Cisco 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 5 Q 61-75
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Question 61:
An administrator needs to configure Cisco Firepower to block traffic based on the reputation of the destination IP address. Which feature should be enabled?
A) IP reputation filtering
B) URL filtering
C) Geolocation filtering
D) Application control
Answer: A
Explanation:
IP reputation filtering enables Cisco Firepower to block or monitor traffic based on the reputation scores of destination IP addresses, making A the correct answer. This feature leverages threat intelligence from Cisco Talos to identify and block communications with IP addresses known to host malicious content, participate in botnet activities, or distribute malware.
IP reputation filtering operates by comparing destination IP addresses in network traffic against continuously updated threat intelligence databases maintained by Cisco Talos. Each IP address receives a reputation score based on observed malicious activities including malware distribution, spam transmission, phishing campaigns, command and control server operation, or participation in attack infrastructure. When traffic destined for external IP addresses traverses the Firepower device, the reputation filter evaluates the destination IP against the reputation database. Administrators configure thresholds determining which reputation levels trigger blocking, monitoring, or allowing actions. Low reputation scores indicating high confidence of malicious activity typically result in automatic blocking, while moderate scores might generate alerts for investigation. This dynamic protection adapts to emerging threats as new malicious IP addresses are identified globally.
Implementation of IP reputation filtering provides several configuration options balancing security and operational requirements. Administrators select reputation categories including known malicious IPs, botnet command and control servers, anonymizers and proxies, or suspicious IP addresses with moderate threat indicators. Action settings determine whether matching traffic is blocked, monitored with alerts generated, or allowed with logging for visibility. Whitelist capabilities exempt trusted IP addresses or ranges from reputation checks, preventing false positives for legitimate business communications. Network analysis policies define which network segments or security zones have IP reputation filtering applied, with typical deployments applying strict filtering to user networks while allowing more permissive policies for DMZ or partner networks. Integration with access control policies enables reputation filtering as an additional layer within comprehensive security policy frameworks.
The security value of IP reputation filtering extends beyond simple blocking. Early threat detection occurs when devices attempt to communicate with newly identified malicious infrastructure before specific signatures exist for associated malware. Botnet detection identifies infected internal devices attempting command and control communications. Data exfiltration prevention blocks attempts to transfer stolen data to attacker-controlled servers. Zero-day threat protection provides defense against unknown attacks leveraging known malicious infrastructure. Reduced false positives result from focusing on infrastructure reputation rather than behavioral analysis that might trigger on legitimate unusual activities. Performance optimization occurs because reputation checks are fast lookups against databases rather than deep packet inspection of all traffic. Regular updates from Talos ensure protection evolves with the threat landscape. B is incorrect because URL filtering categorizes and controls web traffic based on URLs and domains rather than IP reputation scores. C is incorrect because geolocation filtering blocks traffic based on geographic location of IP addresses rather than reputation indicating malicious activity. D is incorrect because application control identifies and manages applications but does not specifically block based on destination IP reputation.
Question 62:
Which protocol does Cisco TrustSec use to propagate Security Group Tags between network devices?
A) Security Group Tag Exchange Protocol (SXP)
B) Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
C) Label Distribution Protocol (LDP)
D) Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Security Group Tag Exchange Protocol propagates Security Group Tags between network devices that cannot natively insert or read SGT values in packet headers, making A the correct answer. SXP enables TrustSec deployment across heterogeneous network environments including devices that don’t support inline tagging, ensuring consistent policy enforcement throughout the infrastructure.
SXP operates as a control plane protocol establishing TCP connections between network devices to exchange IP-to-SGT mappings. When a TrustSec-capable device assigns an SGT to a user or endpoint based on authentication through ISE, that device becomes the authoritative source for the IP-to-SGT binding. Through SXP, the device propagates this mapping to downstream devices that need SGT information for policy enforcement. Receiving devices maintain local mapping tables associating IP addresses with their corresponding SGTs. When traffic arrives from those IP addresses, receiving devices can apply appropriate Security Group Access Control Lists even though the packets themselves don’t carry inline SGT tags. SXP relationships are configured with speaker and listener roles, where speakers send mappings and listeners receive them. Devices can simultaneously operate as speakers to some neighbors and listeners to others, creating hierarchical or mesh propagation topologies.
Implementation of SXP requires careful network design addressing scalability and security considerations. SXP peering relationships are explicitly configured between devices specifying speaker-listener roles and connection parameters. Authentication using passwords or certificates secures SXP connections preventing unauthorized devices from injecting false mappings. Hold-down timers control how long mappings remain valid after SXP connections fail, balancing between maintaining connectivity during temporary outages and removing stale mappings. Reconciliation periods determine how frequently full mapping tables are re-synchronized ensuring consistency. Filtering capabilities control which mappings are exchanged, allowing administrators to limit propagation scope for scalability or security segmentation. Connection limits prevent resource exhaustion from excessive SXP peering.
SXP enables TrustSec deployment scenarios that would otherwise be impossible. Legacy devices without TrustSec hardware support can participate in TrustSec segmentation by receiving SXP mappings and enforcing SGACL policies. Data center environments mixing TrustSec-capable and legacy switches use SXP to maintain consistent segmentation. Branch offices with limited TrustSec deployment propagate SGT information to central enforcement points via SXP. Virtual environments where hypervisors don’t support inline tagging use SXP for virtual machine SGT mapping. Cloud integrations propagate SGTs to cloud workloads through SXP peering with cloud connectors. However, SXP has limitations compared to inline tagging including inability to maintain SGT information through NAT boundaries and potential mapping delays during device mobility. Best practices recommend inline tagging where supported with SXP as compatibility mechanism for legacy devices. B is incorrect because BGP is a routing protocol for path selection rather than SGT propagation. C is incorrect because LDP distributes MPLS labels for traffic engineering, not Security Group Tags. D is incorrect because RSVP reserves network resources for quality of service rather than propagating security tags.
Question 63:
An administrator needs to configure Cisco ASA to provide SSL VPN access with clientless browser-based connectivity. Which VPN technology should be implemented?
A) AnyConnect VPN
B) Clientless SSL VPN
C) IPsec IKEv2 VPN
D) L2TP VPN
Answer: B
Explanation:
Clientless SSL VPN provides browser-based remote access without requiring client software installation, making B the correct answer. This VPN technology enables users to access internal web applications and resources through standard web browsers, ideal for scenarios where installing VPN clients is impractical or undesirable such as contractor access, kiosk systems, or unmanaged personal devices.
Clientless SSL VPN operates by providing a web portal that users access via HTTPS from any modern web browser. After authenticating through the portal login page, users receive a dynamically generated interface listing available internal resources including web applications, file shares, email servers, and remote desktop connections. The ASA acts as a proxy, rewriting URLs and translating protocols to enable browser-based access to internal resources. When users click links to internal applications, the ASA fetches content from backend servers, rewrites embedded URLs and references to maintain the proxy chain, and serves modified content to the user’s browser. This architecture keeps internal resources hidden from direct internet exposure while enabling secure access through the encrypted SSL tunnel established between browser and ASA.
Implementation of clientless SSL VPN involves several configuration components on the ASA. WebVPN configuration defines the portal settings including login pages, post-authentication landing pages, and user interface customization. Bookmarks provide pre-configured links to internal resources with friendly names and URLs pointing to applications, file servers, or other services. Smart tunnel configurations enable TCP-based applications to work through the browser by forwarding specific applications through the VPN tunnel. URL lists specify web applications accessible through the portal. Port forwarding allows access to applications requiring specific TCP ports by creating local port mappings on the client system. Group policies define which resources different user groups can access, with customization based on Active Directory groups or other authentication attributes. Customization options include company branding, custom messages, and language localization.
Clientless SSL VPN provides advantages for specific use cases while having inherent limitations. No client installation reduces help desk burden and enables access from systems where users lack administrative rights to install software. Quick access from any location including hotel business centers, partner facilities, or public computers provides flexibility. Reduced security risk results from users not downloading files directly to potentially insecure systems. However, functionality is limited compared to full VPN clients because only web-based protocols and explicitly configured applications are accessible. Application compatibility challenges arise when internal applications use technologies that don’t translate well through web proxy architecture. Performance overhead results from protocol translation and content rewriting. Security considerations include browser-based threats and difficulty enforcing endpoint security posture without client software. Many deployments combine clientless access for light usage with AnyConnect client for users requiring full network access. A is incorrect because AnyConnect requires client software installation rather than providing browser-only access. C is incorrect because IPsec IKEv2 is a site-to-site or client VPN protocol requiring VPN client software. D is incorrect because L2TP is a legacy VPN protocol requiring specific client configuration rather than browser-based access.
Question 64:
Which Cisco security solution provides automated threat hunting capabilities by analyzing endpoint, network, and cloud data to identify advanced threats?
A) Cisco SecureX
B) Cisco Umbrella
C) Cisco ISE
D) Cisco AnyConnect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco SecureX provides automated threat hunting capabilities through integrated analysis of telemetry from endpoint, network, and cloud security products to identify advanced threats, making A the correct answer. SecureX serves as a unified security platform aggregating data from Cisco’s security portfolio and third-party integrations to provide comprehensive visibility and coordinated threat response.
SecureX architecture integrates with Cisco security products including AMP for Endpoints, Umbrella, Firepower, Stealthwatch, and others, along with third-party security tools through APIs and integrations. The platform collects telemetry from all connected sources including endpoint events, network flows, DNS queries, web traffic logs, email security events, and cloud application activities. This aggregated data undergoes correlation and analysis to identify relationships between seemingly unrelated events across different security domains. For example, SecureX might correlate a suspicious DNS query detected by Umbrella, with unusual network traffic identified by Stealthwatch, and file execution on an endpoint captured by AMP, recognizing these as stages of a coordinated attack that individual tools might not identify independently.
Automated threat hunting in SecureX leverages several advanced capabilities. Threat response workflows automate investigation tasks such as querying multiple security tools for related indicators, enriching alerts with threat intelligence, and performing forensic data collection across the environment. Orchestration capabilities execute pre-defined playbooks responding to specific threat scenarios with automated containment actions including isolating endpoints, blocking domains, or quarantining files across all integrated security tools simultaneously. Threat intelligence integration with Cisco Talos and third-party feeds enriches events with context about malicious indicators. Cross-product visibility enables analysts to pivot between security tools following attack chains without switching between separate consoles. Dashboards provide unified views of security posture across all domains identifying trends and emerging threats.
The value proposition of SecureX extends beyond simple security tool aggregation. Reduced mean time to detection results from correlation identifying threats that individual tools miss. Faster incident response occurs through automated investigation and coordinated remediation actions. Improved analyst productivity comes from unified interfaces eliminating context switching between tools. Better security effectiveness is achieved through coordinated defense where actions in one security layer inform responses in others. Integration reduces complexity of managing multiple point products with disparate interfaces and workflows. The platform approach also facilitates adoption of new Cisco security products that automatically integrate without extensive configuration. SecureX is included with Cisco security products at no additional cost, providing immediate value for existing Cisco security customers. B is incorrect because Umbrella provides DNS-layer security rather than cross-product threat hunting and orchestration. C is incorrect because ISE focuses on network access control and policy enforcement rather than threat hunting across security domains. D is incorrect because AnyConnect is a VPN client providing secure connectivity rather than threat hunting capabilities.
Question 65:
An administrator needs to configure a Cisco router to permit only SSH access for remote management while denying Telnet. Which command accomplishes this?
A) transport input ssh
B) transport output ssh
C) service ssh
D) access-class ssh
Answer: A
Explanation:
The «transport input ssh» command configured on VTY lines restricts remote access to SSH only, denying Telnet and other protocols, making A the correct answer. This configuration enforces encrypted management access preventing credential exposure and session hijacking associated with clear-text Telnet communications.
VTY line configuration controls which protocols are permitted for remote management access to Cisco routers and switches. The «transport input» command specifies which protocols can be used to establish inbound connections to the device through virtual terminal lines. By default, VTY lines accept both Telnet and SSH connections, creating security vulnerabilities because Telnet transmits credentials and session data in clear text susceptible to network sniffing. Configuring «transport input ssh» restricts VTY access to SSH only, which encrypts all communications including authentication credentials and management commands. The command is applied to VTY line configurations with syntax like «line vty 0 4» followed by «transport input ssh» applying the restriction to VTY lines 0 through 4.
Implementation of SSH-only access requires additional prerequisite configurations beyond the transport input command. SSH functionality requires a hostname and domain name configured on the device for generating RSA or ECDSA keys used in SSH cryptography. The «crypto key generate rsa» or «crypto key generate ec» commands create the necessary key pairs with recommended minimum modulus sizes of 2048 bits for RSA or 256 bits for ECDSA. SSH version 2 should be explicitly configured using «ip ssh version 2» command because SSH version 1 has known security vulnerabilities. Local user accounts or AAA authentication must be configured for SSH login credentials. VTY line configurations should specify authentication methods through «login local» or «login authentication» commands. Additional security hardening includes configuring SSH timeouts, limiting authentication retries, and restricting source addresses through access control lists.
Restricting management access to SSH provides several security benefits. Confidentiality is maintained through encryption of all management traffic including passwords, commands, and output. Integrity protection prevents tampering with management sessions. Authentication verification ensures administrators are connecting to legitimate devices rather than imposter systems. Compliance with security frameworks and regulations typically requires encrypted management protocols. Audit trails from SSH logs provide accountability for administrative actions. However, SSH introduces computational overhead for encryption operations and requires proper key management practices. Organizations should regularly rotate SSH keys, use strong authentication methods like public key authentication rather than passwords, and monitor SSH logs for suspicious access attempts. Emergency access considerations should include console access for device recovery when network connectivity or SSH services fail. B is incorrect because «transport output» controls outbound connections from the device rather than inbound management access. C is incorrect because «service ssh» is not a valid Cisco IOS command. D is incorrect because «access-class» applies IP access lists to VTY lines for source IP filtering rather than protocol restriction.
Question 66:
Which Cisco technology provides automated policy enforcement across physical, virtual, and cloud workloads using microsegmentation?
A) Cisco Tetration
B) Cisco Umbrella
C) Cisco AMP
D) Cisco Duo
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Tetration provides automated policy enforcement across diverse workload types through application dependency mapping and microsegmentation, making A the correct answer. Tetration analyzes application communications, automatically generates security policies, and enforces microsegmentation protecting workloads regardless of their deployment location or infrastructure type.
Tetration operates through comprehensive telemetry collection from workloads running on physical servers, virtual machines, containers, and cloud instances. Software sensors deployed on endpoints collect detailed information about processes, network connections, system calls, and application behaviors. This telemetry provides complete visibility into application communications including which processes communicate with each other, protocols and ports used, and data flow patterns. Network flow data augments endpoint telemetry for agentless monitoring of network infrastructure. The combination creates a complete picture of application architecture and dependencies across the entire data center or cloud environment.
Application dependency mapping is a core Tetration capability that automatically discovers and visualizes how applications interact. Machine learning algorithms analyze collected telemetry to identify application tiers, understand normal communication patterns, and group related processes into application clusters. Dependency maps show which application components communicate, direction of communications, and protocols used. This automated discovery eliminates time-consuming manual documentation and provides accurate real-time views of application architecture including undocumented dependencies that often cause issues during migrations or changes. The dependency understanding enables several use cases including application migration planning, troubleshooting application issues, and most importantly, security policy generation.
Microsegmentation policy generation leverages application dependency mapping to automatically create whitelist-based security policies. Tetration analyzes observed application behaviors during a learning period, identifying all legitimate communications. Based on this analysis, the platform generates policy recommendations specifying exactly which communications should be permitted between application components. These policies follow least-privilege principles, allowing only necessary communications while denying everything else. Policies are enforced through multiple mechanisms including native operating system firewalls like iptables on Linux, Windows Firewall, or integration with network infrastructure including Cisco ACI, public cloud security groups, or network firewalls. Enforcement occurs closest to workloads providing immediate protection regardless of network location. Policy simulation capabilities enable testing policy impact before enforcement preventing unintended application breakage. B is incorrect because Umbrella provides DNS-layer security rather than workload microsegmentation. C is incorrect because AMP focuses on malware protection rather than application-aware policy enforcement. D is incorrect because Duo provides multi-factor authentication rather than workload segmentation.
Question 67:
An administrator needs to configure Cisco Firepower to decrypt and inspect traffic using specific SSL/TLS protocols while blocking deprecated insecure protocols. Which SSL policy action should be configured?
A) Decrypt — Resign
B) Block
C) Do not decrypt
D) Monitor
Answer: A
Explanation:
The «Decrypt — Resign» action in SSL policies enables Firepower to decrypt traffic encrypted with specific SSL/TLS versions, inspect the decrypted content, and re-encrypt before forwarding, making A the correct answer. This action enables full security inspection of encrypted traffic while allowing administrators to block deprecated protocols like SSLv2, SSLv3, or TLS 1.0 that have known vulnerabilities.
SSL policy configuration on Firepower provides granular control over how encrypted traffic is handled based on various criteria. Administrators create rules matching traffic based on characteristics including source and destination networks, server certificates, SSL/TLS version, cipher suites, and more. The Decrypt — Resign action intercepts SSL/TLS handshakes, establishing separate encrypted sessions with both client and server. Firepower presents certificates signed by its own certificate authority to clients while maintaining legitimate connections to destination servers. This man-in-the-middle positioning allows inspection of decrypted plaintext traffic for threats, policy violations, and malicious content before re-encrypting and forwarding to destinations.
Configuration of SSL decryption for blocking insecure protocols involves creating multiple SSL policy rules. A common approach includes creating rules that explicitly decrypt modern secure protocols like TLS 1.2 and TLS 1.3 using Decrypt — Resign action, while configuring Block actions for deprecated protocols. For example, separate rules might block SSLv2, SSLv3, TLS 1.0, and TLS 1.1 based on SSL version matching criteria. This configuration ensures that connections attempting to use insecure protocols are denied while modern encrypted connections are decrypted and inspected. Certificate pinning considerations, privacy exemptions for sensitive categories like healthcare or financial sites, and performance implications of decryption should be addressed during implementation.
The security benefits of SSL decryption with protocol restriction are significant. Malware hiding in encrypted traffic is detected through inspection of decrypted content. Data exfiltration attempts using encryption are identified and blocked. Compliance with regulations requiring traffic inspection is achieved. Deprecated protocol blocking prevents downgrade attacks where adversaries force connections to use weak encryption vulnerable to cryptographic attacks. However, implementation challenges include certificate trust distribution requiring internal CA certificates on all client devices, potential application compatibility issues with certificate pinning applications, privacy considerations requiring exemptions for certain traffic categories, and computational overhead of encryption operations requiring adequate hardware resources. Organizations should document SSL decryption policies clearly communicating to users which traffic is inspected, maintain certificate rotation schedules, and regularly review decryption exemptions. B is incorrect because Block action denies connections without inspection rather than decrypting for analysis. C is incorrect because Do not decrypt allows encrypted traffic without inspection, missing threats hiding in encryption. D is incorrect because Monitor action logs connections without decrypting or blocking insecure protocols.
Question 68:
Which Cisco ISE feature enables network administrators to automatically quarantine devices that fail security posture assessments?
A) Posture assessment
B) Profiling services
C) Guest services
D) BYOD onboarding
Answer: A
Explanation:
Posture assessment in Cisco ISE evaluates endpoint security compliance and enables automatic quarantine of non-compliant devices, making A the correct answer. This feature ensures that only devices meeting security requirements access network resources, enforcing security standards and reducing risk from compromised or poorly maintained endpoints.
Posture assessment operates through a multi-stage process beginning when devices connect to the network. After initial authentication, ISE triggers posture evaluation through mechanisms including AnyConnect client with Network Access Manager and ISE posture modules, or for agentless assessment, through web-based redirection to a posture portal. The posture agent or portal performs endpoint scanning checking for required security attributes including operating system versions, security patch levels, antivirus software installation and update status, personal firewall enablement, disk encryption status, and presence of unauthorized applications. Scan results are transmitted to ISE for evaluation against configured posture policies defining security requirements.
Based on posture evaluation results, ISE makes authorization decisions determining network access levels. Compliant devices passing all posture checks receive full network access with appropriate authorizations based on user identity and device type. Non-compliant devices failing one or more posture checks are automatically redirected to quarantine networks with restricted access. Quarantine network configurations typically allow access only to remediation resources including patch servers, antivirus update sites, and self-service remediation portals. The remediation portal presents users with specific compliance failures and may provide automated remediation options like launching Windows Update, updating antivirus signatures, or enabling firewall services. Temporal agent installation can be pushed to devices lacking permanent posture agents, performing assessment then removing itself after evaluation.
Change of Authorization functionality enables dynamic response to posture status changes. When devices complete remediation and achieve compliance, ISE automatically re-evaluates posture and upgrades network access without requiring user reauthentication or reconnection. Continuous posture monitoring periodically reassesses devices after initial evaluation, detecting compliance degradation such as disabled antivirus or firewall services. Devices falling out of compliance during their session are automatically downgraded to quarantine networks. Integration with threat detection systems enables automatic quarantine when devices are identified as compromised regardless of initial posture compliance. This dynamic response capability ensures that network access reflects current security posture rather than relying solely on admission-time evaluation. B is incorrect because profiling services identify device types rather than assessing security posture compliance. C is incorrect because guest services provide temporary access for visitors rather than evaluating endpoint security compliance. D is incorrect because BYOD onboarding facilitates personal device enrollment rather than performing security posture assessment.
Question 69:
An administrator needs to configure Cisco Umbrella to provide different security policies for users based on their Active Directory group membership. Which Umbrella feature enables this capability?
A) Identity-based policies
B) Network-based policies
C) DNS-layer security
D) Threat intelligence
Answer: A
Explanation:
Identity-based policies in Cisco Umbrella enable administrators to apply different security policies based on user identity including Active Directory group membership, making A the correct answer. This capability provides personalized security enforcement matching organizational roles and risk profiles rather than applying uniform policies to all users.
Identity-based policies in Umbrella require integration between the Umbrella platform and organizational identity sources. The Umbrella Roaming Client or AnyConnect with Umbrella Roaming Security module deployed on endpoints reports user identity information to Umbrella along with DNS queries. For Active Directory environments, the client determines the currently logged-in user and their AD group memberships, transmitting this context with each DNS request. Umbrella correlates DNS queries with user identities, evaluating requests against policies specific to each user or their group membership. This architecture enables consistent policy enforcement regardless of user location, whether connecting from corporate networks, remote offices, or external networks like home broadband or public WiFi.
Policy configuration for identity-based enforcement involves creating policies mapped to AD groups or organizational units. Administrators define security policies specifying blocked content categories, malicious domain protection, application control, custom block lists, and allowed/blocked destinations. Each policy is associated with specific AD groups or individual users. For example, executives might receive policies allowing broad internet access with malware protection only, while general employees have restricted access blocking social media and entertainment categories. IT administrators might have exemptions from certain restrictions necessary for their job functions. Policies support granular configurations including different actions for different content categories, custom block pages explaining policy violations, and logging preferences for compliance and reporting.
The value of identity-based policies extends beyond simple enforcement. Consistent protection follows users across network locations providing uniform security regardless of connection method. Risk-based policy assignment enables stricter controls for users with access to sensitive data. Role-appropriate access ensures employees can access necessary resources while preventing inappropriate internet usage. Remote worker protection provides identical security policies whether users connect from corporate offices or remote locations. Incident investigation is enhanced because security events are tied to specific user identities rather than anonymous IP addresses. Compliance reporting demonstrates that appropriate controls are enforced for different user populations. B is incorrect because network-based policies apply security rules based on source network or location rather than user identity and AD groups. C is incorrect because DNS-layer security is the underlying technology mechanism rather than the feature enabling identity-based differentiation. D is incorrect because threat intelligence provides malicious domain identification rather than enabling user-specific policy enforcement.
Question 70:
An administrator needs to configure Cisco Firepower to inspect SSL/TLS encrypted traffic for hidden threats. Which prerequisite must be configured before enabling SSL decryption?
A) Trusted CA certificate for re-signing server certificates
B) SNMP community strings
C) Default gateway only
D) Time zone settings
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question examines the prerequisites for implementing SSL/TLS decryption in Cisco Firepower Threat Defense. As the majority of Internet traffic now uses HTTPS encryption, the ability to decrypt and inspect encrypted traffic has become essential for effective security. Without decryption capabilities, threats hidden in encrypted channels pass uninspected, creating significant security blind spots. However, SSL decryption requires specific cryptographic infrastructure to function properly and avoid breaking user connectivity or triggering certificate warnings.
SSL decryption operates as a man-in-the-middle process where Firepower terminates the encrypted connection from the client, decrypts the traffic for inspection, and establishes a separate encrypted connection to the destination server. To accomplish this without triggering certificate warnings on client devices, Firepower must re-sign the destination server’s certificate with a certificate authority (CA) that clients trust. This requires configuring a trusted CA certificate on Firepower that will be used to generate replacement certificates for inspected connections.
The trusted CA certificate serves as Firepower’s signing authority for re-signed certificates. When a client connects to an HTTPS site through Firepower with decryption enabled, Firepower retrieves the actual server certificate, creates a replacement certificate containing the same subject information but signed by Firepower’s CA certificate, and presents this replacement to the client. If the client trusts Firepower’s CA certificate (because it has been deployed to the client’s trusted root certificate store), the connection proceeds normally without certificate warnings. Firepower can then decrypt the traffic, inspect it using security profiles for threats, and re-encrypt it before forwarding to the destination.
Deployment of the CA certificate to client devices is critical for transparent operation. Organizations typically use Group Policy in Active Directory, mobile device management systems, or manual installation to deploy the Firepower CA certificate to all managed endpoints. Without this trust relationship, clients receive certificate warnings for every decrypted HTTPS connection because the certificate chain won’t validate back to a trusted root CA. The CA certificate configuration in Firepower involves either generating a self-signed CA certificate directly on the FTD device or importing an existing CA certificate from the organization’s PKI infrastructure. Best practice often involves using a dedicated intermediate CA certificate specifically for SSL inspection rather than using the organization’s root CA, providing isolation and easier revocation if needed. Additional considerations include certificate validity periods, key lengths meeting security standards, proper certificate attributes for SSL inspection purposes, and secure storage of private keys. Organizations must also consider privacy and legal implications of SSL decryption, often exempting certain categories like healthcare, financial, or personal sites from decryption to respect privacy while maintaining security for other traffic.
A) This is the correct answer. A trusted CA certificate must be configured on Firepower and deployed to client devices before enabling SSL decryption. This certificate enables Firepower to re-sign server certificates during the decryption process without triggering certificate warnings on clients. The CA certificate is the cryptographic foundation enabling transparent SSL inspection. Configuration involves generating or importing a CA certificate on FTD through Firepower Management Center, then deploying this CA certificate to all client devices’ trusted root certificate stores using enterprise deployment tools.
B) SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) community strings are credentials for SNMP-based device monitoring and management but have no relationship to SSL decryption functionality. SNMP provides device management and monitoring capabilities through network management systems but doesn’t participate in SSL/TLS cryptographic operations. While SNMP might be configured for general device management, it’s not a prerequisite for SSL decryption. SSL decryption requires cryptographic certificates and keys, not SNMP management credentials which serve entirely different purposes.
C) Default gateway configuration enables network routing allowing devices to reach networks beyond their local subnet, but it’s not a specific prerequisite for SSL decryption functionality. While proper routing is necessary for general network connectivity including forwarding decrypted traffic, default gateway configuration is a basic networking requirement rather than a specific SSL decryption prerequisite. SSL decryption has unique requirements related to certificate infrastructure that go beyond basic network connectivity. Routing configuration would be addressed during initial network setup rather than specifically for SSL decryption enablement.
D) Time zone settings ensure devices display times in appropriate local time zones for administrator convenience and are important for accurate log timestamps, but they’re not specific prerequisites for SSL decryption. While accurate system time is important for certificate validation (certificates have validity periods checked against system time), time zone configuration specifically is about time display rather than cryptographic operations. System time synchronization via NTP is important for certificate validation, but time zone settings are administrative convenience rather than functional requirements for SSL decryption. The prerequisite for decryption is the CA certificate infrastructure, not time zone configuration.
Question 71:
A security engineer needs to configure Cisco Umbrella to block newly registered domains that are often used in phishing campaigns. Which Umbrella security feature provides this protection?
A) Newly Seen Domains blocking in security settings
B) DNS forwarding only
C) DHCP relay configuration
D) Static route entries
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question addresses proactive threat prevention in Cisco Umbrella through intelligent analysis of domain characteristics. Cybercriminals frequently register new domains for phishing campaigns, malware distribution, and command-and-control infrastructure because newly registered domains have no negative reputation history and haven’t yet been blacklisted. These domains are used in attacks for short periods before being abandoned when they’re identified and blocked. Traditional security approaches that rely on blacklists or reputation systems struggle with newly registered domains because they have no history to evaluate. Umbrella addresses this through predictive security intelligence that evaluates domain risk factors beyond just historical reputation.
Newly Seen Domains is an Umbrella security feature that identifies and can block domains that were registered recently or that Umbrella’s global recursive DNS infrastructure has not observed before. Umbrella’s massive DNS query volume provides visibility into Internet-wide domain usage patterns. When domains suddenly appear in DNS queries without prior observation, especially when combined with suspicious characteristics like unusual TLDs, auto-generated names, or hosting in suspicious infrastructure, they represent elevated risk. Newly registered domains used in phishing campaigns are often active for only hours or days, making real-time identification based on characteristics rather than reputation critical for protection.
The feature works by leveraging Umbrella’s global threat intelligence including domain registration data, DNS query patterns across millions of users worldwide, NLP (natural language processing) analysis of domain names identifying algorithmically generated names, analysis of hosting infrastructure and name server patterns, and machine learning models predicting malicious intent based on domain characteristics. When domains match risk profiles associated with phishing or malware, Umbrella can block them proactively before they’re confirmed malicious through attack observations. This predictive approach provides earlier protection than reactive blacklisting.
Configuration involves enabling Newly Seen Domains blocking in Umbrella security settings with options for different sensitivity levels. Organizations can block all newly seen domains (most aggressive, highest protection but potential for false positives), block newly seen domains matching suspicious characteristics (balanced approach using risk scoring), or alert on newly seen domains without blocking (monitoring mode for tuning). Different policies can apply to different user groups allowing varying risk tolerances. Organizations might block newly seen domains for general users while allowing them for IT security staff who need broader Internet access for research. The feature integrates with Umbrella’s investigate tools enabling administrators to research blocked domains, understand why they were flagged, and create exceptions if needed. Reporting shows newly seen domain activity including blocked attempts, helping organizations understand their threat exposure and validate security effectiveness. This capability is particularly valuable against zero-day phishing campaigns where traditional reputation-based security hasn’t yet identified threats.
A) This is the correct answer. Newly Seen Domains blocking in Umbrella’s security settings provides proactive protection against domains commonly used in phishing campaigns by identifying and blocking domains that were recently registered or not previously observed. This predictive security approach protects against zero-day phishing using fresh domains before they accumulate negative reputation. Configuration involves enabling the feature in Umbrella security policies with appropriate sensitivity levels balancing protection against false positive tolerance, providing effective defense against one of the most common phishing tactics.
B) DNS forwarding is basic DNS infrastructure functionality where DNS servers forward queries they cannot answer to upstream servers, but it doesn’t provide security analysis or threat protection. DNS forwarding handles query resolution mechanics without evaluating domains for suspicious characteristics or phishing risk. While Umbrella operates as a recursive DNS service, the DNS forwarding function alone doesn’t provide the threat intelligence and predictive analysis needed to identify newly registered phishing domains. Security features including Newly Seen Domains detection are required in addition to basic DNS service functionality.
C) DHCP relay forwards DHCP requests from clients to DHCP servers across network boundaries enabling centralized DHCP services in multi-subnet environments. DHCP relay operates at network configuration layer providing IP address assignment coordination but has no relationship to DNS security or phishing protection. DHCP handles network addressing while Umbrella provides DNS-layer security. These are independent network services serving different purposes with DHCP addressing endpoint configuration and Umbrella addressing security through DNS intelligence.
D) Static route entries define network routing paths determining how packets are forwarded between networks, but routing configuration doesn’t provide security analysis or phishing protection. Static routes are basic network connectivity configuration that direct traffic flow without inspecting traffic characteristics or evaluating domains for threats. Routing and security are separate network functions with routing determining paths and security services like Umbrella providing threat protection. Static routes would be configured for network connectivity but don’t address the specific requirement of identifying and blocking newly registered phishing domains.
Question 72:
An administrator needs to configure Cisco ISE to dynamically assign endpoints to different VLANs based on their device type, with corporate laptops receiving access to corporate networks while IoT devices are placed in isolated networks. Which ISE feature enables automatic device type identification?
A) Profiling services
B) Guest portal only
C) TACACS+ device administration
D) Certificate services only
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question examines Cisco ISE’s profiling capabilities for automatic device identification and classification. Modern networks contain diverse device types including corporate computers, smartphones, tablets, printers, IP phones, security cameras, HVAC controllers, medical devices, and countless IoT endpoints. Each device type presents different security risks and requires different network access policies. Manual device classification doesn’t scale and is error-prone. Automated profiling enables ISE to identify device types and apply appropriate network access policies without manual administrator intervention.
Profiling services in ISE automatically collect information about network endpoints and classify them into device profiles based on observed characteristics. ISE uses multiple profiling probes to gather device attributes including DHCP probe analyzing DHCP requests and options revealing operating system information, SPAN probe analyzing network traffic patterns, RADIUS probe examining authentication attributes, SNMP probe querying network devices for endpoint information, DNS probe analyzing DNS queries, HTTP probe examining HTTP user agent strings, and NetFlow probe analyzing traffic patterns. These probes collect attributes like MAC address vendor (OUI), DHCP fingerprints, HTTP user agents, operating system details, installed applications, and network behavior patterns.
ISE correlates collected attributes against profiling policies defining device types. Cisco provides hundreds of pre-built profiling policies for common devices including Windows workstations, Mac computers, iOS and Android devices, printers from various manufacturers, IP phones, security cameras, medical devices, industrial control systems, and many others. Each profiling policy defines conditions matching specific attribute combinations characteristic of device types. When endpoint attributes match profiling policy conditions with sufficient certainty, ISE classifies the endpoint accordingly. Classifications can be certain (high confidence), probable (medium confidence), or unknown (insufficient information), with certainty scores affecting policy application decisions.
Once devices are profiled, authorization policies use device type as match conditions to dynamically assign appropriate network access. The scenario described requires corporate laptops assigned to corporate VLANs while IoT devices are isolated. Authorization policies would include rules like «IF device type is Windows-Workstation THEN assign VLAN 10 (corporate network)» and «IF device type is IP-Camera THEN assign VLAN 100 (isolated IoT network)». This automated segmentation ensures appropriate isolation without manual device management. Profiling provides the device intelligence enabling dynamic, risk-based network access control. Additional capabilities include custom profiling policies for organization-specific devices, profiling policy exceptions for misclassified devices, integration with endpoint compliance (posture) checking, and profiling visibility reports showing device type distribution across the network. Profiling enables zero-trust network access where devices receive only appropriate access based on their type, user, posture, and location context rather than broad network access.
A) This is the correct answer. Profiling services in ISE automatically identify device types by collecting and analyzing endpoint attributes including DHCP fingerprints, MAC OUI, HTTP user agents, and network behavior. ISE correlates these attributes against profiling policies to classify devices into types like laptops, phones, printers, or IoT devices. Once profiled, authorization policies dynamically assign devices to appropriate VLANs based on type, enabling the automated network segmentation required. Profiling provides the device intelligence foundation for implementing dynamic, risk-based access control policies.
B) Guest portal in ISE provides web-based access workflows for temporary users including self-registration, sponsor approval, and account management. Guest services focus on human visitor access rather than automated device type identification. While guest access might profile guest devices to ensure they’re not posing as corporate assets, the guest portal itself is an access provisioning interface rather than the profiling engine that identifies device types. Profiling services operate independently from guest portals, with profiling providing device classification used by various ISE services including both employee and guest access scenarios.
C) TACACS+ device administration in ISE controls administrative access to network infrastructure devices including command authorization and accounting for administrator actions. Device administration addresses who can access network devices and what commands they can execute rather than profiling endpoint devices connecting to the network. TACACS+ and profiling serve different purposes with TACACS+ securing infrastructure administration and profiling classifying user/IoT endpoints. These are separate ISE services with device administration addressing administrative access control and profiling addressing endpoint classification for access policies.
D) Certificate services in ISE provide certificate provisioning and management for devices using certificate-based authentication, enabling strong cryptographic authentication rather than password-based methods. While certificates identify authenticated entities, certificate services don’t automatically determine device types. Certificates authenticate identity but profiling classifies device categories. Certificate authentication and device profiling are complementary with certificates providing strong authentication and profiling providing device type context for authorization decisions. Both can be used together but certificate services alone don’t provide the device type identification required for the described segmentation.
Question 73:
A security administrator needs to configure Cisco WSA to prevent users from downloading executable files from the Internet. Which WSA feature should be configured?
A) File type blocking in access policies
B) Authentication realm only
C) Time synchronization
D) DNS configuration only
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question addresses content filtering and file download control in Cisco Web Security Appliance. Organizations face significant risks from users downloading potentially malicious files from the Internet including executable programs that might contain malware, scripts that could exploit vulnerabilities, archive files potentially containing threats, and other high-risk file types. While malware scanning provides one layer of defense, blocking certain file types entirely provides additional security by preventing downloads regardless of whether specific malware signatures are detected. File type blocking implements defense-in-depth where categories of risky downloads are prevented at the policy level.
File type blocking in WSA enables administrators to control which file types can be downloaded through the web proxy. This operates on MIME types and file extensions to identify file categories. Common file types that organizations block include executable files (.exe, .msi, .bat, .cmd, .com), scripts (.vbs, .js, .ps1), archive files that might contain threats (.zip, .rar, .7z), and potentially dangerous documents with macro capabilities. File type blocking operates at the access policy level where administrators define which file types to block, allow, or warn about based on organizational acceptable use policies and risk tolerance.
Configuration involves creating or modifying access policies in WSA that define rules matching specific users, groups, or all users, and specifying file type blocking actions within those policies. File types are organized into categories for convenient policy application including executables, archives, audio/video files, documents, and custom categories. Administrators select which categories to block for different user populations. For example, general users might have executables blocked while IT staff have exceptions allowing executable downloads for legitimate software installation purposes. Actions include block (completely prevent download), warn (display warning but allow user to proceed), and monitor (allow download but log the event for auditing).
Advanced configurations include combining file type blocking with other security features for comprehensive protection. File reputation scanning evaluates files that are allowed through type filtering, checking them against threat intelligence before allowing download. Data loss prevention scanning examines uploads to prevent sensitive data exfiltration. URL filtering prevents access to risky download sites. Anti-malware scanning provides final inspection of allowed files. These layered controls work together where file type blocking provides first-line defense preventing entire categories of risky downloads, while files that pass type filtering receive deeper inspection. Organizations must balance security requirements against business functionality since overly aggressive file blocking can impact legitimate business activities. Common approaches include blocking high-risk executables and scripts for general users while allowing trusted categories like documents, providing exceptions for specific users or security-vetted sites, implementing warning pages for medium-risk downloads allowing informed user decisions, and comprehensive logging of all file downloads for security monitoring and incident investigation. File type blocking integrates with WSA’s identification profiles enabling different blocking policies for different user groups based on roles, departments, or risk profiles.
A) This is the correct answer. File type blocking in access policies provides the capability to prevent users from downloading specific file types including executables. Access policies define which file type categories (executables, scripts, archives, etc.) are blocked, allowed, or trigger warnings for different user populations. Configuration involves creating access policy rules specifying file type filtering actions, effectively preventing executable downloads while allowing other file types needed for business operations. This provides policy-based control over download risks aligned with organizational security requirements.
B) Authentication realm in WSA defines how users authenticate to the proxy (Active Directory, LDAP, local database) enabling user identification for policy application. While authentication identifies users and enables user-specific policies, the authentication realm itself doesn’t control file downloads or block specific file types. Authentication provides identity context that policies use, but doesn’t define the access control rules. File type blocking requires access policy configuration that uses authenticated identity to apply appropriate rules, making authentication a prerequisite for user-based policies but not the feature that actually blocks file types.
C) Time synchronization ensures WSA maintains accurate system time which is important for certificate validation, log timestamps, and scheduled operations, but doesn’t provide content filtering or file type blocking. While accurate time is important for various system functions including SSL certificate validation, time configuration doesn’t control which file types users can download. Time synchronization is basic system configuration supporting other features but doesn’t implement the security policy required for file download control. Access policy configuration with file type filtering is required for blocking executable downloads.
D) DNS configuration enables WSA to resolve domain names to IP addresses for connecting to websites but doesn’t control file type downloads or implement content filtering. DNS is necessary infrastructure for web connectivity but doesn’t inspect or control the content being accessed. File type blocking operates at the application layer analyzing HTTP responses and file characteristics, while DNS operates at the name resolution layer. DNS configuration supports web connectivity but doesn’t provide the content inspection and policy enforcement needed for file type control.
Question 74:
An administrator needs to configure Cisco AMP for Endpoints to quarantine suspicious files automatically while performing cloud-based analysis. Which AMP feature provides this capability?
A) File trajectory and dynamic analysis with quarantine
B) SNMP traps only
C) Syslog forwarding only
D) NetFlow collection
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question examines advanced malware protection capabilities in Cisco AMP for Endpoints, specifically focusing on handling suspicious files that aren’t definitively malicious but warrant additional investigation. Modern malware often uses sophisticated evasion techniques to avoid detection by traditional signature-based antivirus. Some files exhibit suspicious characteristics without matching known malware signatures, creating uncertainty about their true nature. Automatically quarantining suspicious files while performing deeper analysis prevents potential threats from executing while analysis completes, providing security without immediately blocking files that might ultimately prove benign.
File trajectory in AMP provides complete visibility into file activity across the organization showing where files originated, which endpoints they reached, what actions they performed, and their relationships with other files and processes. This comprehensive tracking enables forensic investigation and impact assessment. When combined with dynamic analysis (sandboxing), suspicious files are automatically sent to secure cloud-based sandbox environments where they execute in isolation while behavioral analysis observes their actions looking for malicious indicators like registry modifications, network connections to suspicious IPs, process injection, privilege escalation, or data encryption behaviors characteristic of ransomware.
The quarantine capability enables AMP to prevent suspicious files from executing on endpoints while dynamic analysis completes. When AMP encounters files with uncertain reputation—perhaps new files not widely seen globally, files with suspicious characteristics but no definitive malware verdict, or files exhibiting behavior patterns suggesting risk—the connector can automatically quarantine them. Quarantine isolates files preventing execution while maintaining them for analysis. The file is sent to AMP’s cloud-based Threat Grid sandbox for dynamic analysis in a secure environment that emulates various operating systems and application scenarios. The sandbox executes the file observing all behaviors and generating comprehensive reports including process trees, network connections, file system modifications, registry changes, and memory analysis.
Based on dynamic analysis results, AMP updates the file’s disposition (verdict). If analysis confirms malicious behavior, AMP maintains quarantine across all endpoints where the file exists and generates alerts for security team investigation and remediation. If analysis determines the file is benign, AMP releases it from quarantine allowing execution. This automated workflow provides protection against unknown threats while minimizing false positive impacts through intelligent analysis and appropriate response. The file trajectory component enables retrospective security where even if a file was initially allowed, later analysis revealing malicious nature triggers retroactive alerts and quarantine across all affected endpoints, closing the window where threats might operate undetected. Integration between local endpoint connectors, cloud-based threat intelligence, and sandbox analysis creates comprehensive protection with local prevention, cloud-scale intelligence, and deep behavioral analysis working together. Organizations benefit from protection against zero-day threats and sophisticated malware that traditional signature-based approaches miss, while file trajectory provides complete forensic visibility for incident response when threats are discovered.
A) This is the correct answer. File trajectory combined with dynamic analysis and quarantine capability provides automatic suspicious file quarantine while cloud-based sandbox analysis determines actual threat level. AMP connectors quarantine uncertain files preventing execution, send them to Threat Grid for behavioral analysis, and maintain quarantine if malicious or release if benign based on analysis results. File trajectory tracks all file activity enabling complete visibility and retrospective investigation. This integrated capability provides protection against sophisticated threats requiring behavioral analysis rather than just signature matching.
B) SNMP traps provide alert notifications from network devices about specific conditions like interface failures or threshold violations but don’t relate to endpoint malware protection or file quarantine. SNMP operates at network device management layer providing infrastructure monitoring while AMP operates at endpoint file and process layer providing malware protection. These serve entirely different purposes with SNMP addressing network management and AMP addressing endpoint threat prevention. SNMP traps wouldn’t provide the file analysis and quarantine capabilities required.
C) Syslog forwarding sends log messages from devices to central log collectors for aggregation and analysis but doesn’t provide malware protection or file quarantine capabilities. While AMP can send event logs to syslog servers for integration with SIEM platforms, syslog forwarding itself doesn’t detect threats or quarantine files. Syslog is a logging protocol for event collection while AMP’s file quarantine and analysis are active security functions. Syslog provides visibility into security events but doesn’t perform the threat detection and response functions required.
D) NetFlow collection gathers network traffic metadata for analysis including source/destination IPs, ports, protocols, and traffic volumes but operates at network flow layer rather than endpoint file layer. NetFlow provides network visibility useful for behavioral analysis and anomaly detection but doesn’t inspect endpoint files or provide quarantine capabilities. NetFlow and AMP serve complementary but different purposes with NetFlow providing network-level visibility and AMP providing endpoint-level file and process protection. File quarantine and dynamic analysis require endpoint-based capabilities that NetFlow doesn’t provide.
Question 75:
A security engineer needs to configure Cisco Firepower to detect and block traffic to known malicious IP addresses and domains before any deep packet inspection occurs. Which feature provides this early-stage blocking?
A) Security Intelligence filtering
B) Quality of Service policies
C) Port forwarding rules
D) VLAN configuration
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question addresses efficient threat blocking through reputation-based filtering in Cisco Firepower Threat Defense. Modern security architectures must process enormous traffic volumes while detecting increasingly sophisticated threats. Performing deep packet inspection on all traffic consumes significant processing resources. Implementing early-stage filtering that blocks known-malicious traffic before resource-intensive inspection provides both security and performance benefits. Traffic destined for or originating from known-bad IP addresses or domains can be blocked immediately without requiring protocol analysis, signature matching, or deep inspection.
Security Intelligence filtering in Firepower provides reputation-based blacklisting using continuously updated threat intelligence from Cisco Talos. Talos maintains global threat intelligence including IP addresses and domains associated with malware command-and-control servers, phishing sites, spam sources, botnet controllers, exploit kit delivery infrastructure, and other malicious or high-risk entities. This intelligence is compiled from honeypots, security research, incident response data, email analysis, web crawling, and collaborative threat sharing across Cisco’s global customer base (respecting privacy through anonymization).
Security Intelligence operates very early in Firepower’s packet processing path, checking connections against blacklists before access control policy evaluation or deep packet inspection. When traffic matches Security Intelligence lists (either destination, source, or DNS query matching blacklisted entries), Firepower can immediately block the connection without further processing. This provides multiple benefits including early threat prevention blocking known-bad traffic before it can attempt exploitation or data exfiltration, reduced resource consumption since blocked traffic doesn’t consume processing for deeper inspection, improved performance with less inspection load allowing better throughput for legitimate traffic, and automatic protection updates as Talos intelligence updates flow automatically to Firepower devices providing current protection without manual intervention.
Security Intelligence includes multiple feed categories allowing administrators to select appropriate intelligence for their environment. Categories include malware domains and IPs, high-risk IP addresses, command-and-control infrastructure, phishing URLs, known spam sources, bogon networks (unallocated IP space that shouldn’t appear in Internet traffic), and Tor exit nodes. Organizations select categories aligned with their threat landscape and risk tolerance. Additionally, custom Security Intelligence lists can be created containing organization-specific blocks for internal threat response, allowing rapid blocking of newly-discovered threats before Talos intelligence includes them. Configuration occurs through Firepower Management Center where Security Intelligence is enabled in access control policies and appropriate intelligence feeds are selected. Administrators can configure monitoring mode (log matches without blocking) for tuning before enabling enforcement, reducing false positive risk when initially deploying. Security Intelligence also includes whitelist capabilities allowing administrators to exempt trusted IPs or domains from blocking if they’re incorrectly included in blacklists or if business requirements mandate allowing risky destinations. Logging provides visibility into Security Intelligence blocks showing attempted connections to malicious destinations indicating compromised hosts attempting command-and-control communications or users attempting to access phishing sites, supporting incident detection and response workflows.
A) This is the correct answer. Security Intelligence filtering provides reputation-based blocking of traffic to and from known malicious IP addresses and domains, operating early in packet processing before deep inspection. This feature uses Cisco Talos threat intelligence that updates automatically, providing current protection against known-bad destinations with minimal performance impact. Security Intelligence blocks known threats efficiently while allowing legitimate traffic to proceed to deeper inspection, optimizing both security and performance. Configuration involves enabling Security Intelligence and selecting appropriate threat intelligence categories through access control policy settings.
B) Quality of Service (QoS) policies manage bandwidth allocation and traffic prioritization ensuring important applications receive adequate network resources during congestion. QoS operates on traffic classification and queuing to provide performance guarantees but doesn’t inspect traffic for threats or block malicious destinations. QoS addresses network performance management while Security Intelligence addresses threat prevention. These serve different purposes with QoS ensuring application performance and Security Intelligence providing security blocking, making QoS inappropriate for the malicious IP blocking requirement.
C) Port forwarding rules translate destination IP addresses and ports to internal servers enabling external access to internal resources through destination NAT. Port forwarding is used for publishing servers to Internet users or connecting remote sites but doesn’t provide security inspection or threat blocking. Port forwarding translates addressing for connectivity but doesn’t evaluate traffic against threat intelligence or block malicious sources. Port forwarding serves connectivity purposes while Security Intelligence serves threat prevention purposes making them unrelated features for different requirements.
D) VLAN configuration segments networks at Layer 2 creating separate broadcast domains for organizational or security segmentation, but VLANs don’t inspect traffic or block based on threat intelligence. VLANs provide network segmentation organizing devices into logical groups but don’t analyze traffic destinations against malicious IP lists. VLAN segmentation is important for network architecture and isolation but operates at a different layer from threat intelligence-based blocking. Security Intelligence provides threat-based filtering while VLANs provide organizational network segmentation serving different architectural purposes.