Cisco 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 6 Q 76-90
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Question 76:
What is the primary function of Cisco Umbrella?
A) To provide physical firewall protection at the network perimeter
B) To deliver cloud-based secure internet gateway and DNS-layer security
C) To manage wireless access point configurations
D) To monitor server performance metrics
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cisco Umbrella represents a fundamental shift in how organizations approach network security by moving protection to the cloud and leveraging DNS as the first line of defense. Traditional security architectures relied on on-premises appliances that inspect traffic at the network perimeter, but modern threats and distributed workforces require security that follows users regardless of location. Umbrella provides cloud-delivered security that protects users whether they’re in the office, at home, or traveling, without requiring traffic to backhaul through corporate data centers.
The primary function of Cisco Umbrella is to deliver cloud-based secure internet gateway and DNS-layer security. Umbrella operates by becoming the DNS resolver for protected devices, inspecting every DNS query before resolving domain names to IP addresses. This DNS-layer inspection provides the earliest possible point to block threats because DNS resolution is the first step in establishing any Internet connection. When users attempt to access malicious domains hosting phishing sites, malware, ransomware, or command-and-control servers, Umbrella blocks the DNS resolution preventing the connection from ever being established.
Umbrella’s cloud architecture provides comprehensive security functions beyond DNS filtering. Secure Web Gateway capabilities inspect HTTP and HTTPS traffic using cloud-based proxies, blocking access to risky websites, enforcing acceptable use policies, and scanning downloads for malware. Cloud Access Security Broker functionality provides visibility and control over sanctioned and unsanctioned cloud applications, preventing data leakage and ensuring compliance with security policies. Threat intelligence integration leverages Cisco Talos research and global visibility across billions of DNS requests daily to identify and block emerging threats rapidly.
DNS-layer security offers unique advantages for threat prevention. Because DNS happens before connections are established, blocking at the DNS layer prevents malware from ever communicating with command-and-control infrastructure, stops phishing attacks before users can enter credentials, blocks access to malicious sites hosting exploit kits, and prevents data exfiltration to attacker-controlled domains. The lightweight nature of DNS allows Umbrella to protect devices with minimal performance impact and without requiring complex VPN configurations for remote users.
Umbrella deployment is remarkably simple compared to traditional security solutions. Organizations configure their DNS settings to point to Umbrella’s resolvers, either through DHCP for internal networks, endpoint agents for roaming laptops, or virtual appliances for branch offices. No hardware installation or complex configuration is required, enabling rapid deployment across entire organizations. Umbrella’s cloud architecture means security policies, threat intelligence updates, and new features are delivered automatically without appliance updates or maintenance windows.
A) is incorrect because providing physical firewall protection at the network perimeter is the function of traditional firewall appliances, not Umbrella’s cloud-based DNS security approach.
B) is correct because delivering cloud-based secure internet gateway and DNS-layer security is indeed the primary function of Cisco Umbrella, providing protection through DNS inspection and cloud proxies.
C) is incorrect because managing wireless access point configurations is handled by wireless LAN controllers and management platforms, not by Umbrella’s security services.
D) is incorrect because monitoring server performance metrics is the function of application performance monitoring or infrastructure monitoring tools, not Umbrella’s security focus.
Question 77:
Which protocol does Cisco TrustSec use to propagate security group tags?
A) RADIUS
B) TACACS+
C) SXP (SGT Exchange Protocol)
D) SNMP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Traditional network security relies on IP addresses to define security policies, but IP addresses are poor identifiers for modern dynamic networks where devices move between networks, obtain addresses dynamically through DHCP, and may be assigned different addresses over time. IP-based policies become complex and brittle, requiring constant updates as the network changes. Cisco TrustSec revolutionizes network security by using security group tags that identify users, devices, and resources based on their roles and security posture rather than their network location or IP address.
The protocol Cisco TrustSec uses to propagate security group tags is SXP, the SGT Exchange Protocol. SXP enables network devices that don’t natively support inline SGT tagging to participate in TrustSec by providing a mechanism to learn IP-to-SGT bindings from other devices. When TrustSec-capable switches and access points tag traffic with SGTs inline using 802.1AE MACsec or other methods, devices further in the network path need to understand which SGT corresponds to which IP addresses to enforce security policies. SXP creates peer relationships between network devices and exchanges these IP-to-SGT mappings.
SXP operates in a speaker-listener model where speaker devices share their IP-to-SGT binding information with listener devices. Speakers are typically access layer switches or ISE policy service nodes that have authoritative knowledge of which users or devices received which SGTs during authentication and authorization. Listeners are typically firewalls, routers, or distribution layer switches that need SGT information to enforce security policies but may not have direct access to authentication information. SXP connections use TCP for reliable delivery of binding information.
The SXP protocol provides several important capabilities for TrustSec deployment. Binding propagation ensures SGT assignments flow through the network even when not all devices support inline tagging, enabling incremental TrustSec adoption. Scalability is achieved through hierarchical SXP designs where access switches speak to distribution switches which speak to firewalls, avoiding full mesh connectivity. Security is maintained through password authentication on SXP connections and optional IP-to-SGT binding filtering. Hold-down timers prevent rapid binding changes from causing instability.
TrustSec with SXP enables powerful security policies that follow users and devices regardless of location. Security policies can permit marketing users to access marketing servers while blocking access to finance servers, regardless of which office or network segment users connect from. Quarantine policies can apply different restrictions to devices that fail security posture assessments. Guest access policies can provide limited Internet access while preventing access to internal resources. These policies are defined based on security group membership rather than IP addresses, remaining valid as network topology changes.
A) is incorrect because RADIUS is used for authentication, authorization, and accounting, and while it’s used in TrustSec to assign initial SGTs during authentication, it doesn’t propagate SGT information between network devices.
B) is incorrect because TACACS+ provides device administration authentication and authorization for network equipment management, not SGT propagation.
C) is correct because SXP, the SGT Exchange Protocol, is indeed the protocol TrustSec uses to propagate security group tags between network devices.
D) is incorrect because SNMP is used for network device monitoring and management, not for propagating security group tag information.
Question 78:
What is the purpose of DNSSEC (DNS Security Extensions)?
A) To encrypt DNS queries for privacy
B) To authenticate DNS responses and ensure data integrity
C) To increase DNS query performance
D) To provide backup DNS resolution
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Domain Name System forms the foundation of Internet navigation, translating human-readable domain names into IP addresses that computers use for communication. However, DNS was designed in the early Internet era when security wasn’t a primary concern, and the protocol lacks authentication mechanisms to verify that DNS responses actually come from authoritative sources. This vulnerability enables DNS spoofing and cache poisoning attacks where attackers inject false DNS information, redirecting users to malicious sites even when they type correct domain names.
The purpose of DNSSEC is to authenticate DNS responses and ensure data integrity. DNSSEC adds cryptographic signatures to DNS records, enabling resolvers to verify that DNS responses are authentic and haven’t been modified in transit. When a domain owner implements DNSSEC, they sign their DNS records with private keys, and resolvers use corresponding public keys to verify these signatures. This chain of trust extends from the DNS root zone through top-level domains down to individual domain names, providing end-to-end authentication of DNS data.
DNSSEC operation involves several key components working together. Zone signing creates digital signatures for DNS records using private keys held by domain administrators. Public key distribution makes corresponding public keys available through DNS itself using DNSKEY records. Chain of trust establishment links each zone to its parent zone through DS records, creating an unbroken chain from root to leaf. Signature verification by resolvers checks that signatures are valid and that the signing keys are properly authenticated through the chain of trust.
The DNSSEC validation process protects against specific threats. DNS spoofing attacks where attackers send false DNS responses are defeated because forged responses lack valid signatures. Cache poisoning attacks where attackers inject false records into resolver caches are prevented because invalid signatures cause resolvers to reject the data. Man-in-the-middle attacks where attackers intercept and modify DNS traffic are detected through signature verification. These protections ensure users reach legitimate websites rather than attacker-controlled imposters.
However, DNSSEC has important limitations that must be understood. It does not encrypt DNS queries or responses, so DNS traffic remains visible to network observers. Privacy protection requires additional technologies like DNS-over-HTTPS or DNS-over-TLS. DNSSEC doesn’t prevent DDoS attacks against DNS infrastructure, though it can increase the volume of DNS traffic due to larger response sizes. Deployment complexity including key management, signature generation, and configuration of the chain of trust has slowed DNSSEC adoption. Validation failures can make domains inaccessible if DNSSEC is misconfigured, requiring careful implementation and monitoring.
A) is incorrect because encrypting DNS queries for privacy is the function of DNS-over-HTTPS or DNS-over-TLS, not DNSSEC. DNSSEC provides authentication and integrity, not confidentiality.
B) is correct because authenticating DNS responses and ensuring data integrity is indeed the purpose of DNSSEC, using cryptographic signatures to verify DNS data authenticity.
C) is incorrect because increasing DNS query performance is not DNSSEC’s purpose. In fact, DNSSEC increases DNS traffic size and processing overhead slightly due to signatures and validation.
D) is incorrect because providing backup DNS resolution is accomplished through multiple DNS servers and anycast routing, not through DNSSEC’s authentication mechanisms.
Question 79:
Which Cisco security technology provides network visibility and segmentation based on user and device identity?
A) Cisco ASA Firewall
B) Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE)
C) Cisco Email Security Appliance
D) Cisco Web Security Appliance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Modern network security must address the reality that perimeter-based defenses alone are insufficient when users work from anywhere, personal devices access corporate resources, IoT devices proliferate, and threats originate both externally and internally. Effective security requires understanding who and what is on the network, their security posture, and their appropriate access rights. Identity-based security policies enable granular control that adapts to user context, device type, location, and security compliance rather than relying solely on network location or IP addresses.
The Cisco security technology that provides network visibility and segmentation based on user and device identity is Cisco Identity Services Engine. ISE serves as the centralized policy engine for identity-based network access control, gathering contextual information about users and devices, evaluating them against security policies, and enforcing appropriate access controls throughout the network infrastructure. ISE integrates with network infrastructure including switches, wireless controllers, VPN concentrators, and firewalls to enforce consistent policies regardless of how users connect.
ISE provides comprehensive network access control through multiple capabilities. Authentication services verify user identities using various methods including 802.1X for wired and wireless networks, MAC authentication bypass for devices that don’t support 802.1X, and web authentication for guest access. Authorization assigns network access policies based on user role, device type, security posture, time of day, and location. Profiling automatically identifies and classifies devices connecting to the network, distinguishing between laptops, smartphones, printers, IP phones, medical devices, and IoT systems. Posture assessment evaluates endpoint security compliance checking for antivirus installation, patch levels, and security configurations before granting network access.
Network segmentation through ISE enables micro-segmentation strategies that dramatically reduce attack surfaces. TrustSec integration assigns security group tags to users and devices, enabling role-based access control throughout the network without complex VLAN designs. Dynamic VLAN assignment places users in appropriate network segments based on their authentication results. Downloadable ACLs provide customized access control lists per user or device, implementing precise access restrictions. Guest network isolation creates separate networks for visitors with limited access and automatic expiration.
ISE’s visibility capabilities provide unprecedented insight into network activity. Endpoint visibility shows all devices connected to the network with detailed attributes and behavior information. User tracking correlates network activity to specific individuals for security investigations and compliance reporting. Context-aware policies leverage information from Active Directory, HR systems, vulnerability scanners, threat intelligence feeds, and other sources to make access decisions. Integration with security ecosystem partners enables coordinated response to threats, such as automatically quarantining compromised devices identified by advanced malware protection systems.
A) is incorrect because Cisco ASA Firewall provides network perimeter security and VPN services based primarily on IP addresses and ports, not identity-based visibility and segmentation.
B) is correct because Cisco Identity Services Engine indeed provides network visibility and segmentation based on user and device identity, serving as the centralized policy engine for identity-based access control.
C) is incorrect because Cisco Email Security Appliance protects against email-based threats like spam, phishing, and malware, not network visibility and segmentation.
D) is incorrect because Cisco Web Security Appliance provides web proxy and URL filtering services, not comprehensive network visibility and identity-based segmentation.
Question 80:
What is the primary purpose of implementing certificate pinning in mobile applications?
A) To improve application performance
B) To prevent man-in-the-middle attacks by validating specific certificates
C) To reduce mobile data usage
D) To enable offline application functionality
Answer: B
Explanation:
Mobile applications frequently handle sensitive information including authentication credentials, financial data, personal information, and corporate data. These applications communicate with backend servers over networks that may be untrusted, such as public Wi-Fi hotspots where attackers can intercept traffic. While TLS encryption protects data in transit, the standard certificate validation process has vulnerabilities that sophisticated attackers can exploit through man-in-the-middle attacks using rogue certificates from compromised certificate authorities or user-installed root certificates.
The primary purpose of implementing certificate pinning in mobile applications is to prevent man-in-the-middle attacks by validating specific certificates. Certificate pinning enhances TLS security by having the application explicitly trust only specific certificates or public keys rather than trusting any certificate signed by a trusted certificate authority. When the application connects to the server, it compares the server’s certificate or public key against the pinned values embedded in the application. If the certificate doesn’t match the pinned value, the connection is refused even if the certificate is otherwise valid and signed by a trusted CA.
Certificate pinning protects against several attack scenarios that standard certificate validation doesn’t address. Compromised certificate authorities that issue fraudulent certificates to attackers cannot be used for MITM attacks because the application won’t trust certificates that don’t match the pin. User-installed root certificates that enable corporate or malicious proxy inspection are detected because proxy certificates don’t match the pinned server certificate. DNS hijacking combined with valid certificates for attacker-controlled domains fails because the certificate doesn’t match the expected pin. These protections are particularly valuable for high-security applications handling sensitive transactions.
Implementation approaches vary in specificity and flexibility. Certificate pinning validates the entire certificate, providing strongest security but requiring application updates whenever certificates are renewed. Public key pinning validates only the public key portion, allowing certificate renewal without application changes as long as the key pair remains the same. Intermediate certificate pinning or root certificate pinning provides more flexibility but reduces protection by trusting a broader set of certificates. Backup pins should be included so applications continue functioning if primary certificates need emergency replacement.
Certificate pinning introduces operational considerations that must be managed carefully. Certificate renewal coordination requires planning to update applications or rotate to backup pins before certificates expire, preventing service disruptions. Emergency certificate replacement becomes more complex when applications have hardcoded pins, potentially requiring emergency application updates. Pin update mechanisms in applications enable changing pins without full application updates through configuration files or remote updates. Testing must verify that pinning is properly implemented and that backup pins function correctly before they’re needed in emergencies.
A) is incorrect because improving application performance is not the purpose of certificate pinning. Pinning adds a small amount of validation overhead and doesn’t affect performance significantly.
B) is correct because preventing man-in-the-middle attacks by validating specific certificates is indeed the primary purpose of certificate pinning, providing enhanced TLS security beyond standard validation.
C) is incorrect because reducing mobile data usage is addressed through data compression, caching, and efficient protocols, not through certificate pinning which is a security mechanism.
D) is incorrect because enabling offline application functionality is achieved through local data storage and offline-capable application design, not through certificate pinning which validates server connections.
Question 81:
Which attack vector does HTTPS inspection (SSL/TLS inspection) help mitigate?
A) Physical security breaches
B) Malware and threats hidden in encrypted traffic
C) Power supply failures
D) Social engineering attacks via phone calls
Answer: B
Explanation:
The widespread adoption of encryption through HTTPS has dramatically improved privacy and security for Internet communications, protecting sensitive data from eavesdropping as it traverses networks. However, this encryption creates a significant challenge for security devices because they cannot inspect encrypted content for threats. Research shows that the majority of web traffic is now encrypted, and attackers increasingly use encryption to hide malware, command-and-control communications, and data exfiltration. Without the ability to inspect encrypted traffic, security controls become blind to a large percentage of potential threats.
The attack vector that HTTPS inspection helps mitigate is malware and threats hidden in encrypted traffic. HTTPS inspection, also called SSL/TLS inspection or decryption, enables security devices to decrypt, inspect, and re-encrypt HTTPS traffic flowing through the network. This inspection capability allows security systems including firewalls, intrusion prevention systems, web filters, and data loss prevention tools to examine the actual content of encrypted sessions for threats, policy violations, and sensitive data that would otherwise be invisible inside the encrypted tunnel.
HTTPS inspection operates through several technical approaches. Forward proxy inspection for outbound traffic creates a man-in-the-middle where the security device terminates the client’s HTTPS connection, inspects the decrypted content, and establishes a separate HTTPS connection to the destination server. The security device presents certificates to clients signed by a certificate authority that must be trusted by client systems. Reverse proxy inspection for inbound traffic protecting internal servers terminates external HTTPS connections, inspects traffic, and forwards it to backend servers. Transparent inspection methods integrate with network routing to intercept and decrypt traffic without explicit proxy configuration.
The security benefits of HTTPS inspection are substantial for modern threat environments. Malware detection capabilities can scan encrypted downloads for viruses, ransomware, and other malicious code before it reaches endpoints. Data loss prevention examines outbound encrypted traffic for sensitive information like credit card numbers, social security numbers, or confidential documents preventing data exfiltration. Web filtering enforces acceptable use policies by inspecting encrypted web traffic for prohibited content categories. Advanced threat protection identifies command-and-control communications, callback traffic from compromised systems, and exploit delivery through encrypted channels. Compliance requirements for industries like finance and healthcare often mandate inspection of encrypted traffic to detect and prevent data breaches.
However, HTTPS inspection introduces significant privacy, performance, and operational considerations. Privacy concerns arise because inspection requires decrypting traffic that users expect to be confidential, requiring clear policies and user notification. Performance impact occurs because encryption and decryption operations are computationally expensive, requiring dedicated hardware acceleration for high-traffic environments. Certificate management becomes complex requiring deployment of inspection CA certificates to all client systems through group policy or mobile device management. Compatibility issues occur with certificate pinning, mutual authentication, and certain applications that detect and reject MITM proxies. Some organizations create exemption lists for financial sites, healthcare portals, or other sensitive destinations where inspection creates excessive privacy or compatibility concerns.
A) is incorrect because physical security breaches involving unauthorized access to facilities are addressed through physical access controls like badges, locks, and guards, not through HTTPS inspection.
B) is correct because malware and threats hidden in encrypted traffic is indeed the attack vector that HTTPS inspection helps mitigate, enabling security devices to examine encrypted content for threats.
C) is incorrect because power supply failures are addressed through redundant power systems, UPS devices, and generators, not through HTTPS inspection which is a security capability.
D) is incorrect because social engineering attacks via phone calls are addressed through user awareness training and call verification procedures, not through HTTPS inspection of network traffic.
Question 82:
What is the primary function of Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD)?
A) To provide wireless network management
B) To deliver next-generation firewall and IPS capabilities in a single platform
C) To manage email security
D) To provide VoIP call management
Answer: B
Explanation:
Network security has evolved beyond simple packet filtering to address sophisticated threats that exploit applications, evade detection through encryption, and persist within networks after initial compromise. Traditional firewalls that make decisions based solely on IP addresses, ports, and protocols cannot detect modern attacks that use allowed protocols and ports while carrying malicious payloads. Organizations need integrated security platforms that combine multiple security functions with coordinated threat intelligence and unified management to defend against complex, multi-stage attacks.
The primary function of Cisco Firepower Threat Defense is to deliver next-generation firewall and IPS capabilities in a single platform. FTD combines traditional stateful firewall functionality with next-generation features including deep packet inspection, application visibility and control, intrusion prevention, URL filtering, advanced malware protection, and SSL decryption. This unified threat management approach provides comprehensive security through a single platform rather than requiring multiple point products, simplifying deployment, management, and policy coordination while improving detection through correlated threat intelligence.
Firepower Threat Defense architecture integrates multiple security technologies that work together for defense in depth. The stateful firewall engine controls traffic flow based on security zones, IP addresses, ports, and connection state. Application visibility and control identifies applications regardless of port or protocol, enabling policies based on actual applications rather than just network parameters. Intrusion prevention examines traffic for attack signatures and protocol anomalies, blocking exploit attempts before they compromise systems. URL filtering controls web access based on categories, reputation, and custom policies. Advanced malware protection detects known and unknown malware through signature matching, behavioral analysis, and sandboxing.
The integrated approach provides security advantages that separate point products cannot match. Correlated analysis combines information from different security engines to detect sophisticated attacks that individual engines might miss. For example, IPS detecting reconnaissance activity combined with firewall seeing unusual outbound connections can identify command-and-control communications. Policy consistency across security functions ensures that application control, IPS, and malware protection work together with aligned policies rather than operating independently with potential gaps or conflicts. Simplified management through a single interface reduces complexity and the potential for configuration errors compared to managing multiple separate security systems.
FTD deployment flexibility accommodates various network architectures and security requirements. Hardware appliances provide purpose-built platforms optimized for security workloads with high throughput and low latency. Virtual appliances enable deployment in virtualized data centers and cloud environments with elastic scaling. Cloud-delivered services extend FTD capabilities to remote offices and mobile users without requiring local appliances. The Firepower Management Center provides centralized policy management, event correlation, and reporting across distributed FTD deployments, enabling consistent security policies and coordinated threat response.
Integration with Cisco security ecosystem enhances FTD effectiveness. Threat intelligence from Cisco Talos continuously updates signatures and detection rules based on global visibility into threat activity. Identity integration with Cisco ISE enables user and device-aware policies that adapt security based on who is accessing resources. Stealthwatch integration provides network behavior analytics identifying anomalies and threats through traffic analysis. AMP for Endpoints shares threat intelligence about compromised devices enabling network quarantine. SecureX orchestration coordinates response across the security infrastructure when threats are detected.
A) is incorrect because providing wireless network management is the function of wireless LAN controllers and management platforms, not Firepower Threat Defense which focuses on network security.
B) is correct because delivering next-generation firewall and IPS capabilities in a single platform is indeed the primary function of Cisco Firepower Threat Defense, providing integrated security services.
C) is incorrect because managing email security is the function of email security appliances or cloud email security services, not FTD which focuses on network traffic security.
D) is incorrect because providing VoIP call management is the function of unified communications systems and call managers, not Firepower Threat Defense which provides network security.
Question 83:
Which security principle does the principle of least privilege support?
A) Granting users maximum permissions to improve productivity
B) Providing users only the minimum access required to perform their job functions
C) Allowing all users administrative access
D) Disabling all user accounts by default
Answer: B
Explanation:
Security breaches often succeed because attackers exploit excessive privileges that users don’t actually need for their work. When every user has administrative access or broad permissions, any compromised account provides attackers with powerful capabilities to access sensitive data, install malware, modify systems, and move laterally through the network. Insider threats whether malicious insiders or negligent users with excessive permissions represent significant risks. The principle of least privilege is a fundamental security concept that addresses these risks by strictly limiting access rights.
The security principle that the principle of least privilege supports is providing users only the minimum access required to perform their job functions. Least privilege means that every user account, application, and system component should have only the specific permissions necessary to accomplish its legitimate purpose and nothing more. A user who only needs to read customer data should not have permissions to modify or delete it. An application that only needs database read access should not have write or administrative database privileges. A service account running automated processes should only have permissions for those specific tasks.
Implementing least privilege provides multiple security benefits. Attack surface reduction limits what attackers can do even if they compromise an account or system. A compromised user account with read-only permissions cannot be used to delete databases or encrypt files for ransomware. Lateral movement prevention restricts attackers’ ability to use compromised low-privilege accounts to access high-value systems that should only be accessible to administrators. Accidental damage mitigation reduces the impact of user errors when users lack permissions to accidentally delete critical data or misconfigure important systems. Compliance requirements for standards like PCI-DSS, HIPAA, and SOX often mandate least privilege access controls.
Practical least privilege implementation requires systematic approaches. Role-based access control defines roles representing job functions and assigns permissions to roles rather than individual users, ensuring consistent permission sets for similar positions. Just-in-time access grants elevated privileges only when needed for specific tasks and automatically revokes them afterward. Privileged access management systems control, monitor, and audit administrative access using dedicated credentials that are checked out for specific purposes. Regular access reviews periodically verify that users still require their current permissions and remove access that’s no longer needed. Separation of duties requires multiple people to cooperate for sensitive operations, preventing any single individual from having complete control.
Least privilege extends beyond user accounts to system-level security. Application permissions should be limited so applications can only access specific files, network resources, and system functions needed for their operation. Service accounts running background processes should have minimal privileges rather than administrative rights. Container and microservice security applies least privilege by limiting what each component can access. Cloud resource permissions should follow least privilege by granting only specific actions on specific resources rather than broad administrative access.
Challenges in maintaining least privilege include initial overhead to define appropriate permission levels for each role, ongoing management as job functions and applications evolve, user resistance when limited permissions occasionally prevent legitimate actions requiring exception requests, and complexity in large organizations with thousands of users and resources. Automation through identity governance tools, clear processes for requesting additional access, and executive support for security policies help overcome these challenges.
A) is incorrect because granting users maximum permissions to improve productivity violates least privilege and creates security risks by providing access that exceeds legitimate needs.
B) is correct because providing users only the minimum access required to perform their job functions is indeed what the principle of least privilege supports, limiting permissions to necessary levels.
C) is incorrect because allowing all users administrative access is the opposite of least privilege and creates severe security vulnerabilities by providing excessive permissions unnecessarily.
D) is incorrect because disabling all user accounts by default would prevent legitimate work and is not what least privilege means. Least privilege grants necessary access but no more.
Question 84:
What is the primary purpose of using security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR) platforms?
A) To replace all security analysts with automated systems
B) To automate repetitive security tasks and coordinate incident response workflows
C) To eliminate the need for security monitoring
D) To provide antivirus protection for endpoints
Answer: B
Explanation:
Modern security operations centers face overwhelming challenges including alert fatigue from thousands of daily security alerts, most of which are false positives, skilled analyst shortages as demand for security professionals far exceeds supply, manual processes that waste analyst time on repetitive tasks, and fragmented tools where security information resides in dozens of separate systems. These challenges result in slow incident response, missed threats, and inefficient use of limited security resources. SOAR platforms address these challenges by bringing automation, orchestration, and standardization to security operations.
The primary purpose of using SOAR platforms is to automate repetitive security tasks and coordinate incident response workflows. SOAR platforms integrate with existing security tools including SIEM systems, threat intelligence feeds, firewalls, endpoint protection, and ticketing systems, creating a unified environment where security operations can be automated and orchestrated. Repetitive tasks like enriching alerts with threat intelligence, checking indicators of compromise against multiple databases, gathering forensic data from endpoints, and updating tickets are automated through playbooks, freeing analysts to focus on complex investigations and decision-making.
SOAR capabilities span multiple dimensions of security operations improvement. Workflow orchestration coordinates actions across multiple security tools through a single interface, eliminating manual tool-switching and ensuring consistent processes. Playbooks encode security team knowledge and procedures as automated workflows that execute standardized response actions when specific conditions are met. Case management provides centralized tracking of security incidents from detection through resolution with full audit trails. Collaboration features enable security teams to share information, coordinate activities, and document decisions throughout incident handling.
The automation SOAR provides dramatically improves security operations efficiency and effectiveness. Alert triage automation immediately enriches security alerts with context from threat intelligence, asset databases, vulnerability scanners, and user directories, helping analysts quickly determine severity and priority. Initial response automation executes immediate containment actions like isolating infected endpoints, blocking malicious IP addresses in firewalls, or disabling compromised user accounts, reducing attacker dwell time. Investigation automation gathers forensic data from endpoints, queries log repositories, and checks for related indicators across the environment, providing analysts with comprehensive investigation packages. Reporting automation generates executive summaries, compliance reports, and metrics dashboards without manual compilation.
SOAR benefits extend across the security program. Mean time to response decreases from hours or days to minutes when automated playbooks execute immediate containment actions. Analyst productivity increases when automation handles repetitive tasks allowing focus on complex analysis and threat hunting. Consistency improves when standardized playbooks ensure the same procedures are followed every time regardless of which analyst is on duty. Scalability enables security teams to handle growing alert volumes without proportionally increasing staff. Knowledge preservation captures expert knowledge in playbooks that remain effective even when experienced analysts leave the organization.
Successful SOAR implementation requires thoughtful approaches. Start with high-volume, repetitive use cases like phishing response or malware containment where automation provides clear value. Develop playbooks incrementally, automating simple tasks first and adding complexity as the team gains experience. Maintain human oversight with approval gates for sensitive actions like deleting data or blocking executive access. Continuously tune automation based on false positive rates and analyst feedback. Measure success through metrics like time to containment, alerts processed per analyst, and false positive reduction.
A) is incorrect because replacing all security analysts with automated systems is not SOAR’s purpose. SOAR augments analysts by automating repetitive tasks, but human judgment remains essential for complex security decisions.
B) is correct because automating repetitive security tasks and coordinating incident response workflows is indeed the primary purpose of SOAR platforms, improving security operations efficiency and effectiveness.
C) is incorrect because eliminating the need for security monitoring is not SOAR’s purpose. SOAR enhances monitoring and response but doesn’t eliminate the need for continuous security monitoring.
D) is incorrect because providing antivirus protection for endpoints is the function of endpoint protection platforms, not SOAR which orchestrates and automates security operations across multiple tools.
Question 85:
Which type of malware disguises itself as legitimate software while performing malicious actions?
A) Virus
B) Worm
C) Trojan
D) Rootkit
Answer: C
Explanation:
Malware authors use various techniques to infect systems and evade detection, from self-replicating worms that spread automatically to stealthy rootkits that hide deep in operating systems. Understanding different malware types, their propagation methods, and their behaviors is essential for implementing appropriate defenses and responding effectively when infections occur. Each malware category has distinct characteristics that inform detection strategies and remediation approaches. Trojans represent one of the most common and effective malware types because they exploit human psychology rather than relying solely on technical vulnerabilities.
The type of malware that disguises itself as legitimate software while performing malicious actions is a Trojan, named after the ancient Greek story of the Trojan Horse. Trojans masquerade as useful, desirable, or benign applications like games, utilities, productivity tools, or software updates to trick users into installing them voluntarily. Unlike viruses or worms, Trojans don’t self-replicate or spread automatically. Instead, they rely on social engineering to convince users to download and execute them. Once activated, Trojans reveal their true malicious nature by stealing data, installing additional malware, creating backdoors for remote access, or performing other harmful actions.
Trojans come in many varieties serving different malicious purposes. Banking Trojans steal financial information by capturing online banking credentials, intercepting authentication codes, or redirecting transactions to attacker-controlled accounts. Remote access Trojans create backdoors allowing attackers to control infected systems remotely, executing commands, accessing files, and installing additional malware. Information stealing Trojans harvest credentials, documents, browser data, and other sensitive information for exfiltration. Downloader Trojans serve as first-stage malware that downloads and installs additional malicious payloads. Ransomware Trojans encrypt files and demand payment for decryption keys.
Distribution methods for Trojans exploit various attack vectors. Email attachments disguised as invoices, shipping notifications, or resumes deliver Trojans to victims who open them. Malicious websites hosting Trojans trick users into downloading fake software updates, codec installers, or security tools. Software bundling includes Trojans alongside legitimate software from untrusted sources. Social media and messaging spread Trojans through links claiming to show interesting videos or photos. Pirated software from unofficial sources often contains embedded Trojans that activate when the cracked software is run.
Defending against Trojans requires layered security controls. User education training people to recognize social engineering, verify software sources, and avoid suspicious downloads provides the first line of defense. Email security filters detect and block messages containing Trojan attachments or malicious links.
Endpoint protection with behavior-based detection identifies suspicious actions characteristic of Trojans even when signatures are unknown. Application whitelisting prevents execution of unauthorized software, blocking Trojans from running even if downloaded. Web filtering blocks access to sites known to distribute Trojans. Regular software updates patch vulnerabilities that Trojans might exploit for privilege escalation after initial infection.
A) is incorrect because viruses attach themselves to legitimate files and require user action to spread, but they don’t necessarily disguise themselves as complete legitimate applications.
B) is incorrect because worms self-replicate and spread automatically across networks exploiting vulnerabilities, rather than disguising themselves as legitimate software to trick users into installation.
C) is correct because Trojans indeed disguise themselves as legitimate software while performing malicious actions, using social engineering to gain installation rather than self-replicating.
D) is incorrect because rootkits hide malware presence and maintain persistent access by operating at low system levels, but they don’t typically disguise themselves as complete legitimate applications for initial installation.
Question 86:
What is the primary function of a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system?
A) To provide physical access control for data centers
B) To collect, analyze, and correlate security events from multiple sources
C) To encrypt data in transit
D) To manage software patch deployment
Answer: B
Explanation:
Modern enterprise networks generate millions of security-relevant events daily from firewalls, intrusion detection systems, endpoints, applications, servers, and cloud services. Without centralized collection and analysis, these events remain siloed in individual systems, making it impossible to detect sophisticated attacks that span multiple systems or to investigate incidents efficiently. Security teams would need to manually check dozens of log sources to piece together attack timelines. SIEM systems solve this challenge by providing centralized visibility, correlation, and analysis of security data across the entire infrastructure.
The primary function of a SIEM system is to collect, analyze, and correlate security events from multiple sources. SIEM platforms ingest log data and security events from across the IT environment using various collection methods including syslog for network devices, agent-based collection from endpoints and servers, API integration with cloud services, and database connections for application logs. Once collected, SIEM normalizes data from different sources into common formats, enabling correlation and analysis across heterogeneous systems despite their different native log formats.
SIEM correlation capabilities detect threats that individual security tools might miss. Rule-based correlation identifies attack patterns by matching sequences of events against known attack signatures, such as multiple failed login attempts followed by successful authentication indicating credential brute-forcing. Behavioral analytics establish baselines of normal activity and alert on deviations, detecting insider threats or compromised accounts behaving abnormally. Threat intelligence integration enriches events with context about known-malicious IP addresses, domains, and file hashes, automatically flagging interactions with confirmed threats. Machine learning models identify anomalies and previously unknown attack patterns through statistical analysis of large event volumes.
SIEM provides multiple capabilities essential for security operations. Real-time monitoring continuously analyzes incoming events, triggering alerts when suspicious activity is detected and enabling immediate response before attacks progress. Incident investigation features allow analysts to search across all collected data, build timelines of attack activity, and identify affected systems for remediation. Compliance reporting generates audit reports demonstrating adherence to regulations like PCI-DSS, HIPAA, and SOX by showing security monitoring coverage and incident response activities. Forensic analysis capabilities retain historical data enabling investigation of past incidents and identification of previously undetected breaches.
Effective SIEM implementation requires careful planning and ongoing tuning. Log source selection prioritizes critical security data sources while managing data volumes and licensing costs. Parsing and normalization rules ensure events from different sources are properly interpreted. Correlation rules must be tuned to detect real threats while minimizing false positives that create alert fatigue. Retention policies balance forensic needs with storage costs, often implementing tiered storage with different retention periods for different data types. Integration with response tools enables automated containment actions when threats are detected.
SIEM challenges include complexity of implementation and tuning requiring specialized skills, high data volumes and storage costs from ingesting logs from all sources, alert fatigue from poorly tuned correlation rules generating excessive false positives, and resource intensity of the platforms themselves requiring significant infrastructure. Modern SIEM evolution includes cloud-based SIEM reducing infrastructure requirements, user and entity behavior analytics enhancing detection capabilities, and integration with SOAR platforms automating response actions based on SIEM detections.
A) is incorrect because providing physical access control for data centers is handled by physical security systems like badge readers and locks, not SIEM which focuses on analyzing security events.
B) is correct because collecting, analyzing, and correlating security events from multiple sources is indeed the primary function of SIEM systems, providing centralized security visibility and detection.
C) is incorrect because encrypting data in transit is accomplished through protocols like TLS/SSL and VPNs, not SIEM which analyzes security events rather than encrypting communications.
D) is incorrect because managing software patch deployment is the function of patch management systems and configuration management tools, not SIEM which analyzes security events.
Question 87:
What is the purpose of implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA)?
A) To create more user accounts
B) To require users to provide multiple forms of verification to prove their identity
C) To increase password complexity requirements
D) To disable single sign-on capabilities
Answer: B
Explanation:
Passwords alone provide inadequate authentication security in modern threat environments. Credential theft through phishing, data breaches exposing password databases, keyloggers capturing passwords as they’re typed, and password reuse across multiple sites create numerous opportunities for attackers to obtain valid credentials. Studies show that compromised credentials are involved in the majority of data breaches. Even strong, unique passwords can be stolen, making additional authentication factors essential for protecting sensitive systems and data.
The purpose of implementing multi-factor authentication is to require users to provide multiple forms of verification to prove their identity. MFA combines two or more independent authentication factors from different categories: something you know like passwords or PINs, something you have like smartphones or hardware tokens, and something you are like fingerprints or facial recognition. By requiring factors from multiple categories, MFA ensures that compromising any single factor is insufficient for authentication. An attacker who steals a password still cannot authenticate without the victim’s phone for the second factor.
MFA implementations use various second-factor technologies providing different security and usability trade-offs. SMS-based codes send one-time passwords via text message providing simple deployment but vulnerability to SIM swapping attacks. Authenticator apps like Google Authenticator or Microsoft Authenticator generate time-based one-time passwords offering better security than SMS with offline operation. Push notifications send approval requests to registered mobile devices providing user-friendly authentication. Hardware tokens like YubiKeys generate or store cryptographic credentials offering highest security for critical systems. Biometric authentication using fingerprints, facial recognition, or iris scans provides convenient authentication that cannot be easily shared or stolen.
MFA dramatically improves security against common attacks. Phishing attacks that successfully steal passwords remain ineffective because attackers lack the second factor. Credential stuffing attacks using passwords from data breaches fail when MFA is enabled. Keyloggers capturing typed passwords cannot provide the physical device or biometric factor. Even sophisticated attacks that intercept one-time passwords face time constraints as codes expire quickly. Microsoft reports that MFA blocks ninety-nine point nine percent of account compromise attempts, demonstrating its effectiveness.
Organizations must balance MFA security benefits with usability considerations. Risk-based or adaptive MFA applies additional authentication requirements based on context like unfamiliar devices, unusual locations, or suspicious activity patterns, reducing friction for routine access while strengthening security for risky scenarios. Remember me options on trusted devices reduce authentication frequency without eliminating MFA protection. Self-service recovery procedures help users regain access when devices are lost without requiring help desk intervention. Clear communication and training help users understand why MFA is necessary and how to use it effectively.
MFA deployment strategies should prioritize protecting the most critical systems and accounts. Administrative accounts accessing sensitive systems should require MFA without exception. Email accounts need MFA protection as they’re often used for password reset flows making them keys to other accounts. VPN and remote access systems should enforce MFA since these connections originate from untrusted networks. Cloud applications and SaaS systems benefit from MFA as they’re accessible from anywhere on the Internet. Financial systems handling payments or sensitive financial data justify MFA requirements.
A) is incorrect because creating more user accounts is not the purpose of MFA. MFA strengthens authentication for existing accounts rather than creating additional accounts.
B) is correct because requiring users to provide multiple forms of verification to prove their identity is indeed the purpose of multi-factor authentication, adding security beyond passwords alone.
C) is incorrect because increasing password complexity requirements is a separate control that can complement MFA but is not the same thing. MFA adds additional factors beyond passwords.
D) is incorrect because disabling single sign-on is not MFA’s purpose. In fact, MFA and SSO often work together, with MFA securing the initial SSO authentication.
Question 88:
Which protocol is commonly used for secure remote access to network devices?
A) Telnet
B) HTTP
C) SSH
D) FTP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Network device management requires administrators to configure routers, switches, firewalls, and other infrastructure components remotely. This administrative access is highly privileged, allowing modification of security policies, network configurations, and critical settings. Attackers who gain administrative access to network devices can redirect traffic, disable security controls, steal sensitive data, or completely compromise network security. Therefore, securing administrative access to network infrastructure is absolutely critical, requiring authentication, encryption, and audit logging of all management activities.
The protocol commonly used for secure remote access to network devices is SSH, the Secure Shell protocol. SSH provides encrypted remote command-line access to network devices, servers, and other systems, protecting authentication credentials and session data from eavesdropping and tampering. SSH operates on TCP port twenty-two by default and uses strong cryptographic algorithms for encryption, integrity protection, and authentication. Unlike older protocols that transmit credentials and commands in cleartext, SSH ensures that all management traffic is protected from network-based attacks.
SSH provides multiple security features essential for administrative access. Encryption protects all data transmitted between the client and server including passwords, commands, and command output, preventing eavesdropping by network attackers. Authentication supports multiple methods including password-based authentication for simplicity, public key authentication for stronger security without transmitting passwords, and certificate-based authentication for enterprise-scale deployments. Integrity checking detects any tampering with transmitted data ensuring commands and responses haven’t been modified in transit. Session multiplexing allows multiple logical sessions over a single encrypted connection improving efficiency.
SSH’s public key authentication provides significant security advantages over password authentication. Users generate key pairs consisting of a private key kept secret on their client system and a public key installed on devices they need to access. Authentication proves possession of the private key without transmitting it, eliminating password theft risks. Key-based authentication enables automation of administrative tasks through scripts that authenticate without interactive password entry. Passphrases protect private keys from unauthorized use if the key file is stolen, adding a second authentication layer.
Network device SSH configuration should follow security best practices. Disable protocol version one which has known vulnerabilities, using only SSH version two which has improved security. Change the default port from twenty-two to a non-standard port to reduce automated attack attempts, though this provides only security through obscurity. Implement access control lists limiting which IP addresses can connect via SSH, restricting management access to specific administrator workstations or management networks. Use strong encryption algorithms and key exchange methods, disabling weak legacy algorithms. Enable logging of all SSH sessions for audit and forensic purposes. Implement idle timeouts to automatically disconnect inactive sessions preventing unattended access.
SSH alternatives for specific scenarios include console access via serial ports providing emergency access when network connectivity fails, HTTPS-based management interfaces providing graphical configuration for devices supporting web UIs, and out-of-band management networks providing separate dedicated connectivity for administrative access independent of production networks. However, SSH remains the standard for command-line remote management due to its strong security and universal support across network devices.
A) is incorrect because Telnet transmits all data including passwords in cleartext without encryption, making it insecure for administrative access despite being a remote access protocol.
B) is incorrect because HTTP transmits data unencrypted including potentially management credentials, though HTTPS provides encrypted web-based management as an alternative to SSH for some devices.
C) is correct because SSH is indeed the protocol commonly used for secure remote access to network devices, providing encrypted command-line management with strong authentication.
D) is incorrect because FTP is a file transfer protocol that, in its basic form, transmits credentials in cleartext and is not designed for remote device management like SSH.
Question 89:
What is the primary purpose of implementing network access control (NAC)?
A) To provide wireless signal strength
B) To enforce security policies by controlling which devices can connect to the network
C) To increase network bandwidth
D) To manage VLAN configurations
Answer: B
Explanation:
Traditional network security assumed that devices connecting to internal networks could be trusted, focusing security efforts on the network perimeter to keep threats outside. This assumption no longer holds when employee-owned devices, contractor laptops, IoT devices, and potentially compromised systems connect to corporate networks. Any device connected to the network can become an attack vector whether through malware infection, lack of security updates, or malicious user intent. Network Access Control addresses this challenge by evaluating devices before granting network access and enforcing policies that adapt to device compliance status.
The primary purpose of implementing network access control is to enforce security policies by controlling which devices can connect to the network. NAC systems authenticate users and devices attempting network connection, assess their security posture against defined policies, authorize appropriate network access based on authentication results and compliance status, and continuously monitor device compliance potentially modifying access if status changes. This ensures that only known, authenticated, and compliant devices gain network access, and that compromised or non-compliant devices are quarantined or restricted regardless of physical connection location.
NAC implementations evaluate multiple factors when making access decisions. User authentication verifies identity through credentials proving that authorized users are operating devices. Device authentication confirms that specific authorized devices are connecting rather than unauthorized personal devices or rogue systems. Posture assessment checks security compliance including antivirus status and definitions currency, operating system patch levels, firewall enablement, encryption configuration, and unauthorized software presence. Role-based policies assign different access levels based on user roles, with executives having broader access than guests. Location awareness adapts policies based on whether devices connect from corporate offices, remote locations, or guest networks.
NAC enforcement mechanisms control network access using various technical approaches. Port-based enforcement using 802.1X authentication on switches requires authentication before allowing network traffic from a physical port, blocking unauthenticated devices at Layer two. DHCP enforcement prevents DHCP servers from assigning IP addresses to non-compliant devices, effectively blocking network access without valid network configuration. Firewall enforcement redirects unauthenticated users to captive portals or applies restrictive firewall rules until authentication succeeds. VLAN assignment places devices in appropriate network segments based on their authentication and compliance status, with compliant corporate devices in production VLANs and guests in isolated networks.
NAC provides security and operational benefits beyond basic access control. Automated quarantine isolates non-compliant or infected devices preventing malware spread while allowing remediation access to patch management and antivirus update servers. Guest network automation provides temporary network access for visitors with automatic expiration and appropriate restrictions. Device visibility creates comprehensive inventories of all devices connecting to the network including type, ownership, and behavior. Compliance reporting demonstrates adherence to security policies for audit and regulatory purposes. Incident response integration enables automatic quarantine of compromised devices identified by security tools.
NAC challenges include complexity of deployment across heterogeneous environments with various device types, user resistance to compliance requirements and remediation processes, support overhead for handling authentication failures and compliance issues, and compatibility with devices that don’t support advanced authentication methods like 802.1X. Successful NAC implementation requires phased rollout starting with pilot groups, clear communication about requirements and benefits, self-service remediation reducing help desk burden, and exception processes for devices that cannot meet standard requirements like medical equipment or legacy systems.
A) is incorrect because providing wireless signal strength is the function of wireless access points and RF engineering, not network access control which manages device authentication and authorization.
B) is correct because enforcing security policies by controlling which devices can connect to the network is indeed the primary purpose of network access control, ensuring only compliant devices gain access.
C) is incorrect because increasing network bandwidth is accomplished through faster network connections and upgraded infrastructure, not network access control which focuses on security policy enforcement.
D) is incorrect because managing VLAN configurations is a network administration task, though NAC may assign devices to VLANs based on authentication results, this is not NAC’s primary purpose.
Question 90:
Which type of attack involves an attacker intercepting communication between two parties without their knowledge?
A) Denial of Service
B) Man-in-the-Middle
C) SQL Injection
D) Cross-Site Scripting
Answer: B
Explanation:
Network communications often traverse untrusted networks where attackers can potentially observe or manipulate traffic. Users connecting to corporate resources over public Wi-Fi, Internet communications passing through multiple service providers, and even internal corporate networks where compromised systems might exist all present opportunities for traffic interception. While encryption protects communication confidentiality and integrity, attacks that intercept traffic before encryption or exploit weak encryption implementations remain serious threats. Understanding interception attacks is essential for implementing appropriate defenses.
The type of attack that involves an attacker intercepting communication between two parties without their knowledge is a man-in-the-middle attack. In MITM attacks, the attacker positions themselves between two communicating parties, intercepting, relaying, and potentially modifying messages without either party realizing that a third party is involved. Both parties believe they are communicating directly with each other when in fact their communication passes through the attacker who can read sensitive information, modify messages, or inject malicious content. This attack violates both confidentiality and integrity of communications.
MITM attacks occur through various technical methods depending on the network environment and protocols involved. ARP spoofing on local networks associates the attacker’s MAC address with the IP address of the gateway or target system, causing traffic to be sent to the attacker’s system which forwards it to the legitimate destination. DNS spoofing returns false DNS responses directing victims to attacker-controlled systems instead of legitimate servers. Rogue Wi-Fi access points with names similar to legitimate networks trick users into connecting through attacker-controlled infrastructure. SSL stripping downgrades HTTPS connections to HTTP by intercepting the initial connection and maintaining separate encrypted and unencrypted connections. BGP hijacking redirects Internet traffic through attacker-controlled networks by announcing false routing information.
The impact of successful MITM attacks can be severe across multiple dimensions. Credential theft occurs when attackers capture usernames and passwords submitted over intercepted connections. Session hijacking steals authentication tokens allowing attackers to impersonate victims without knowing passwords. Data theft exposes sensitive information transmitted during the intercepted session including personal data, financial information, or trade secrets. Communication manipulation enables attackers to modify messages, alter transaction details, or inject malicious content into legitimate traffic. Malware injection adds malicious code to software downloads or web pages delivered to victims.
Defending against MITM attacks requires layered security controls. Encryption through TLS/SSL for web traffic, VPNs for network communications, and encrypted email ensures that intercepted traffic cannot be read or modified even if attackers position themselves in the communication path. Certificate validation verifies that servers present legitimate certificates signed by trusted authorities, detecting impersonation attempts. Certificate pinning in applications validates specific certificates or public keys preventing acceptance of fraudulent certificates. Mutual authentication requires both parties to authenticate to each other, detecting MITM attackers who cannot authenticate as both parties. DNSSEC prevents DNS spoofing by cryptographically validating DNS responses. Network security monitoring detects suspicious ARP traffic, DNS anomalies, and unusual routing patterns indicating potential MITM attacks.
User awareness helps prevent MITM attacks by teaching users to verify secure connections through address bar indicators, avoid untrusted Wi-Fi networks or use VPNs when necessary, not ignore certificate warnings which might indicate MITM attacks, and recognize suspicious authentication requests or unusual system behavior. Organizations should implement comprehensive encryption policies, deploy monitoring to detect MITM attack indicators, and maintain updated certificate infrastructure with proper certificate validation procedures.
A) is incorrect because Denial of Service attacks overwhelm systems with traffic or requests making them unavailable, but they don’t involve intercepting communications between parties.
B) is correct because man-in-the-middle attacks indeed involve an attacker intercepting communication between two parties without their knowledge, potentially reading or modifying the communications.
C) is incorrect because SQL Injection attacks exploit vulnerabilities in database-driven applications by injecting malicious SQL code, not intercepting communications between parties.
D) is incorrect because Cross-Site Scripting injects malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users, not intercepting direct communications between two parties.