection.
Configuration options provide flexibility balancing security and performance. Administrators define which file types undergo scanning, set maximum file sizes for analysis, configure actions for different verdict categories (clean, malicious, unknown), and specify whether to block or allow files pending cloud analysis results. Custom detection lists supplement automated analysis enabling administrators to block or allow specific file hashes based on organizational policies. Outbreak filters provide rapid protection against newly discovered threats through fast-updating block lists distributed before full signature updates. Integration with other WSA security features creates comprehensive web security including URL filtering blocking access to malicious sites before downloads occur, HTTPS inspection enabling malware detection in encrypted traffic, and data loss prevention preventing sensitive information uploads. A is incorrect because while multi-scanning describes the concept, it’s not the specific WSA feature name. C and D are incorrect because Webroot and Sophos are individual antivirus engines that can be integrated, but AMP provides the comprehensive multi-layered scanning framework.
Question 96:
Which Cisco technology enables segmentation of network traffic based on Security Group Tags assigned dynamically during user authentication?
A) Cisco TrustSec
B) Cisco ACI
C) VLANs
D) VRF
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco TrustSec provides software-defined segmentation using Security Group Tags that are dynamically assigned based on user or device identity during authentication, making A the correct answer. TrustSec revolutionizes network segmentation by abstracting security policy from network topology, enabling scalable and flexible access control based on who or what is connecting rather than where they connect.
TrustSec architecture assigns numerical Security Group Tags to users, devices, or resources representing their role, classification, or security zone. When users or devices authenticate through 802.1X, ISE evaluates authentication context including username, Active Directory group membership, device type, posture compliance, location, and time of day. Based on configured authorization policies, ISE dynamically assigns appropriate SGTs. For example, finance department employees might receive SGT 10, marketing staff receive SGT 20, and contractors receive SGT 30. These tags are inserted into packet headers as traffic enters the TrustSec domain, with network devices making forwarding and security decisions based on tags rather than IP addresses or VLANs. This abstraction provides tremendous flexibility because policies remain consistent regardless of network topology changes, IP address assignments, or user mobility.
Security Group Access Control Lists define enforcement policies specifying which SGT-to-SGT communications are permitted. Instead of traditional ACLs with hundreds of IP-based rules requiring updates whenever addresses change, SGACLs use simple role-based policies like «Finance-Users (SGT 10) can access HR-Servers (SGT 15) on ports 443 and 1433.» These policies are created centrally in ISE and distributed to enforcement points including switches, routers, firewalls, and wireless controllers. Enforcement occurs at strategic control points throughout the network with devices inspecting SGT values in packet headers and applying appropriate SGACLs. The scalability advantage is substantial because as networks grow and change, policies remain valid without modification. Adding new users to existing roles automatically inherits appropriate SGT assignments and associated policies without manual ACL updates on network devices.
TrustSec provides several deployment modes addressing different infrastructure capabilities. Inline tagging on capable devices inserts SGT values directly into packet headers using Cisco Metadata fields, enabling high-performance enforcement throughout the network. Security Group Tag Exchange Protocol propagates IP-to-SGT mappings to devices that cannot read inline tags, enabling TrustSec deployment on legacy infrastructure. Static SGT assignment maps IP addresses or subnets to tags for devices without authentication capabilities. Matrix-based policy definition in ISE provides intuitive visual policy creation where administrators simply check boxes indicating which source SGTs can access which destination SGTs. Integration with firewalls enables SGT-aware security policies combining network segmentation with advanced threat protection. B is incorrect because while ACI uses similar concepts, TrustSec is the technology specifically designed for SGT-based segmentation across diverse network infrastructure. C is incorrect because VLANs provide Layer 2 segmentation based on ports or MAC addresses rather than dynamic identity-based tagging. D is incorrect because VRF provides Layer 3 routing separation but does not use dynamic Security Group Tags based on user identity.
Question 97:
An administrator needs to configure a Cisco router to authenticate administrators using TACACS+ with local fallback if TACACS+ servers are unreachable. Which command accomplishes this?
A) aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ local
B) tacacs-server host 10.1.1.1 local
C) aaa authentication enable default local
D) login authentication tacacs local
Answer: A
Explanation:
The command «aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ local» configures authentication to attempt TACACS+ first with automatic fallback to local database if TACACS+ servers are unavailable, making A the correct answer. This configuration ensures administrative access remains possible during authentication infrastructure outages while preferring centralized authentication when available.
AAA authentication configuration on Cisco routers defines method lists specifying authentication order and sources. The «aaa authentication login» command creates authentication method lists for login access. The «default» keyword specifies the default method list applied to all lines unless specifically overridden by named lists. The «group tacacs+» parameter instructs the router to attempt authentication against all configured TACACS+ servers in the defined server group. TACACS+ provides several advantages for administrative authentication including full command authorization, detailed accounting of administrative activities, and encrypted credential transmission. When TACACS+ servers respond, they validate credentials against centralized directories like Active Directory or LDAP, enabling consistent account management across infrastructure.
Fallback authentication protects against lockout scenarios when TACACS+ infrastructure becomes unavailable due to network failures, server outages, or configuration issues. If all TACACS+ servers fail to respond within configured timeout periods, the router automatically proceeds to the next authentication method in the list. The «local» parameter specifies the router’s local username database as fallback authentication. Administrators must create local usernames using «username» commands providing emergency access credentials. For example, «username admin privilege 15 secret ComplexPassword123!» creates a local administrative account. These local credentials should be unique from centralized credentials, securely documented, regularly audited, and known only to appropriate administrative personnel. The fallback mechanism ensures that critical network maintenance can proceed even when authentication infrastructure is unavailable.
Implementation considerations include proper timeout configuration balancing failover speed against patience for slow networks. TACACS+ server timeout values typically range from 5 to 10 seconds per server. With multiple TACACS+ servers configured, total failover time to local authentication could be substantial if timeouts are too long. Server group configuration should include appropriate ordering, shared secrets, and connection parameters. Method list design should consider different authentication requirements for different access methods, such as using TACACS+ with local fallback for VTY lines while using local-only authentication for console access ensuring guaranteed recovery access. Testing failover scenarios validates that local fallback functions correctly when TACACS+ is unavailable. Regular password rotation for local accounts maintains security. Documentation ensures that emergency access procedures are available during incidents. B is incorrect because this is not valid command syntax and doesn’t configure fallback authentication. C is incorrect because this configures enable mode authentication rather than login authentication with TACACS+ fallback. D is incorrect because this is incomplete and not the proper AAA configuration syntax for Cisco routers.
Question 98:
Which Cisco Firepower feature uses threat intelligence feeds to automatically block traffic to and from known malicious IP addresses and domains?
A) Security Intelligence
B) Intrusion Prevention
C) File Policy
D) Application Control
Answer: A
Explanation:
Security Intelligence in Cisco Firepower provides automated blocking of traffic based on threat intelligence feeds containing known malicious IP addresses, URLs, and domain names, making A the correct answer. This feature offers fast, lightweight protection against known threats by blocking malicious traffic before it undergoes deeper inspection, improving security and performance.
Security Intelligence operates as the first line of defense in Firepower’s defense-in-depth architecture. Before traffic undergoes detailed access control policy evaluation, intrusion detection, or malware scanning, Security Intelligence performs rapid lookups against threat intelligence feeds. These feeds contain IP addresses, URLs, and domains associated with malware distribution sites, command and control servers, phishing campaigns, botnet infrastructure, and other malicious activities. Cisco provides regularly updated feeds from Talos threat intelligence incorporating global discoveries of malicious infrastructure. Custom feeds enable organizations to add internally discovered threats or threat intelligence from third-party sources. When traffic destinations match Security Intelligence block lists, Firepower drops connections immediately without further processing, preventing compromised internal hosts from communicating with attacker infrastructure and blocking external attacks before they reach internal resources.
Configuration options provide granular control over Security Intelligence enforcement. Administrators select which Talos intelligence feeds to enable, choosing from categories including malware hosts, spam sources, bogon networks, Tor exit nodes, open proxies, and scanner sources. Block lists define explicitly denied IP addresses or networks from any source. Allow lists, also called whitelists, exempt trusted addresses from Security Intelligence checks preventing false positives for legitimate services that might appear on public threat feeds. DNS policy integration enables Security Intelligence for domain name lookups, blocking DNS resolution for malicious domains before connections are even attempted. Monitor-only mode logs Security Intelligence matches without blocking, useful for testing new feeds before enforcement or maintaining visibility into would-be blocked traffic for threat hunting.
The advantages of Security Intelligence include performance optimization and layered defense. By blocking known malicious traffic early in the packet processing pipeline, subsequent security features like intrusion prevention and malware scanning process less traffic, improving overall throughput. Network resources are conserved by dropping malicious traffic before it traverses access control policies or undergoes resource-intensive deep packet inspection. Proactive blocking prevents exploitation attempts from reaching vulnerable systems. Compromised internal hosts are prevented from exfiltrating data or receiving commands from known malicious infrastructure. Zero-day protection occurs when newly discovered malicious infrastructure is added to threat feeds and automatically blocked across all Firepower deployments. However, Security Intelligence requires regular feed updates to remain effective against evolving threats. Organizations should monitor Security Intelligence logs identifying frequently blocked sources that might indicate internal compromises requiring investigation and remediation. B is incorrect because intrusion prevention detects attacks through signature and anomaly-based analysis rather than threat intelligence-based blocking. C is incorrect because file policy controls malware in files rather than blocking traffic based on IP or domain reputation. D is incorrect because application control manages application usage rather than blocking known malicious infrastructure.
Question 99:
An administrator needs to configure Cisco ISE to automatically assign VLANs to wired devices based on their device type identified during profiling. Which ISE feature enables this?
A) Profiling services
B) Posture assessment
C) Guest services
D) Device administration
Answer: A
Explanation:
Profiling services in Cisco ISE automatically identify device types enabling authorization policies that assign appropriate VLANs based on device classification, making A the correct answer. Profiling provides visibility into all devices connecting to the network and enables policy enforcement customized for specific device types without requiring user authentication.
ISE profiling operates through passive and active techniques collecting device attributes from multiple sources. Passive profiling observes network traffic gathering information from protocols including DHCP, HTTP, SNMP, NetFlow, and spanning tree. DHCP profiling examines DHCP requests extracting vendor class identifiers, hostname patterns, and parameter request lists characteristic of specific device types. HTTP user-agent strings identify operating systems and browser types. SNMP queries retrieve system descriptions and OIDs. Active probing complements passive collection by sending targeted queries to devices using protocols like NMAP, DNS, and RADIUS accounting. Network device integration provides additional context with switches and wireless controllers reporting MAC addresses, CDP/LLDP information, and endpoint location data.
Collected attributes are compared against profiling policies defining device type classifications. ISE includes pre-built profiling policies for thousands of device types including workstations, servers, smartphones, tablets, IP phones, printers, cameras, medical devices, and IoT endpoints. Each profiling policy specifies conditions that must be matched for classification, such as MAC address OUI matching known manufacturers, DHCP fingerprints characteristic of specific operating systems, or HTTP user agents identifying particular device models. When devices match profiling conditions, ISE assigns endpoints to corresponding device profiles. This classification feeds into authorization policies that apply appropriate network access controls including VLAN assignments, ACL filters, or SGT tagging based on device type.
Authorization policies leverage profiling results to implement device-appropriate network segmentation. Workstations might receive corporate VLAN assignments with full network access. IP phones are automatically placed in voice VLANs ensuring QoS and access to call processing infrastructure. Printers receive segregated VLAN access preventing them from initiating outbound connections while allowing print services. IoT devices like cameras or environmental sensors are isolated in dedicated VLANs with restricted access only to management systems. Medical devices receive specialized VLAN assignments meeting healthcare compliance requirements. This automated device-type-based segmentation implements zero-trust principles where devices only access necessary resources regardless of physical connection location. Profiling also enables device inventory and compliance verification, identifying unauthorized device types, tracking device populations, and detecting policy violations like personal devices on corporate networks. B is incorrect because posture assessment evaluates security compliance rather than identifying device types. C is incorrect because guest services provide temporary access for visitors rather than device type identification. D is incorrect because device administration manages network infrastructure device access rather than endpoint device profiling.
Question 100:
Which Cisco security technology provides decryption and inspection of SSL/TLS traffic to detect malware hiding in encrypted communications?
A) SSL/TLS decryption
B) Deep packet inspection
C) Application visibility
D) URL filtering
Answer: A
Explanation:
SSL/TLS decryption enables security devices to decrypt encrypted traffic, inspect content for threats, and re-encrypt before forwarding to destinations, making A the correct answer. This capability is essential for modern security because the majority of internet traffic uses encryption, creating blind spots for security controls that cannot inspect encrypted content.
SSL/TLS decryption operates through proxy-based or inline interception techniques depending on the security platform. Proxy-based decryption positions the security device as a man-in-the-middle establishing separate SSL sessions with clients and servers. When clients initiate HTTPS connections, the security device intercepts the SSL handshake, presents a certificate signed by the organization’s certificate authority to the client, and establishes a separate SSL connection to the actual destination server. This dual-session approach enables the security device to decrypt traffic from clients, inspect plaintext content, apply security policies, and re-encrypt traffic before forwarding to destination servers. Response traffic undergoes the same decrypt-inspect-encrypt process in reverse. The security device must have a trusted certificate authority certificate installed on client devices to avoid browser warnings during interception.
Implementation requires careful configuration addressing technical, privacy, and legal considerations. Certificate authority trust distribution is typically accomplished through group policy on managed devices or mobile device management for smartphones and tablets. SSL policies define which traffic undergoes decryption based on criteria including destination categories, URL reputation, custom URL lists, and source users or groups. Privacy exemptions exclude sensitive traffic from decryption including healthcare sites, financial institutions, legal sites, and personal webmail when appropriate. Certificate pinning applications that expect specific server certificates may break during interception, requiring application-specific bypasses. Performance considerations include hardware acceleration for encryption operations and potential latency increases from decrypt-inspect-encrypt processing cycles.
The security value of SSL decryption is substantial in modern threat landscapes. Malware increasingly uses HTTPS for command and control communications and payload delivery to evade detection. Data exfiltration attempts often use encrypted channels preventing data loss prevention tools from inspecting content. Phishing sites deploy SSL certificates gaining user trust through browser security indicators while delivering credential theft attacks. Ransomware downloads encrypted payloads avoiding detection by network-based anti-malware. Without decryption capabilities, security controls cannot detect these threats hidden in encrypted traffic. However, decryption introduces privacy concerns requiring transparent communication with users about monitoring scope, clear policies about what is inspected, and compliance with privacy regulations. Organizations should document business justification for decryption, maintain appropriate legal agreements, and implement strong controls protecting decrypted data access. B is incorrect because deep packet inspection is a general inspection capability rather than the specific decryption technology. C is incorrect because application visibility identifies applications but doesn’t specifically decrypt traffic. D is incorrect because URL filtering categorizes websites without necessarily decrypting traffic content.
Question 101:
An administrator needs to configure Cisco Umbrella to block access to domains that use domain generation algorithms (DGA) commonly used by malware. Which Umbrella security feature provides this protection?
A) Predictive intelligence
B) URL filtering
C) Application control
D) File inspection
Answer: A
Explanation:
Predictive intelligence in Cisco Umbrella uses statistical models and machine learning to identify and block domains generated by domain generation algorithms before they are used in attacks, making A the correct answer. This capability provides proactive protection against malware that uses DGA to establish command and control communications, evading traditional blacklist-based security controls.
Domain generation algorithms enable malware to dynamically create large numbers of pseudo-random domain names that infected systems attempt to resolve and contact. Attackers register a small subset of these generated domains for command and control servers. Because thousands of potential domains exist and only a few are actually registered, traditional blacklisting approaches cannot effectively block DGA-based malware. By the time security researchers identify and blacklist active malicious domains, attackers have already moved to newly registered alternatives from the DGA pool. This cat-and-mouse game favors attackers because domain registration is fast and inexpensive while threat intelligence updates lag behind.
Umbrella’s predictive intelligence counters DGA threats through advanced analysis of domain characteristics and global DNS patterns. Statistical models examine domains for attributes typical of algorithmically generated names including high entropy (randomness), unusual character patterns, absence of dictionary words, excessive length, unusual top-level domain choices, and deviation from normal linguistic patterns. Machine learning classifiers trained on millions of legitimate domains and known DGA samples distinguish between human-created domains and algorithmic outputs. Umbrella’s global recursive DNS visibility provides unique intelligence about emerging domains, identifying suspicious registration patterns and early-stage malicious infrastructure before widespread attacks occur.
When DGA domains are detected, Umbrella blocks DNS resolution preventing infected devices from reaching command and control infrastructure. This disruption limits attackers’ ability to control compromised systems, receive stolen data, or distribute additional malware payloads. Organizations benefit from protection against malware families using DGA including Conficker, Cryptolocker, Zeus, and numerous banking trojans. The predictive approach provides zero-hour protection because blocking occurs based on domain characteristics rather than waiting for threat intelligence updates. Umbrella also identifies devices within the organization attempting to resolve DGA domains, providing early indicators that systems may be infected requiring investigation and remediation. Security teams receive alerts when DGA activity is detected, enabling rapid incident response to contain compromises before significant damage occurs. Integration with other security tools coordinates response actions such as isolating infected devices through ISE or triggering endpoint scans through AMP. B is incorrect because URL filtering categorizes legitimate websites rather than detecting algorithmically generated malicious domains. C is incorrect because application control manages application usage rather than analyzing domain generation patterns. D is incorrect because file inspection analyzes file content rather than DNS domains and DGA detection.
Question 102:
Which Cisco technology provides automated policy enforcement for workloads across multi-cloud environments including AWS, Azure, and private data centers?
A) Cisco Tetration
B) Cisco Stealthwatch
C) Cisco Umbrella
D) Cisco AMP
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Tetration provides automated security policy creation and enforcement across heterogeneous environments including public clouds, private data centers, and hybrid infrastructures, making A the correct answer. Tetration’s workload protection approach delivers consistent microsegmentation regardless of where applications are deployed, addressing the complexity of securing modern distributed applications.
Tetration’s multi-cloud capabilities extend its application dependency mapping and microsegmentation across diverse infrastructure platforms. Software sensors deploy on workloads running in AWS EC2 instances, Azure virtual machines, Google Cloud Platform compute instances, VMware virtual machines, bare-metal servers, and container platforms. These sensors collect comprehensive telemetry including process information, network connections, system calls, and file access patterns. The unified platform aggregates telemetry from all environments providing complete visibility into application communications across hybrid and multi-cloud deployments. This holistic view is critical for modern applications that span multiple environments, such as web tiers in public cloud connecting to database tiers in private data centers or microservices architectures distributed across multiple cloud providers.
Application workload discovery in multi-cloud environments identifies all components comprising distributed applications. Tetration automatically maps dependencies showing which services communicate, protocols used, and data flow patterns across cloud boundaries. This automated discovery eliminates manual documentation challenges in dynamic cloud environments where workloads are constantly created, modified, and destroyed. Understanding these dependencies enables several critical use cases including cloud migration planning where Tetration identifies all application components that must move together, preventing broken dependencies during lift-and-shift migrations. Hybrid cloud optimization determines which application tiers benefit from cloud deployment versus on-premises hosting based on actual communication patterns. Multi-cloud application troubleshooting identifies connectivity issues spanning cloud networks and inter-cloud links.
Microsegmentation policy enforcement leverages native security controls in each environment. In AWS, Tetration manages security group rules controlling traffic to EC2 instances. In Azure, network security groups are configured based on Tetration policy recommendations. In private data centers, policies are enforced through local firewalls, virtual switch rules, or integration with Cisco ACI. In container environments, Kubernetes network policies are generated from Tetration analysis. This multi-mechanism enforcement ensures that security policies follow workloads regardless of deployment location. Centralized policy management through Tetration console provides consistent security posture while leveraging platform-native enforcement mechanisms for performance and integration. Policy portability enables consistent security as applications migrate between environments or during disaster recovery failover. B is incorrect because Stealthwatch focuses on network traffic analysis rather than workload-centric policy enforcement across clouds. C is incorrect because Umbrella provides DNS security rather than workload microsegmentation in cloud environments. D is incorrect because AMP provides endpoint malware protection rather than multi-cloud workload segmentation.
Question 103:
An administrator needs to configure a Cisco ASA to require multi-factor authentication for VPN access. Which authentication method combination provides this capability?
A) RADIUS with token integration
B) Local database only
C) Certificate authentication only
D) LDAP authentication only
Answer: A
Explanation:
RADIUS authentication with token integration provides multi-factor authentication by combining something users know (passwords) with something they have (tokens), making A the correct answer. This authentication approach significantly enhances VPN security by requiring multiple independent credentials, protecting against credential theft, phishing attacks, and unauthorized access even if passwords are compromised.
Multi-factor authentication implementation on ASA for VPN access integrates several components working together. RADIUS servers such as Cisco ISE, Microsoft NPS, or dedicated authentication platforms like RSA SecurID or Duo receive authentication requests from ASA. Users provide their primary credentials (username and password) which RADIUS validates against directory services like Active Directory or LDAP. For the second authentication factor, users provide one-time passcodes from hardware tokens, software token applications on smartphones, SMS messages, or push notifications to mobile devices. The RADIUS server validates both factors before returning authentication success to ASA. Only when both factors are successfully verified does ASA grant VPN access, establishing encrypted tunnels and applying appropriate authorization policies.
Configuration on ASA involves several steps establishing the multi-factor authentication flow. AAA server groups configure RADIUS server connections including IP addresses, shared secrets, and timeout values. Tunnel groups for remote access VPN reference the AAA server groups for authentication. Group policies define VPN settings including address pools, split tunneling configurations, and assigned resources. When users attempt VPN connections using AnyConnect or legacy IPsec clients, they are prompted for authentication credentials. Depending on token system implementation, users might enter username, password, and token code in a single prompt, or encounter separate prompts for password followed by token verification. Challenge-response flows are supported where RADIUS challenges users for additional authentication factors after initial password validation.
The security advantages of multi-factor authentication for VPN access are substantial in modern threat environments. Password compromises through phishing, keylogging, or credential stuffing attacks cannot be used for VPN access without the second authentication factor. Even if attackers obtain passwords, they cannot generate valid token codes without physical token devices or access to users’ mobile applications. Reduced credential vulnerability decreases risk of unauthorized network access, data theft, and lateral movement following VPN compromise. Compliance requirements for remote access security are satisfied through strong authentication controls. However, implementation considerations include user experience impacts from additional authentication steps, token distribution and management overhead, account recovery processes when tokens are lost, and integration complexity with existing authentication infrastructure. Organizations should provide clear user documentation, establish support processes for token issues, and consider risk-based authentication that requires stronger factors for sensitive access while allowing simpler authentication for lower-risk scenarios. B is incorrect because local databases with passwords alone provide single-factor authentication without token integration. C is incorrect because while certificates provide strong authentication, certificate-only is still single-factor (something you have) without combining multiple factor types. D is incorrect because LDAP provides password authentication which is single-factor without token integration.
Question 104:
Which Cisco Firepower feature provides sandboxing capabilities for analyzing suspicious files in isolated environments to detect advanced malware?
A) Threat Grid integration
B) File policy
C) Network discovery
D) Security Intelligence
Answer: A
Explanation:
Threat Grid integration provides Firepower with sandboxing capabilities to analyze suspicious files in isolated virtual environments, detecting advanced malware through behavioral observation, making A the correct answer. This dynamic analysis approach identifies threats that evade traditional signature-based detection by observing actual malicious behaviors during file execution.
Threat Grid sandboxing operates as a cloud-based or on-premises service that Firepower leverages for advanced file analysis. When files traverse the Firepower device, file policies perform initial classification determining which files require detailed analysis based on file types, sizes, sources, and initial reputation checks. Files warranting deeper investigation are submitted to Threat Grid for sandbox analysis. Threat Grid executes files in secure virtual machines running various operating systems and application versions, observing all behaviors during execution including file system modifications, registry changes, network connection attempts, process creation, API calls, and system resource manipulation. This dynamic analysis reveals actual malicious intent regardless of evasion techniques like encryption, obfuscation, or anti-analysis tricks that defeat static analysis.
The analysis process generates comprehensive threat intelligence documenting observed behaviors and assigning threat scores indicating malicious confidence levels. Behavioral indicators identified during sandboxing include command and control beaconing, data exfiltration attempts, persistence mechanism establishment, privilege escalation, credential theft, encryption activity characteristic of ransomware, or exploitation of system vulnerabilities. Threat Grid correlates behaviors against known malware families, identifying which attack frameworks or toolkits were used. Network indicators including contacted IP addresses, domains, and URLs are extracted for threat intelligence feeds. Dropped files discovered during execution are recursively analyzed revealing multi-stage payloads. Detailed reports provide security analysts with complete attack documentation including screenshots, network traffic captures, and behavior timelines supporting investigation and response.
Integration between Firepower and Threat Grid enables automated security workflows. Files identified as malicious through sandbox analysis are automatically blocked across all Firepower deployments through AMP cloud intelligence. Retrospective security triggers when previously unknown files are later identified as malicious through continued analysis. Administrators configure disposition-based actions determining whether files are allowed, blocked, or held pending sandbox results. Custom detections supplement automated analysis enabling organizations to define behaviors that trigger alerts based on specific concerns. Threat intelligence sharing improves collective defense where discoveries by one organization benefit all Firepower customers through updated cloud intelligence. However, sandboxing introduces latency because analysis requires time ranging from minutes for basic files to longer periods for complex samples. Organizations balance security and user experience through policies determining which files justify sandboxing delays versus allowing with retrospective analysis. B is incorrect because file policy defines which files are inspected and actions taken but does not provide the actual sandboxing capability. C is incorrect because network discovery identifies hosts and applications on the network rather than analyzing file samples. D is incorrect because Security Intelligence blocks known malicious IP addresses and domains but does not provide file sandboxing for behavior analysis.
Question 105:
An administrator needs to configure Cisco ISE to provide different network access for corporate-owned devices versus personal devices. Which ISE feature enables this differentiation?
A) Device registration and profiling
B) Guest services
C) Posture assessment
D) Network access control
Answer: A
Explanation:
Device registration and profiling in Cisco ISE enables differentiation between corporate-owned and personal devices, allowing authorization policies that provide appropriate network access based on device ownership, making A the correct answer. This capability is essential for BYOD environments where organizations must balance employee productivity with security requirements, providing personal devices with limited access while granting corporate devices full network privileges.
Device registration establishes device ownership and management status within ISE. Corporate-owned devices are typically pre-registered in ISE through integration with asset management systems, MDM platforms, or manual administrative enrollment. Registration records include device identifiers such as MAC addresses, serial numbers, and certificates, along with ownership attributes indicating corporate or personal status. Personal devices undergo self-registration through BYOD portals where employees authenticate using corporate credentials and enroll their devices. During enrollment, ISE can optionally install certificates on devices for future authentication, provision configuration profiles enabling proper network access, or install mobile device management agents for compliance verification. The registration process associates devices with user identities and ownership classifications enabling subsequent policy decisions.
Profiling complements registration by automatically identifying device types regardless of ownership. ISE collects device attributes from network traffic, RADIUS accounting, SNMP, NetFlow, and active probing. These attributes are matched against profiling policies classifying devices into categories like smartphones, tablets, laptops, desktops, or specialized devices. Combining profiling classification with registration ownership creates powerful policy conditions. Authorization policies reference both device type and ownership status, applying appropriate access controls. For example, corporate-owned laptops might receive full network access, personal laptops get restricted access excluding sensitive servers, corporate smartphones access email and collaboration tools, and personal smartphones receive internet-only access with corporate resource restrictions.
The implementation enables several BYOD security scenarios. Network segmentation places personal devices in isolated VLANs or applies ACL filters limiting access to corporate resources. Corporate applications remain accessible to personal devices through published services while blocking direct server access. Data protection prevents personal devices from accessing file servers containing sensitive intellectual property. Compliance requirements are enforced where corporate devices must meet security standards while personal devices have relaxed requirements. User experience is optimized by providing appropriate access based on device characteristics rather than overly restrictive policies that frustrate employees or overly permissive policies that create security risks. Device lifecycle management tracks devices from registration through deprovisioning when employees leave or devices are retired. Integration with MDM solutions enhances security by verifying that personal devices have required security controls before granting network access. B is incorrect because guest services provide temporary access for visitors rather than differentiating corporate versus personal employee devices. C is incorrect because posture assessment evaluates security compliance rather than determining device ownership. D is incorrect because network access control is the general framework within which device differentiation occurs rather than the specific feature enabling ownership-based policy.