Cisco 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 3 Q 31-45
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Question 31:
An administrator needs to configure Cisco Firepower to block traffic from known malicious IP addresses. Which feature should be implemented?
A) Access Control Policy
B) Security Intelligence
C) Intrusion Policy
D) File Policy
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question tests your understanding of Cisco Firepower threat prevention features and specifically which capability addresses blocking based on IP reputation. Security Intelligence is a pre-filter mechanism that provides the first line of defense before traffic undergoes deeper inspection.
Option B is correct because Security Intelligence in Cisco Firepower provides reputation-based blocking of traffic from known malicious sources before consuming resources for deeper inspection. Security Intelligence uses dynamically updated feeds from Cisco Talos Intelligence Group containing IP addresses, URLs, and domain names associated with malware distribution, command and control servers, botnets, and other malicious activities. When enabled, Security Intelligence evaluates connections against these reputation databases and blocks matching traffic at the network entry point, preventing malicious communications before they reach protected resources. This pre-filtering approach improves performance by denying known bad traffic immediately without subjecting it to access control rules, intrusion inspection, or file analysis. Organizations can use Cisco-provided intelligence feeds, custom feeds, or both, and can configure different actions including block, monitor, or allow with logging. Security Intelligence operates at high speed using optimized lookups and updates automatically as new threats are identified.
Option A is incorrect because Access Control Policy defines rules for allowing or blocking traffic based on zones, networks, ports, applications, and users but does not specifically focus on reputation-based blocking of known malicious sources. Access Control Policies provide granular control over what traffic is permitted through inspection and can invoke additional inspection like intrusion prevention or file inspection, but they evaluate traffic based on configured rules rather than dynamic threat intelligence feeds. While access control rules could theoretically block specific malicious IPs, managing thousands of malicious addresses through static rules would be impractical compared to Security Intelligence automated updates.
Option C is incorrect because Intrusion Policy defines which intrusion prevention signatures and preprocessors are enabled to detect and block attack attempts in allowed traffic. Intrusion policies analyze packet contents and protocol behaviors to identify exploits, malware, and attack patterns, but they focus on detecting malicious activity within traffic flows rather than blocking connections based on source reputation. Intrusion prevention operates after Security Intelligence and access control have permitted traffic, providing deep packet inspection. While intrusion policies might detect malicious behavior from bad IPs, Security Intelligence provides more efficient blocking based on reputation.
Option D is incorrect because File Policy controls how Firepower handles files detected in traffic, including malware detection through file analysis and blocking specific file types or categories. File policies define which files are sent to cloud-based AMP Threat Grid sandboxing for analysis, which file types are blocked based on category, and how detected malware is handled. File policies operate on allowed traffic at the application layer and focus on file-based threats rather than blocking connections based on source IP reputation.
Question 32:
Which Cisco technology provides sandboxing capabilities for analyzing suspicious files in an isolated environment?
A) Cisco AMP for Endpoints
B) Cisco Threat Grid
C) Cisco Umbrella
D) Cisco Stealthwatch
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question examines your knowledge of Cisco security products and specifically which solution provides malware analysis through sandboxing. Understanding the different Cisco security technologies and their specific capabilities is essential for implementing comprehensive threat protection.
Option B is correct because Cisco Threat Grid is a cloud-based or on-premises malware analysis and threat intelligence platform that uses sandboxing to analyze suspicious files in isolated environments. When suspicious files are identified by security products like Firepower, AMP, or email security appliances, they can be submitted to Threat Grid for behavioral analysis. Threat Grid executes files in virtual machines instrumented to monitor all activities including process creation, registry modifications, network connections, file system changes, and API calls. This dynamic analysis reveals malicious behaviors that static analysis might miss, such as files that only activate under specific conditions or use anti-analysis techniques. Threat Grid generates detailed analysis reports showing exactly what the file did during execution, assigns threat scores, identifies indicators of compromise, and correlates findings with global threat intelligence. Organizations can use Threat Grid to investigate zero-day threats, understand attack techniques, and generate custom signatures for blocking similar threats.
Option A is incorrect because while Cisco AMP for Endpoints provides advanced malware protection on endpoints including file reputation checking, behavioral monitoring, and retrospective analysis, it is not primarily a sandboxing platform. AMP for Endpoints can submit suspicious files to Threat Grid for sandbox analysis as part of its workflow, but AMP itself focuses on endpoint protection through continuous monitoring, exploit prevention, and file trajectory analysis. AMP uses cloud-based file reputation, local analysis engines, and integration with Threat Grid for comprehensive protection, but the sandboxing capability specifically resides in Threat Grid.
Option C is incorrect because Cisco Umbrella is a cloud-delivered security service providing DNS-layer security, secure web gateway, and cloud access security broker functionality. Umbrella protects users by blocking requests to malicious domains before connections are established, enforcing web usage policies, and inspecting cloud application usage. While Umbrella integrates with Threat Grid to leverage threat intelligence, Umbrella itself is not a sandboxing platform. Umbrella operates at the DNS and web proxy layers to prevent access to threats rather than analyzing file behavior in sandboxes.
Option D is incorrect because Cisco Stealthwatch, now part of Cisco Secure Network Analytics, provides network traffic analysis and behavioral monitoring to detect threats and anomalies through network telemetry. Stealthwatch analyzes NetFlow, IPFIX, and packet data to identify suspicious communication patterns, lateral movement, data exfiltration, and encrypted traffic threats without decryption. While Stealthwatch is powerful for network-based threat detection, it does not provide file sandboxing capabilities. Stealthwatch focuses on network behavior analysis rather than malware analysis.
Question 33:
An administrator configures an access control list with the following entry: access-list 100 deny tcp any any eq 23. What is the effect of this ACL entry?
A) Blocks all TCP traffic
B) Blocks Telnet traffic from any source to any destination
C) Blocks HTTP traffic
D) Blocks SSH traffic
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question tests your understanding of Cisco access control list syntax and well-known port numbers. ACLs are fundamental security controls for filtering traffic on Cisco devices, and understanding how to read and write ACL entries is essential for network security.
Option B is correct because this ACL entry blocks TCP traffic on port 23, which is the well-known port for Telnet, from any source address to any destination address. Breaking down the syntax: access-list 100 creates or adds to a numbered extended ACL, deny specifies the action to drop matching packets, tcp specifies the protocol, the first any represents any source IP address, the second any represents any destination IP address, and eq 23 means equal to port 23 which is the destination port. This entry effectively blocks all Telnet traffic regardless of source or destination. Telnet is an insecure protocol that transmits credentials and data in cleartext, so blocking it is a common security practice to prevent unauthorized remote access and credential theft.
Option A is incorrect because this ACL entry specifically targets TCP port 23 rather than all TCP traffic. If the entry were access-list 100 deny tcp any any without the port specification, it would block all TCP traffic regardless of port. The eq 23 qualifier narrows the scope to only TCP connections destined for port 23. Most TCP traffic uses different ports like 80 for HTTP, 443 for HTTPS, and 22 for SSH, which would not match this entry and would be permitted assuming no other deny statements match and an explicit permit exists.
Option C is incorrect because HTTP uses TCP port 80, not port 23. An ACL entry blocking HTTP would specify eq 80 or eq www as the port qualifier. This entry specifically targets port 23 which is associated with Telnet. Understanding well-known port assignments is crucial for writing effective ACLs and interpreting their behavior. Port 80 HTTP traffic would not match this ACL entry.
Option D is incorrect because SSH uses TCP port 22, not port 23. While both SSH and Telnet provide remote access to network devices, SSH encrypts communications while Telnet does not, making SSH the preferred secure alternative. An ACL entry blocking SSH would specify eq 22 or eq ssh. Organizations often block Telnet while permitting SSH to enforce secure remote access practices.
Question 34:
Which type of attack involves an attacker intercepting communication between two parties and potentially altering messages without their knowledge?
A) Denial of Service
B) Man-in-the-Middle
C) SQL Injection
D) Cross-Site Scripting
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question examines your knowledge of common attack types and their characteristics. Understanding different attack vectors is fundamental to implementing appropriate security controls and recognizing security incidents.
Option B is correct because Man-in-the-Middle attacks occur when an attacker positions themselves between two communicating parties, intercepting and potentially modifying traffic without either party’s knowledge. MITM attacks can occur through various techniques including ARP spoofing on local networks where the attacker redirects traffic through their system, DNS spoofing to redirect users to malicious servers, rogue wireless access points that users unknowingly connect to, or SSL stripping that downgrades encrypted connections to cleartext. Once positioned in the middle, attackers can eavesdrop on sensitive communications like credentials or financial data, modify messages to alter transactions or inject malicious content, or impersonate either party to gain unauthorized access. MITM attacks are particularly dangerous because victims typically have no indication that communications are compromised. Defenses include using encryption with certificate validation, implementing mutual authentication, deploying network access control, and monitoring for ARP spoofing or unusual traffic patterns.
Option A is incorrect because Denial of Service attacks aim to disrupt availability by overwhelming systems or networks with traffic or requests, preventing legitimate users from accessing services. DoS attacks flood targets with packets, exhaust system resources, or exploit vulnerabilities to crash services. While DoS can be part of an attack campaign, it does not involve intercepting and modifying communications between parties. DoS focuses on availability rather than confidentiality or integrity of communications.
Option C is incorrect because SQL Injection attacks exploit web applications that improperly validate user input, allowing attackers to inject malicious SQL commands into database queries. Successful SQL injection enables attackers to extract, modify, or delete database contents, bypass authentication, or execute administrative operations. While serious, SQL injection targets application logic and database security rather than intercepting communications between parties. SQL injection is an application-layer attack rather than a network interception attack.
Option D is incorrect because Cross-Site Scripting attacks inject malicious scripts into web applications that other users’ browsers then execute, potentially stealing session cookies, capturing keystrokes, or redirecting users to malicious sites. XSS exploits trust users have in websites by causing browsers to execute attacker-controlled scripts in the context of legitimate sites. While XSS can compromise users, it does not involve positioning between communicating parties to intercept traffic. XSS targets users through compromised websites rather than network-level interception.
Question 35:
An organization wants to implement network segmentation to separate guest WiFi users from internal corporate resources. Which technology should be used?
A) VPN
B) VLAN
C) NAT
D) DHCP
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question tests your understanding of network segmentation technologies and which solution appropriately separates different user populations. Proper network segmentation is a fundamental security control that limits lateral movement and contains security incidents.
Option B is correct because VLANs provide logical network segmentation by dividing a physical network into multiple broadcast domains, allowing guest WiFi users to be isolated from corporate resources. VLANs operate at Layer 2 and segment networks without requiring separate physical infrastructure. By placing guest WiFi users in a dedicated VLAN, organizations prevent them from accessing corporate systems on different VLANs while still providing internet access. Inter-VLAN routing can be controlled through Layer 3 devices with access control lists that permit only necessary traffic between segments. This architecture protects corporate resources from potentially compromised guest devices while providing convenient guest access. Additional security controls for guest networks typically include separate DHCP scopes, internet-only routing, captive portals for authentication, bandwidth limitations, and session timeouts.
Option A is incorrect because VPNs create encrypted tunnels for secure remote access over untrusted networks, connecting remote users or sites to corporate networks. While VPNs are important for remote access security, they are not used for local network segmentation between guest and corporate users on the same physical infrastructure. VPNs would actually grant guests access to internal resources, which is opposite to the segmentation goal. VPNs serve a different purpose than network segmentation.
Option C is incorrect because NAT translates private IP addresses to public IP addresses for internet access, conserving public IP space and hiding internal addressing schemes. While NAT provides some security through obscurity by hiding internal addresses, it does not segment networks or prevent guests from accessing corporate resources if they are on the same network. NAT operates at Layer 3 and focuses on address translation rather than access control or segmentation. Proper segmentation requires VLANs and firewalling.
Option D is incorrect because DHCP automatically assigns IP addresses and network configuration to clients, simplifying network management. While guest and corporate networks would typically use separate DHCP scopes in different IP ranges, DHCP itself does not provide segmentation or access control. DHCP is a network services protocol that complements segmentation by assigning appropriate addresses to devices in different VLANs, but the actual segmentation is achieved through VLANs and routing controls.
Question 36:
Which protocol provides secure encrypted communication for remote device management, replacing insecure Telnet?
A) SNMP
B) SSH
C) HTTP
D) FTP
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question examines your knowledge of secure remote access protocols. Understanding which protocols provide secure communications is essential for protecting management interfaces and preventing credential theft.
Option B is correct because SSH provides secure encrypted remote access to network devices and servers, replacing Telnet for command-line management. SSH encrypts all communications including authentication credentials, commands, and output, preventing eavesdropping and man-in-the-middle attacks. SSH supports public key authentication for stronger security than passwords, provides integrity checking to detect tampering, and includes features like secure file transfer through SCP and SFTP. Modern network security best practices require disabling Telnet and using SSH exclusively for remote management. SSH operates on TCP port 22 by default and has become the standard for secure remote administration across networking, server, and security infrastructure.
Option A is incorrect because SNMP is used for network monitoring and device management through queries and notifications rather than interactive command-line access. While SNMPv3 provides encryption and authentication improvements over earlier versions, SNMP serves a different purpose than SSH. SNMP allows management systems to collect statistics, monitor device health, and configure settings through standardized management information bases, but it does not provide terminal access for interactive command execution. SNMP and SSH are complementary tools serving different management needs.
Option C is incorrect because HTTP is an unencrypted web protocol that transmits data in cleartext, making it unsuitable for secure device management. Some devices offer web-based management interfaces over HTTP, but this is insecure and should be replaced with HTTPS which adds SSL/TLS encryption. HTTP does not provide the command-line interface that SSH offers and transmits credentials and data without protection. Modern security standards prohibit HTTP for management access.
Option D is incorrect because FTP is an unencrypted file transfer protocol that transmits credentials and data in cleartext. While FTP can be used for transferring files to and from devices, it is not a remote management protocol for interactive command execution and lacks security. FTP should be replaced with secure alternatives like SFTP which runs over SSH or FTPS which adds TLS encryption. FTP serves a different purpose than remote terminal access.
Question 37:
An administrator needs to configure Cisco Umbrella to block access to malicious domains. Which enforcement method redirects DNS queries to Umbrella for filtering?
A) Web proxy
B) DNS forwarding to Umbrella resolvers
C) IP-based firewall rules
D) Email gateway
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question tests your understanding of Cisco Umbrella deployment architecture and how DNS-layer security operates. Umbrella provides security by controlling which domains users can resolve and access, requiring proper DNS configuration.
Option B is correct because Cisco Umbrella enforcement requires forwarding DNS queries from endpoints or network infrastructure to Umbrella’s cloud-based DNS resolvers which apply security policies before resolving domain names. When DNS queries reach Umbrella resolvers, they are checked against threat intelligence, security categories, and custom policies. Malicious domains are blocked by returning a blocked page IP address, preventing users from establishing connections to threats. Umbrella can be deployed through various methods including configuring endpoints with Umbrella roaming client for protection anywhere, pointing internal DNS servers to Umbrella resolvers as forwarders, implementing Umbrella virtual appliances that redirect DNS traffic, or configuring network devices to forward DNS queries to Umbrella. This DNS-layer security provides the first line of defense before connections are established, blocking access to phishing sites, malware distribution, command and control servers, and other threats.
Option A is incorrect because while Cisco Umbrella includes Secure Web Gateway functionality that provides proxy-based inspection of web traffic, the core DNS-layer security that blocks malicious domains operates through DNS query interception and filtering. Web proxy features provide additional inspection for allowed sites, enforcing acceptable use policies, scanning downloads, and inspecting HTTPS traffic, but the initial blocking of malicious domains occurs at the DNS layer. Organizations can deploy Umbrella with just DNS protection or combine it with proxy features for comprehensive coverage.
Option C is incorrect because IP-based firewall rules block specific IP addresses or ranges but do not provide the dynamic domain-based protection that Umbrella offers. Malicious domains frequently change IP addresses and use fast-flux techniques to evade IP-based blocking. Umbrella’s DNS-layer approach blocks based on domain reputation regardless of current IP address, providing more effective protection. While firewall rules complement Umbrella, they are not the mechanism for Umbrella enforcement.
Option D is incorrect because email gateway protects against email-borne threats like phishing and malware but is a separate security control from Umbrella’s DNS-layer protection. Cisco offers email security appliances that integrate with Umbrella threat intelligence, but email filtering is not the enforcement method for blocking malicious domains through DNS. Organizations typically deploy both email security and DNS security as complementary controls protecting different attack vectors.
Question 38:
Which Cisco technology provides visibility into encrypted traffic without decryption by analyzing characteristics of encrypted sessions?
A) Deep Packet Inspection
B) SSL/TLS Proxy
C) Encrypted Traffic Analytics (ETA)
D) Packet Capture
Answer: C
Explanation:
This question examines your knowledge of emerging security technologies that address the challenge of detecting threats in encrypted traffic without the privacy and performance concerns of decryption. Encrypted Traffic Analytics represents an innovative approach to this challenge.
Option C is correct because Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics uses machine learning to analyze metadata and statistical characteristics of encrypted traffic flows to detect malicious activity without decrypting content. ETA examines features like packet lengths and timing, byte distribution, sequence of packet sizes, and TLS handshake characteristics to identify patterns associated with malware, command and control communications, and other threats hiding in encryption. ETA operates passively by monitoring network traffic and applies trained models to classify flows as benign or suspicious. This approach preserves privacy by never exposing encrypted payload contents while still providing security visibility into encrypted communications that represent over 80 percent of modern network traffic. ETA integrates with Cisco platforms like Stealthwatch and can trigger automated responses when threats are detected.
Option A is incorrect because Deep Packet Inspection requires examining actual packet contents and payloads, which is impossible for encrypted traffic without decryption. DPI analyzes application-layer data to identify applications, extract content, and detect threats through signature matching and protocol analysis. While powerful for unencrypted traffic, DPI cannot see inside encryption. Organizations face the dilemma that enabling DPI for encrypted traffic requires decryption which raises privacy concerns, performance impacts, and complexity. ETA provides an alternative that gains security visibility without these drawbacks.
Option B is incorrect because SSL/TLS Proxy decrypts traffic for inspection and then re-encrypts it before forwarding, which is a completely different approach than analyzing encrypted traffic without decryption. SSL/TLS proxies act as man-in-the-middle to enable full inspection of encrypted payloads, requiring certificate trust configuration and significant processing resources. While SSL proxies enable thorough inspection, they introduce latency, require careful certificate management, may violate privacy expectations, and cannot inspect traffic using certificate pinning or mutual authentication. ETA avoids these issues by working without decryption.
Option D is incorrect because Packet Capture records complete network traffic for forensic analysis but cannot decrypt encrypted traffic either. Captures of encrypted traffic show encrypted payloads that are unreadable without proper keys. While packet captures are valuable for troubleshooting and investigating unencrypted protocols, they face the same limitations as DPI when dealing with encryption. Packet capture is a data collection technique rather than a threat detection technology.
Question 39:
An organization implements multi-factor authentication requiring users to provide a password and a one-time code from a mobile app. What authentication factors are being used?
A) Something you know and something you have
B) Something you have and something you are
C) Something you know and something you are
D) Two instances of something you know
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question tests your understanding of authentication factors and multi-factor authentication concepts. Proper authentication is a foundational security control, and understanding different factor types is essential for implementing effective access control.
Option A is correct because this scenario combines something you know (the password) with something you have (the mobile device generating one-time codes). Multi-factor authentication requires using factors from different categories to provide stronger security than single-factor authentication. Passwords represent knowledge factors that users memorize. One-time codes generated by authenticator apps on mobile devices represent possession factors because users must physically possess the device to obtain the code. Even if an attacker steals the password through phishing or keylogging, they cannot authenticate without also compromising the mobile device. This combination effectively protects against many common attacks including credential theft and password reuse across sites.
Option B is incorrect because while something you have is correct for the mobile device generating one-time codes, something you are refers to biometric factors like fingerprints, facial recognition, or iris scans, which are not part of this scenario. The password is something you know rather than something you are. Biometric factors measure physical or behavioral characteristics unique to individuals. Some mobile authenticator apps incorporate biometric authentication to unlock the device, but the one-time code itself is a possession factor.
Option C is incorrect because while something you know correctly describes the password, something you are would require a biometric factor which is not present in this scenario. The mobile app generating one-time codes represents something you have (possession) rather than something you are (biometrics). Understanding the distinction between possession factors and biometric factors is important for designing authentication systems and communicating security requirements.
Option D is incorrect because the two factors used are from different categories rather than two instances of the same factor type. Using two passwords would be two instances of something you know, which is not true multi-factor authentication and provides limited additional security since both factors could be compromised through the same attack method. True MFA requires combining factors from different categories so that compromising one factor does not enable access without the others.
Question 40:
Which Cisco security technology provides network device management through a centralized platform with role-based access control and change tracking?
A) Cisco DNA Center
B) Cisco Prime Infrastructure
C) Cisco Security Manager
D) Cisco ISE
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question examines your knowledge of Cisco network management platforms and their capabilities. Understanding which tools provide centralized management, monitoring, and configuration capabilities is important for efficient network operations.
Option B is correct because Cisco Prime Infrastructure provides centralized management for Cisco network devices including routers, switches, wireless controllers, and access points, with comprehensive lifecycle management capabilities. Prime Infrastructure offers features including automated device discovery and inventory management, configuration template deployment and change tracking, compliance monitoring and auditing, role-based access control for administrative functions, firmware management and updates, performance monitoring and troubleshooting, and reporting and analytics. The platform maintains historical configuration versions, tracks who made changes and when, and can rollback configurations if needed. RBAC ensures administrators have appropriate access levels based on responsibilities, supporting separation of duties and audit requirements.
Option A is incorrect because while Cisco DNA Center provides intent-based networking and automation capabilities for enterprise networks, it focuses more on SD-Access fabric deployment, policy-based segmentation, and network assurance rather than traditional configuration management with detailed change tracking. DNA Center represents the next-generation management platform with emphasis on automation and analytics. While DNA Center manages network devices, Prime Infrastructure remains the primary platform for traditional configuration management and change tracking in many deployments.
Option C is incorrect because Cisco Security Manager is specifically designed for managing security devices like firewalls, IPS sensors, and VPN concentrators rather than general network infrastructure. Security Manager provides centralized policy management and configuration deployment for security appliances but does not manage routing, switching, and wireless infrastructure. While Security Manager includes change tracking and RBAC for security device management, it serves a different purpose than comprehensive network infrastructure management.
Option D is incorrect because Cisco ISE is an identity services engine that provides network access control, guest management, device profiling, and policy enforcement rather than network device configuration management. ISE authenticates users and devices, determines their authorization based on identity and posture, and dynamically assigns network access policies through mechanisms like dynamic VLAN assignment and Security Group Tags. While ISE is central to identity-based security, it does not provide configuration management and change tracking for network devices.
Question 41:
An administrator configures a Cisco ASA firewall with the command: nat (inside,outside) dynamic interface. What does this NAT configuration accomplish?
A) Creates a static one-to-one NAT mapping
B) Configures Port Address Translation for inside hosts using the outside interface IP
C) Disables NAT for the specified traffic
D) Creates a destination NAT rule
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question tests your understanding of Cisco ASA NAT configuration syntax and specifically dynamic NAT with interface PAT. Understanding NAT types and configurations is essential for connecting internal networks to the internet and managing IP address utilization.
Option B is correct because this command configures dynamic Port Address Translation that allows multiple inside hosts to share the outside interface IP address when accessing the internet. Breaking down the syntax: nat specifies a NAT rule, the parenthetical (inside,outside) indicates source interface and destination interface, dynamic means addresses are translated dynamically as connections are initiated rather than using static mappings, and interface specifies that the outside interface’s IP address should be used as the translated address. PAT adds unique source port numbers to enable multiple inside hosts to share a single public IP simultaneously. When inside hosts initiate outbound connections, the ASA translates their private IP addresses to the public IP of the outside interface and assigns unique source ports to track each connection, enabling return traffic to be properly delivered to the originating host.
Option A is incorrect because static NAT creates permanent one-to-one mappings between specific inside and outside addresses, typically used for servers that need consistent public addresses. Static NAT would use the keyword static rather than dynamic. The command shown uses dynamic NAT which creates temporary translations as needed, sharing addresses across multiple hosts rather than dedicating addresses. Static NAT is appropriate for published servers while dynamic PAT is efficient for general internet access from many hosts.
Option C is incorrect because this command enables NAT translation rather than disabling it. To exempt traffic from NAT, administrators would use nat (inside,outside) source static with matching source and destination addresses, or use identity NAT configurations. The dynamic interface keyword specifically activates translation using the interface address. Understanding when to exempt traffic from NAT, such as for VPN traffic or when both sites use non-overlapping private addresses, is important for proper connectivity.
Option D is incorrect because this creates source NAT which translates source addresses of inside-originated traffic rather than destination NAT which translates destination addresses of inbound traffic. Destination NAT is typically used with static statements for port forwarding or publishing internal servers. The command shown affects outbound traffic from inside hosts accessing outside resources rather than inbound traffic to internal servers. Understanding the distinction between source and destination NAT is crucial for implementing correct NAT policies.
Question 42:
Which security principle states that users should only have the minimum access necessary to perform their job functions?
A) Defense in depth
B) Least privilege
C) Separation of duties
D) Need to know
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question examines your understanding of fundamental security principles that guide access control decisions and security policy design. These principles form the foundation of effective security programs and compliance frameworks.
Option B is correct because the principle of least privilege requires that users, processes, and systems be granted only the minimum access rights and permissions necessary to accomplish required tasks. Least privilege limits potential damage from accidents, errors, or malicious actions by restricting what authorized users can do. Implementing least privilege involves identifying minimum permissions needed for each role, regularly reviewing access rights, removing unnecessary permissions, using time-limited elevated access for administrative tasks, and applying the principle to both user accounts and service accounts. Least privilege reduces attack surface by ensuring compromised accounts have limited capabilities and supports compliance with regulations requiring access controls. Organizations implement least privilege through role-based access control, privileged access management, and regular access reviews.
Option A is incorrect because defense in depth is the security strategy of implementing multiple layers of controls so that if one fails, others continue providing protection. Defense in depth involves deploying complementary security controls at different layers including network perimeter, internal segmentation, endpoint protection, application security, and data encryption. While important, defense in depth is about layered security architecture rather than specifically limiting user access to minimum necessary rights. Defense in depth and least privilege are complementary principles that work together in comprehensive security programs.
Option C is incorrect because separation of duties requires that critical functions be divided among multiple people so that no single person can complete sensitive transactions alone. Separation of duties prevents fraud and errors by requiring collusion for unauthorized actions. Examples include requiring different people to initiate and approve payments, separating development and production access, and dividing security administration roles. While related to access control, separation of duties focuses on distributing responsibilities rather than minimizing individual access rights.
Option D is incorrect because need to know is an information security principle requiring that access to classified or sensitive information be restricted to those with legitimate requirements for that information to perform their duties. Need to know is similar to least privilege but specifically applies to information access rather than broader system permissions. Need to know is commonly used in government and military contexts with classified information, while least privilege is a more general principle applied across all access control decisions.
Question 43:
An organization implements Cisco ISE for network access control. Which component authenticates users and enforces security policies?
A) Policy Service Node (PSN)
B) Monitoring Node
C) Administration Node
D) Inline Posture Node
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question tests your understanding of Cisco ISE architecture and the functions of different node types. ISE deployments scale across multiple nodes with specific roles, and understanding these roles is essential for proper deployment and troubleshooting.
Option A is correct because Policy Service Nodes perform the runtime authentication, authorization, and policy evaluation functions in ISE deployments. PSNs receive RADIUS authentication requests from network devices, authenticate users against identity stores like Active Directory or internal databases, evaluate authorization policies based on identity and context, return authorization results with security group tags or VLAN assignments, perform device profiling to identify endpoint types, and conduct posture assessment to verify endpoint compliance. In distributed ISE deployments, multiple PSNs provide redundancy and load distribution for authentication traffic. Network devices are configured to use PSNs as RADIUS servers, and PSNs handle all real-time policy decisions that enforce network access control.
Option B is incorrect because Monitoring Nodes collect and store logging and reporting data from PSNs but do not perform authentication or policy enforcement themselves. Monitoring nodes provide centralized visibility into authentication activity, policy hits, endpoint sessions, and security posture across the network. Administrators use monitoring nodes for troubleshooting authentication failures, generating compliance reports, and analyzing trends. While monitoring is essential for operations, the actual authentication and policy enforcement occurs on PSNs which forward logs to monitoring nodes.
Option C is incorrect because Administration Nodes provide the management interface for configuring policies, managing certificates, maintaining identity stores, and administering the ISE deployment, but do not process authentication requests. Administrators connect to administration nodes through the web interface or CLI to configure system settings, define authorization policies, create network device configurations, and manage user identities. Administration nodes synchronize configuration to PSNs which then enforce those policies during authentication. Separating administration from policy enforcement enhances security and scalability.
Option D is incorrect because Inline Posture Nodes are not a standard ISE component. ISE posture assessment, which verifies endpoint security compliance, is performed by PSNs which can operate in either agent-based mode using AnyConnect or agentless mode using network scanning. The term inline posture node might be confused with ISE Passive Identity Connector or other components, but PSNs handle posture assessment along with authentication and authorization functions.
Question 44:
Which type of malware encrypts victim files and demands payment for the decryption key?
A) Trojan horse
B) Worm
C) Ransomware
D) Rootkit
Answer: C
Explanation:
This question examines your knowledge of malware types and their characteristics. Understanding different malware categories helps security professionals recognize threats, implement appropriate defenses, and respond effectively to incidents.
Option C is correct because ransomware is malicious software that encrypts victim files or locks systems and demands payment, typically in cryptocurrency, for decryption keys to restore access. Ransomware has become one of the most significant cybersecurity threats facing organizations, causing operational disruption, financial losses, and potential data breaches. Modern ransomware variants often combine encryption with data exfiltration, threatening to publish sensitive information if ransom is not paid, creating double extortion scenarios. Ransomware spreads through various vectors including phishing emails with malicious attachments, exploitation of vulnerabilities in internet-facing systems, compromised remote desktop services, and malicious websites. Defense requires multiple layers including user awareness training, email security, endpoint protection, network segmentation, regular backups stored offline, and vulnerability management.
Option A is incorrect because Trojan horses are malicious programs disguised as legitimate software that trick users into executing them, providing attackers with unauthorized access or enabling other malicious activities. While some Trojans deliver ransomware as payload, the Trojan itself is the delivery mechanism rather than the ransomware functionality. Trojans can serve various purposes including creating backdoors, stealing credentials, logging keystrokes, or downloading additional malware. Understanding the distinction between delivery mechanisms and payloads helps in analyzing attacks and implementing appropriate controls.
Option B is incorrect because worms are self-replicating malware that spread automatically across networks without user interaction, exploiting vulnerabilities to propagate to other systems. Famous examples include the Morris worm, Conficker, and WannaCry which combined worm and ransomware characteristics. While WannaCry demonstrated that ransomware can include worm capabilities, worms are defined by their self-replication behavior rather than encryption and extortion. Worms cause damage through rapid spread, resource consumption, and network congestion in addition to their specific payloads.
Option D is incorrect because rootkits are malware designed to hide their presence and provide persistent privileged access by modifying operating system components. Rootkits operate at low levels including kernel mode to evade detection by security software, hiding processes, files, and network connections. While sophisticated ransomware might use rootkit techniques to evade detection, rootkits are defined by their stealth and persistence rather than encryption and extortion. Rootkit detection requires specialized tools that can identify system modifications and compare against known-good baselines.
Question 45:
An administrator needs to configure Cisco Firepower to inspect SSL/TLS encrypted traffic for threats. Which policy must be configured?
A) Access Control Policy
B) SSL Policy
C) Intrusion Policy
D) Network Analysis Policy
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question tests your understanding of Cisco Firepower SSL inspection capabilities and the configuration required to enable encrypted traffic inspection. With most internet traffic now encrypted, the ability to inspect SSL/TLS traffic is critical for detecting threats hiding in encryption.
Option B is correct because SSL Policy in Cisco Firepower defines how encrypted traffic is handled, including which traffic to decrypt for inspection, which to allow without decryption, and which to block. SSL policies evaluate encrypted connections based on criteria including source and destination addresses, port, application, and certificate information, then apply actions such as decrypt and inspect where traffic is decrypted using man-in-the-middle techniques for full inspection, decrypt and inspect with known key when organizations provide private keys, do not decrypt to allow privacy-sensitive traffic, or block to prevent connections to untrusted certificates. Decryption enables security profiles like intrusion prevention, file inspection, and application control to examine encrypted content for threats. SSL policy configuration requires careful consideration of privacy requirements, certificate management, performance impacts, and which traffic genuinely requires inspection versus exemption.
Option A is incorrect because while Access Control Policy defines overall traffic handling and invokes inspection services, SSL decryption is specifically configured in SSL Policy. Access Control Policies reference SSL Policies to determine decryption behavior before applying intrusion prevention or file inspection. The access control policy defines which traffic is allowed and what inspection to apply, but the SSL policy specifically controls decryption. Organizations configure SSL policies and then reference them from access control rules that apply to encrypted traffic.
Option C is incorrect because Intrusion Policy defines which intrusion prevention signatures and preprocessors are enabled to detect attacks, but it cannot decrypt traffic. Intrusion policies operate on decrypted traffic after SSL policy has performed decryption. Without SSL decryption, intrusion prevention sees only encrypted payloads and cannot detect threats hiding in encryption. SSL policy must decrypt traffic first, then intrusion policy can inspect the decrypted content. Effective threat detection in encrypted traffic requires both SSL decryption and intrusion inspection working together.
Option D is incorrect because Network Analysis Policy configures preprocessors that normalize traffic and prepare it for intrusion detection, including protocol decoding and flow tracking. Network analysis policies operate at the network and transport layers, handling protocol normalization before pattern matching occurs. While network analysis policies are important for intrusion detection, they do not handle SSL/TLS decryption. Encrypted traffic must be decrypted by SSL policy before network analysis preprocessors and intrusion detection can examine content.