CompTIA 220-1101 A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 8 Q 106-120
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Question 106:
A technician is troubleshooting a computer that is experiencing slow performance. The technician notices that the hard drive LED is constantly illuminated. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) The CPU is overheating
B) The system is experiencing excessive disk thrashing
C) The RAM modules are failing
D) The power supply is insufficient
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a computer exhibits slow performance accompanied by a constantly illuminated hard drive LED, this is a classic indicator of excessive disk activity. Understanding the relationship between system performance, memory management, and disk usage is crucial for effective troubleshooting in desktop and laptop environments.
The constantly lit hard drive LED indicates continuous read and write operations to the storage device. This symptom, combined with slow system performance, strongly suggests disk thrashing. Disk thrashing occurs when the system’s physical RAM is insufficient to handle current workload demands, forcing the operating system to constantly swap data between RAM and the hard drive’s page file or swap partition. This excessive paging activity creates a bottleneck because hard drives, even modern SSDs, are significantly slower than RAM. Traditional hard disk drives (HDDs) are particularly susceptible to performance degradation during thrashing due to mechanical seek times and rotational latency.
The Windows operating system uses virtual memory management, which relies on a page file stored on the hard drive. When physical RAM is exhausted, the memory manager moves least-recently-used pages from RAM to the page file to free up space for active processes. If RAM is severely constrained, the system enters a thrashing state where it spends more time moving data between RAM and disk than executing actual program instructions. This results in the characteristic symptoms of constant hard drive activity and severely degraded system responsiveness.
A is incorrect because CPU overheating typically causes system instability, unexpected shutdowns, or thermal throttling that reduces clock speeds. While this could contribute to slow performance, it would not directly cause the constant hard drive LED illumination. CPU temperature issues are usually accompanied by increased fan noise and can be verified through BIOS monitoring or system utilities.
C is incorrect because failing RAM modules typically cause system crashes, blue screens of death (BSOD), application errors, or memory corruption rather than specifically causing constant disk activity. RAM failures manifest as random freezes, data corruption, or failed POST with beep codes, not sustained hard drive usage patterns.
D is incorrect because an insufficient power supply would cause system instability, random reboots, or failure to power on completely. Power supply issues don’t specifically correlate with constant disk activity patterns. A failing PSU might cause components to malfunction intermittently but wouldn’t create the sustained disk thrashing pattern described.
The appropriate solution involves identifying memory-intensive processes through Task Manager, adding additional RAM, closing unnecessary applications, or upgrading to an SSD to minimize the performance impact of paging operations.
Question 107:
A user reports that a laptop’s battery is draining quickly even when the laptop is in sleep mode. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?
A) Power management settings
B) Battery health status
C) Running background applications
D) BIOS version
Answer: A
Explanation:
When troubleshooting excessive battery drain during sleep mode, the most logical first step is examining power management settings. This approach follows proper troubleshooting methodology by checking software configurations before investigating hardware issues or performing more invasive diagnostics. Understanding how operating systems manage power states is essential for resolving battery-related issues effectively.
Modern laptops support multiple power states defined by the Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) standard. Sleep mode, also called S3 or Suspend-to-RAM, should consume minimal power by maintaining only essential components like RAM while powering down most other hardware. However, misconfigured power settings can prevent proper sleep state entry or cause frequent wake events that drain the battery unexpectedly.
Power management settings control numerous behaviors that affect battery consumption during sleep. Wake timers allow scheduled tasks, updates, or maintenance activities to wake the computer from sleep automatically. Network adapters configured for Wake-on-LAN can trigger system wake events. USB devices with wake capabilities may cause unintended system activation. Fast Startup in Windows can interfere with proper sleep state transitions. Additionally, hybrid sleep settings blend sleep and hibernation modes, potentially causing unexpected power consumption patterns.
The Windows Power Options control panel provides access to advanced power settings including sleep state configurations, wake timer permissions, and device-specific power management options. The Command Prompt utility «powercfg» offers detailed diagnostics, including the «powercfg /requests» command to identify processes preventing sleep and «powercfg /lastwake» to determine what triggered the last wake event. The Event Viewer logs power state transitions and wake events under System logs with Power-Troubleshooter source entries.
B is incorrect as the first step because while battery health degradation can cause rapid discharge, it affects battery life during active use and sleep equally. Checking battery health through built-in diagnostics or third-party tools is appropriate after ruling out configuration issues, as it requires additional software or hardware testing.
C is incorrect because running applications primarily affect battery life during active use rather than during proper sleep mode. When the system enters true sleep state, applications are suspended and consume negligible power. Background applications would only be relevant if power settings are preventing proper sleep entry.
D is incorrect because BIOS version updates rarely address sleep-related battery drain issues unless there’s a specific known firmware bug. BIOS updates carry risks and should only be performed when specifically indicated by manufacturer bulletins addressing the exact symptoms experienced.
Question 108:
Which of the following connector types is used for fiber optic connections?
A) RJ45
B) BNC
C) LC
D) F-connector
Answer: C
Explanation:
Fiber optic technology uses specialized connectors designed specifically for optical fiber cables, which transmit data using light pulses rather than electrical signals. Understanding the various connector types and their applications is fundamental knowledge for the CompTIA A+ certification and essential for network infrastructure work.
The LC (Lucent Connector or Local Connector) is a small form-factor fiber optic connector that has become the industry standard for modern network installations. LC connectors use a 1.25mm ferrule, making them approximately half the size of older SC connectors. They feature a push-pull latching mechanism similar to RJ45 connectors, providing secure connections while allowing easy insertion and removal. LC connectors are commonly found in simplex (single fiber) or duplex (paired fiber) configurations, with duplex LC connectors being standard for bidirectional communication in network switches, media converters, and fiber network interface cards.
Fiber optic connectors serve the critical function of precisely aligning fiber cores to minimize signal loss and maintain transmission quality. The ferrule, typically made of ceramic or polymer, holds the fiber strand and ensures accurate positioning during connection. Proper connector installation requires specialized tools including fiber strippers, cleavers, and polishing equipment to achieve the mirror-smooth end-face finish necessary for optimal light transmission. Modern installations increasingly use pre-terminated fiber assemblies to ensure consistent quality and reduce installation time.
Other common fiber optic connector types include SC (Subscriber Connector) with its larger square form factor and push-pull design, ST (Straight Tip) featuring a bayonet-style twist-lock mechanism popular in legacy installations, and MTRJ (Mechanical Transfer Registered Jack) which combines both transmit and receive fibers in a single small form-factor connector resembling RJ45.
A is incorrect because RJ45 connectors are used exclusively for copper Ethernet cables, specifically unshielded twisted pair (UTP) and shielded twisted pair (STP) Category 5e, Category 6, and higher rated cables. RJ45 connectors feature eight pins arranged in a specific configuration for transmitting electrical signals over copper conductors.
B is incorrect because BNC (Bayonet Neill-Concelman) connectors are used for coaxial copper cables, commonly found in older Ethernet implementations like 10Base2 networks, video applications, and RF connections. BNC connectors use a twist-lock bayonet coupling mechanism for secure connections.
D is incorrect because F-connectors are coaxial cable connectors primarily used for cable television, satellite television, and cable modem connections. These screw-on connectors are designed for RG6 or RG59 coaxial cables carrying RF signals rather than optical transmissions.
Question 109:
A technician needs to configure a SOHO wireless router for a small office. The office manager wants to ensure that only specific devices can connect to the network. Which of the following security features should the technician implement?
A) WPA3 encryption
B) SSID broadcast disabling
C) MAC address filtering
D) Port forwarding
Answer: C
Explanation:
When implementing network security controls to restrict network access to specific authorized devices, MAC address filtering provides device-level access control at the network interface layer. Understanding the various wireless security mechanisms and their appropriate applications is crucial for securing small office and home office (SOHO) network environments effectively.
MAC (Media Access Control) address filtering creates an access control list on the wireless router that explicitly permits or denies network access based on the unique hardware address assigned to each network interface card. Every network-capable device possesses a unique 48-bit MAC address burned into its firmware, typically displayed in hexadecimal format as six pairs of characters (for example, 00:1A:2B:3C:4D:5E). By configuring the router to maintain a whitelist of approved MAC addresses, the technician ensures that only devices whose MAC addresses appear on the approved list can associate with the wireless access point and obtain network connectivity.
Implementation involves accessing the router’s administrative interface, navigating to the wireless security or MAC filtering section, enabling the MAC filtering feature, and manually entering each authorized device’s MAC address. Most SOHO routers display currently connected devices with their MAC addresses, simplifying the initial list creation. The filtering can operate in whitelist mode (only listed devices allowed) or blacklist mode (listed devices blocked), with whitelist being more secure for this requirement.
However, MAC filtering should be understood as part of a layered security approach rather than a standalone solution. While it provides an additional barrier against unauthorized access, MAC addresses can be spoofed by determined attackers using readily available software tools. Therefore, MAC filtering works best when combined with strong encryption protocols and robust password policies to create defense-in-depth security architecture.
A is incorrect for this specific requirement because while WPA3 encryption provides excellent wireless security through strong encryption and authentication mechanisms, it doesn’t restrict access to specific devices. Any device possessing the correct network password can connect to a WPA3-protected network. WPA3 is essential for protecting data confidentiality and integrity but doesn’t provide device-specific access control.
B is incorrect because disabling SSID broadcast only hides the network name from casual discovery, employing security through obscurity rather than actual access control. Devices can still connect if they know the network name, and the hidden SSID can be easily discovered using wireless network scanning tools. This measure doesn’t restrict which specific devices can connect.
D is incorrect because port forwarding is a router configuration that directs incoming traffic from the internet to specific internal network devices. It’s used for hosting services or enabling remote access to internal resources, not for controlling which devices can connect to the wireless network. Port forwarding addresses inbound connection routing rather than client access control.
Question 110:
A user’s computer is displaying a «No Boot Device Found» error message. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?
A) Boot order in BIOS
B) Hard drive cables
C) Operating system installation
D) RAM modules
Answer: A
Explanation:
When encountering a «No Boot Device Found» or similar boot failure error, the most efficient first troubleshooting step is verifying the BIOS boot order configuration. This approach follows the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology of checking simple, non-invasive solutions before progressing to more complex hardware diagnostics or component replacement procedures.
The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) or its modern replacement UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) contains boot configuration settings that determine which storage devices the system attempts to boot from and in what sequence. The boot order defines the priority list of bootable devices, including internal hard drives, solid-state drives, optical drives, USB devices, and network boot options. If the boot order is incorrectly configured, the system may attempt to boot from devices that don’t contain bootable operating systems, resulting in boot failure errors even when the primary boot drive is functioning perfectly.
Several scenarios commonly cause boot order misconfiguration. User intervention in BIOS settings, either intentional or accidental, can change boot priorities. USB devices left connected during startup can take boot precedence if USB boot is prioritized. BIOS settings may reset to defaults after CMOS battery failure, firmware updates, or motherboard component changes. Some systems automatically adjust boot order when new storage devices are added, potentially displacing the original boot drive in the priority sequence.
Accessing BIOS setup typically requires pressing a specific key during the initial power-on self-test (POST) screen, commonly Delete, F2, F10, or F12, depending on the manufacturer. Within the BIOS interface, the boot configuration section displays available boot devices and allows priority adjustment. The technician should verify that the device containing the operating system appears in the boot device list and is set as the first boot priority. If the correct drive appears but isn’t first priority, simply reordering the boot sequence may immediately resolve the issue without any hardware intervention.
B is incorrect as the first check because while loose or failed hard drive cables can certainly cause boot failures, this requires opening the computer case and physically inspecting connections. Following proper troubleshooting methodology, software and configuration checks should precede hardware inspection. Additionally, if cables were completely disconnected, the drive wouldn’t typically appear in BIOS at all.
C is incorrect because operating system installation issues would present different error messages, typically indicating missing or corrupted system files rather than «No Boot Device Found.» This error specifically indicates the system cannot locate any bootable device, not that it found a device but encountered OS-level problems. Reinstalling the operating system is a time-consuming last resort after eliminating simpler causes.
D is incorrect because RAM module failures typically prevent the system from completing POST or cause beep code errors rather than specifically generating boot device errors. Failed RAM usually results in no display output, continuous beeping, or memory-related error messages. The system must successfully pass POST and reach the boot phase to display boot device errors.
Question 111:
Which of the following cloud service models provides users with access to applications over the internet without needing to install software locally?
A) IaaS
B) SaaS
C) PaaS
D) DaaS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cloud computing service models are categorized based on the level of control, management responsibility, and abstraction they provide to users. Understanding these models is essential for making appropriate technology decisions and effectively supporting modern computing environments where traditional local applications are increasingly replaced by cloud-based alternatives.
SaaS (Software as a Service) represents the highest level of abstraction in cloud service delivery models. In this model, complete applications are hosted by cloud providers and accessed by users through web browsers or thin client applications over the internet. The provider manages all aspects of the infrastructure, platform, and application layers, including servers, storage, networking, operating systems, middleware, runtime environments, and the application software itself. Users simply access the fully functional application through a web interface without concerning themselves with installation, configuration, updates, or maintenance activities.
Common examples of SaaS applications include Microsoft Office 365, Google Workspace, Salesforce, Dropbox, Zoom, and Adobe Creative Cloud. These services exemplify the SaaS model’s key characteristics: subscription-based pricing, automatic updates managed by the provider, multi-tenant architecture where multiple customers share infrastructure resources, accessibility from any internet-connected device, and elimination of local installation and maintenance requirements. SaaS applications typically offer APIs for integration with other services and provide configurable options to meet different business requirements while maintaining the core application centrally.
The SaaS model offers significant advantages including reduced IT overhead, predictable operational expenses, rapid deployment without hardware procurement, automatic scaling to accommodate usage changes, and guaranteed access to the latest application versions. Users can focus on utilizing the software rather than managing technical infrastructure. However, organizations must consider data security, vendor lock-in risks, internet connectivity dependencies, and limited customization options compared to locally installed software.
A is incorrect because IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) provides virtualized computing resources including servers, storage, and networking as a service. Users receive virtual machines and associated infrastructure but must install, configure, and manage their own operating systems and applications. Examples include Amazon EC2, Microsoft Azure Virtual Machines, and Google Compute Engine. IaaS requires significantly more user management than SaaS.
C is incorrect because PaaS (Platform as a Service) provides a development and deployment platform including operating systems, programming language runtimes, databases, and web servers. Developers use PaaS to build and deploy custom applications without managing underlying infrastructure, but unlike SaaS, users must still develop or deploy their own applications. Examples include Heroku, Google App Engine, and Azure App Service.
D is incorrect because DaaS (Desktop as a Service) provides virtual desktop infrastructure where entire desktop environments are hosted in the cloud and streamed to endpoint devices. While users access these desktops remotely similar to SaaS, DaaS provides complete desktop environments rather than specific applications. Examples include Amazon WorkSpaces and Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops.
Question 112:
A technician is installing a new internal hard drive in a desktop computer. The drive uses a 15-pin power connector. Which of the following power connector types is required?
A) Molex
B) SATA power
C) PCIe power
D) ATX 4-pin
Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding power connector types and their applications is fundamental knowledge for computer hardware installation and troubleshooting. Modern storage devices require appropriate power delivery through standardized connector interfaces, and identifying the correct connector type prevents installation errors and potential hardware damage.
The SATA power connector is a 15-pin L-shaped connector specifically designed to provide electrical power to SATA (Serial ATA) storage devices including hard disk drives, solid-state drives, and optical drives. The distinctive 15-pin configuration delivers three separate voltage rails: +3.3V, +5V, and +12V, with each voltage level assigned five pins (three active conductors and two ground returns) to ensure adequate current capacity. The L-shaped design provides keying to prevent incorrect insertion and ensures proper orientation during installation.
SATA power connectors emerged with the SATA interface standard to replace older Molex connectors, offering several improvements including better contact reliability, improved current capacity, additional voltage options, and a more compact profile suitable for modern case designs. The connector features a friction-fit design that provides secure retention without requiring screws or additional fasteners. The +3.3V rail specifically supports low-power devices and newer storage technologies, though many devices utilize only the +5V and +12V rails.
Power supplies manufactured in the last fifteen years typically include multiple SATA power connectors, often arranged in cable chains with multiple connectors per cable to support systems with numerous storage devices. The cables are specifically designed with appropriate wire gauge to handle the current requirements of multiple devices. When installing storage devices, proper cable management ensures adequate airflow, prevents cable strain on connectors, and maintains an organized interior for future maintenance.
A is incorrect because Molex connectors, properly called AMP MATE-N-LOK or peripheral power connectors, feature only four pins arranged in a rectangular configuration. These older-style connectors provide +5V and +12V power rails and were standard for IDE/PATA hard drives, optical drives, and case fans before SATA adoption. While Molex-to-SATA adapters exist, the native SATA power connector is the correct answer for modern SATA drives.
C is incorrect because PCIe (PCI Express) power connectors are specialized high-current connectors designed exclusively for graphics cards and other power-hungry expansion cards. These connectors come in 6-pin and 8-pin (6+2 pin) configurations delivering significantly higher current capacity than storage device requirements. PCIe power connectors are incompatible with storage device power requirements both physically and electrically.
D is incorrect because the ATX 4-pin connector, also called the P4 or ATX12V connector, is a square four-pin connector that provides additional +12V power directly to the CPU voltage regulator module on the motherboard. Modern systems use 4-pin, 8-pin (4+4 pin), or even dual 8-pin configurations for CPU power. This connector serves an entirely different purpose than storage device power delivery.
Question 113:
Which of the following display technologies provides the BEST color accuracy and viewing angles?
A) TN (Twisted Nematic)
B) VA (Vertical Alignment)
C) IPS (In-Plane Switching)
D) OLED
Answer: D
Explanation:
Display technology selection significantly impacts visual quality, user experience, and suitability for specific applications. Understanding the characteristics, advantages, and limitations of various panel technologies enables appropriate recommendations for different use cases, from professional content creation requiring color accuracy to gaming applications prioritizing response time.
OLED (Organic Light-Emitting Diode) technology represents the pinnacle of current display technology for color accuracy and viewing angles. Unlike LCD-based technologies that require backlighting, OLED displays feature self-emissive pixels where each pixel produces its own light through organic compounds that emit light when electrical current is applied. This fundamental architectural difference provides several critical advantages: perfect black levels since pixels can completely turn off, infinite contrast ratios, superior color accuracy with wider color gamuts often exceeding 100% of DCI-P3 and approaching or exceeding Adobe RGB, virtually unlimited viewing angles with no color shift or brightness degradation, and extremely fast response times.
OLED’s per-pixel illumination control enables precise color reproduction because each subpixel’s intensity can be controlled independently without backlight interference or light bleeding between pixels. Professional colorists, photographers, video editors, and graphic designers prefer OLED displays for color-critical work due to their exceptional accuracy and ability to display true blacks essential for evaluating shadow detail. The technology supports HDR (High Dynamic Range) content exceptionally well, displaying the full range from true black to peak brightness within a single frame.
Viewing angles on OLED displays remain consistent across nearly 180 degrees both horizontally and vertically, maintaining color accuracy and contrast regardless of viewer position. This contrasts sharply with LCD technologies that exhibit color shifting, brightness reduction, or contrast degradation when viewed from angles. OLED’s superior viewing angle performance benefits collaborative work environments, living room displays, and any situation where viewers aren’t positioned directly centered.
A is incorrect because TN (Twisted Nematic) panels represent the oldest LCD technology with the poorest color accuracy and most limited viewing angles among modern options. TN panels typically cover only 90-100% of sRGB color space, exhibit significant color shifting at even moderate viewing angles, and show brightness reduction when viewed off-axis. However, TN panels offer advantages in response time and cost, making them popular for competitive gaming despite their color limitations.
B is incorrect because while VA (Vertical Alignment) panels provide better color accuracy and viewing angles than TN panels, they still fall short of OLED performance. VA panels offer superior contrast ratios compared to IPS and good black levels for LCD technology, but viewing angles remain limited with noticeable color shifting and contrast reduction at angles. VA panels occupy a middle ground between TN and IPS technologies.
C is incorrect although IPS (In-Plane Switching) panels offer excellent color accuracy and wide viewing angles, representing the best LCD technology option. IPS panels typically achieve 95-100% sRGB coverage with higher-end models reaching DCI-P3 gamuts, and maintain color consistency across approximately 178-degree viewing angles. However, IPS still cannot match OLED’s perfect blacks, infinite contrast, or completely uniform viewing angle performance due to backlight-based architecture limitations.
Question 114:
A user reports that their smartphone is not charging when connected to the charging cable. The cable and adapter work with other devices. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) Faulty battery
B) Debris in the charging port
C) Corrupted operating system
D) Damaged display
Answer: B
Explanation:
When troubleshooting mobile device charging issues where the charging accessories function correctly with other devices, the problem is isolated to the device itself rather than external components. Following systematic troubleshooting methodology requires examining the most common and easily addressed causes before considering more serious hardware failures or complex solutions.
Debris accumulation in the charging port represents the most frequent cause of charging failures in smartphones and tablets. Mobile devices carried in pockets, bags, and various environments constantly collect lint, dust, dirt, and other particulate matter. The charging port, being an exposed opening, acts as a collection point for this debris. Over time, compressed material builds up in the port’s recesses, preventing the charging cable connector from fully inserting and making proper electrical contact with the internal pins.
The problem manifests identically to complete charging failure: the device doesn’t recognize the charger connection, no charging indicator appears, and battery percentage doesn’t increase. Users often conclude the port or device has failed when the actual issue is simply obstruction preventing connection. The Lightning port in Apple devices and USB-C ports in Android devices are particularly susceptible due to their compact designs and internal contact arrangements.
Inspection and cleaning require careful technique to avoid damaging delicate internal components. Using a bright flashlight, technicians should visually inspect the port for visible accumulation. Compressed air can dislodge loose debris, though care must be taken with pressure levels. For compacted material, a wooden or plastic toothpick allows gentle scraping along the port bottom without risking electrical shorts from conductive metal tools. Isopropyl alcohol on foam swabs can help dissolve sticky residue. After cleaning, the cable should insert fully with an audible click and firm seating.
A is incorrect as the most likely first cause because battery failures typically manifest gradually with shortened battery life, rapid discharge, or unexpected shutdowns rather than complete inability to charge. Modern smartphones include battery management systems that would typically still indicate charging attempts even with degraded batteries. Battery replacement becomes appropriate after eliminating simpler external causes. Additionally, sudden complete battery failure is relatively rare compared to port contamination.
C is incorrect because operating system corruption affects software functionality but doesn’t prevent the hardware charging circuitry from functioning. Even with completely corrupted or missing operating systems, devices typically still charge at the hardware level since charging controllers operate independently from the main processor and OS. The device might not boot, but physical charging would still occur if hardware connections are intact.
D is incorrect because display damage, whether physical cracks or internal LCD failure, doesn’t affect the charging system’s operation. The charging circuitry, port, and battery operate independently from display components. A damaged display would prevent seeing charging indicators, but the device would still charge if connections were intact. Users could verify charging through other indicators like heat generation or increased battery percentage after extended connection.
Question 115:
Which of the following wireless encryption protocols is the MOST secure?
A) WEP
B) WPA
C) WPA2
D) WPA3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Wireless network security has evolved significantly over the past two decades as vulnerabilities in encryption protocols have been discovered and new cryptographic methods developed. Understanding the progression of wireless security standards enables proper network configuration and helps organizations maintain appropriate security postures against evolving threats.
WPA3 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 3) represents the current generation of wireless security, ratified in 2018 by the Wi-Fi Alliance as the successor to WPA2. WPA3 introduces several fundamental security improvements that address vulnerabilities discovered in previous protocols while providing enhanced protection against modern attack vectors. The protocol mandates stronger encryption methods, implements more secure authentication mechanisms, and provides forward secrecy to protect previously captured traffic even if passwords are later compromised.
The most significant WPA3 enhancement is Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE), replacing WPA2’s Pre-Shared Key (PSK) authentication mechanism. SAE, based on the Dragonfly key exchange protocol, provides robust protection against offline dictionary attacks and brute-force password cracking attempts that plagued WPA2. Even if attackers capture the authentication handshake, they cannot perform offline attacks to determine the password. SAE also provides forward secrecy, meaning each session uses unique encryption keys, so compromising one session doesn’t expose historical traffic.
WPA3 implements 192-bit security mode for enterprise networks, providing significantly stronger cryptographic protection suitable for government and high-security applications. The protocol requires Protected Management Frames (PMF) as mandatory rather than optional, preventing deauthentication attacks and management frame forgery that attackers previously exploited. WPA3 also improves initial setup security through Wi-Fi Easy Connect, using QR codes for secure device onboarding instead of sharing passwords.
For networks with mixed device capabilities, WPA3 supports a transition mode allowing simultaneous WPA2 and WPA3 client connections, enabling gradual migration as devices are updated. However, pure WPA3-only mode provides maximum security by eliminating backward compatibility vulnerabilities.
A is incorrect because WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) represents the original wireless security standard from 1997, now completely obsolete and trivially compromised. WEP uses the RC4 stream cipher with inadequate key management, allowing attackers to crack encryption within minutes using readily available tools. The protocol’s fundamental design flaws cannot be remedied through configuration changes. WEP should never be used in modern networks.
B is incorrect because WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) was an interim security improvement introduced in 2003 to address WEP’s critical flaws while WPA2 was under development. WPA implements TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) for encryption, which provided better security than WEP but still contains vulnerabilities to certain attacks. WPA has been deprecated and should be replaced with WPA2 at minimum or preferably WPA3.
C is incorrect because while WPA2, introduced in 2004, provided robust security for over a decade using AES encryption and CCMP, vulnerabilities have been discovered. The KRACK (Key Reinstallation Attack) vulnerability demonstrated in 2017 exploits weaknesses in WPA2’s four-way handshake, allowing attackers to decrypt traffic, forge packets, and potentially inject malicious content. Although patches mitigate some KRACK vectors, WPA3’s fundamental design improvements provide superior protection.
Question 116:
A technician needs to transfer data from an old laptop to a new laptop. Both laptops have USB 3.0 ports. Which of the following would be the FASTEST method to transfer the data?
A) Using cloud storage service
B) Direct USB 3.0 cable connection
C) Ethernet network transfer
D) External USB 3.0 hard drive
Answer: D
Explanation:
Data migration between computers requires consideration of multiple factors including transfer speed, convenience, data security, and available infrastructure. Understanding the practical throughput limitations and optimal use cases for various transfer methods enables efficient data migration planning and execution.
An external USB 3.0 hard drive provides the fastest practical data transfer method for bulk file migration between two computers. USB 3.0 (also called USB 3.2 Gen 1 or SuperSpeed USB) offers theoretical bandwidth of 5 Gbps (approximately 625 MB/s), with practical sustained transfer rates typically ranging from 200-400 MB/s depending on the drive’s internal performance characteristics. The process involves connecting the external drive to the source laptop, copying all required data to the drive, disconnecting it, then connecting it to the destination laptop and copying the data to its internal storage.
This method’s speed advantage stems from direct hardware access without network overhead, protocol translation, or internet bandwidth limitations. Modern external hard drives with USB 3.0 interfaces, whether traditional spinning hard disk drives or solid-state drives, can sustain high transfer rates for extended operations. SSDs in USB 3.0 enclosures can achieve the interface’s maximum practical speeds, especially beneficial for large file transfers. The approach also provides offline operation without requiring network configuration or internet connectivity, ensuring data security during transfer.
Additional advantages include simplicity of execution requiring no special software or networking knowledge, compatibility across different operating systems without protocol concerns, and the resulting backup copy remaining on the external drive serving as redundancy. The external drive can also facilitate incremental transfers if all data doesn’t fit in a single operation or if additional files are discovered after initial migration.
A is incorrect because cloud storage services introduce significant speed limitations due to internet upload and download bandwidth constraints. Even with high-speed internet connections, upload speeds typically range from 10-100 Mbps for consumer connections, representing a fraction of local transfer capabilities. Large data volumes consuming hundreds of gigabytes would require hours or days to upload and download. Additionally, cloud transfers incur data usage charges on metered connections and raise security considerations for sensitive information.
B is incorrect because while specialized USB data transfer cables exist, they require specific software drivers and are designed for direct PC-to-PC connections. Standard USB 3.0 cables cannot directly connect two computers because USB operates on a host-device architecture, not peer-to-peer. Transfer cables typically achieve slower speeds than direct storage device access due to software translation overhead. This method also requires purchasing specialized hardware not commonly available.
C is incorrect because Ethernet network transfers, even on Gigabit Ethernet (1000 Mbps theoretical / 100-120 MB/s practical), operate slower than USB 3.0 storage devices. Network transfers also require proper network configuration including IP addressing, file sharing protocol setup, and potential firewall configuration. Network overhead from TCP/IP protocols, SMB/CIFS file sharing protocols, and potential network congestion from other devices reduces effective throughput. Setup complexity exceeds the straightforward external drive approach.
Question 117:
Which of the following types of RAM is used in most modern desktop computers?
A) SDRAM
B) DDR
C) DDR4
D) RAMBUS
Answer: C
Explanation:
Computer memory technology has evolved through multiple generations, each providing increased performance, reduced power consumption, and enhanced capacity capabilities. Understanding current RAM standards is essential for system building, upgrading, and troubleshooting, as memory compatibility directly impacts system functionality and performance.
DDR4 (Double Data Rate 4) SDRAM currently represents the predominant memory standard in most modern desktop computers manufactured and sold in recent years, though DDR5 is increasingly being adopted in the newest systems. DDR4 was introduced in 2014 and achieved widespread market adoption by 2016-2017, remaining the mainstream standard through 2023. Desktop systems built in the 2016-2024 timeframe predominantly use DDR4 modules, making it the most common RAM type encountered in current desktop computer servicing and upgrades.
DDR4 provides significant improvements over its DDR3 predecessor including higher maximum speeds ranging from 2133 MT/s (megatransfers per second) to 3200 MT/s for standard JEDEC specifications, with enthusiast overclocked modules reaching 5000+ MT/s. The technology operates at lower voltage (1.2V standard versus DDR3’s 1.5V), reducing power consumption and heat generation while enabling higher density modules. DDR4 modules commonly range from 4GB to 32GB per DIMM, with server modules available in even higher capacities.
A is incorrect because while SDRAM (Synchronous Dynamic RAM) represents the foundational technology underlying all DDR variants, the term specifically refers to single data rate SDRAM from the late 1990s, which has been obsolete in desktop computers for approximately two decades. Original SDRAM transferred data once per clock cycle and operated at significantly lower speeds than modern DDR variants.
B is incorrect because referencing «DDR» without a generation number typically denotes the original DDR SDRAM (now called DDR1), which was introduced around 2000 and phased out of mainstream desktop use by approximately 2005. DDR1 has been superseded by multiple generations and is incompatible with modern motherboards, making it irrelevant for current desktop computers despite being the progenitor of current DDR technologies.
D is incorrect because RAMBUS (specifically RDRAM or Rambus DRAM) was a proprietary memory technology popular in some high-end systems and game consoles around 2000-2002 but failed to achieve widespread adoption in desktop markets due to high costs, licensing requirements, and technical complications. RDRAM was effectively abandoned in mainstream computing by the mid-2000s. The technology is historically significant but completely obsolete in modern desktop systems.
Note: It’s worth mentioning that as of 2024-2025, DDR5 is increasingly found in the newest desktop systems, particularly those using latest-generation processors. However, DDR4 remains the most prevalent in the overall installed base of modern desktop computers currently in use.
Question 118:
A technician is configuring a new workstation and needs to enable virtualization support. Where should the technician enable this feature?
A) Device Manager
B) BIOS/UEFI
C) Control Panel
D) Task Manager
Answer: B
Explanation:
Virtualization technology enables computers to run multiple operating systems simultaneously by creating isolated virtual machines on a single physical hardware platform. Modern processors from both Intel and AMD include hardware-assisted virtualization extensions that significantly improve virtual machine performance and capabilities, but these features require proper configuration in the system firmware before use.
The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) or its modern successor UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) contains low-level hardware configuration settings that control processor features, memory management, boot options, and various hardware capabilities. Virtualization support represents a CPU-level feature that must be enabled in the system firmware before the operating system or virtualization software can access these capabilities.
Intel processors implement virtualization through Intel VT-x (Virtualization Technology for x86), while AMD processors use AMD-V (AMD Virtualization). These technologies provide hardware-level support for virtual machine monitors (hypervisors), enabling efficient CPU virtualization, memory management, and I/O handling for virtual machines. Many motherboard manufacturers disable these features by default despite capable processors, requiring manual enablement through BIOS/UEFI settings.
Accessing BIOS/UEFI setup typically requires pressing a specific key during system startup (commonly Delete, F2, F10, or F12). Within the firmware interface, virtualization settings usually appear in sections labeled Advanced, Processor Configuration, CPU Features, or Virtualization Technology. The specific setting names vary by manufacturer but commonly include «Intel Virtualization Technology,» «Intel VT-x,» «AMD-V,» «SVM Mode» (Secure Virtual Machine), or simply «Virtualization Technology.» After enabling the appropriate option, saving changes and rebooting makes the feature available to the operating system.
Modern virtualization platforms including VMware Workstation, Oracle VirtualBox, Microsoft Hyper-V, and KVM (Kernel-based Virtual Machine) all require or strongly benefit from hardware virtualization support. Without these CPU extensions enabled, virtual machines either cannot run or experience severely degraded performance due to software emulation overhead. Additionally, some security features like Windows Credential Guard and virtualization-based security require hardware virtualization support.
A is incorrect because Device Manager is a Windows operating system utility that manages hardware drivers, displays device information, and troubleshoots hardware problems. Device Manager operates at the OS level and cannot modify CPU features or BIOS settings. While Device Manager might display processor information, it cannot enable hardware-level features that must be configured before the OS loads.
C is incorrect because Control Panel provides access to operating system settings, application configuration, and user account management, but cannot modify hardware-level CPU features. Control Panel operates entirely within the Windows environment after boot and lacks access to modify fundamental hardware configuration that must be set at the firmware level before operating system initialization.
D is incorrect because Task Manager is a Windows system monitoring and process management utility that displays running applications, processes, performance metrics, and resource utilization. Task Manager operates as a user-space application and has no capability to modify BIOS settings or enable CPU features. While Task Manager’s Performance tab may display whether virtualization is enabled, it cannot change this configuration.
Question 119:
Which of the following IP addresses represents a loopback address used for testing network connectivity on the local machine?
A)168.1.1
B)0.0.1
C)0.0.1
D)255.255.255
Answer: B
Explanation:
The TCP/IP protocol suite includes several special-purpose IP address ranges reserved for specific functions rather than general network addressing. Understanding these reserved addresses is fundamental to network troubleshooting, configuration, and understanding how network protocols function at the most basic level.
The IP address 127.0.0.1 represents the standard loopback address used for local machine network testing and inter-process communication. The entire 127.0.0.0/8 address range (127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255) is reserved for loopback purposes, though 127.0.0.1 serves as the conventional address universally used by applications and administrators. When a system sends traffic to any address in the loopback range, the network stack routes that traffic internally without ever sending packets to physical network hardware, creating a closed loop within the local machine.
The loopback address serves multiple critical functions in networking and system administration. It enables testing of TCP/IP stack functionality without requiring network hardware, allowing verification that networking software components are properly installed and functioning. Applications use loopback addresses to communicate between processes on the same machine using standard network protocols, simplifying software architecture. Database servers, web servers, and other services commonly bind to the loopback address to accept connections only from local applications, enhancing security by preventing external access.
Network troubleshooting frequently begins with loopback testing using commands like «ping 127.0.0.1» to verify basic TCP/IP functionality. Successful loopback communication confirms the network protocol stack is operational, eliminating software configuration issues before investigating hardware, cabling, or network infrastructure problems. The loopback interface operates entirely in software without requiring network interface cards, making it useful even when physical network adapters are disabled or absent.
The loopback address also appears in DNS as «localhost,» the hostname that resolves to 127.0.0.1 (IPv4) or ::1 (IPv6). Applications can reference «localhost» instead of numeric addresses for improved readability while achieving identical functionality. The hosts file on most operating systems contains this mapping by default, ensuring localhost resolution works without DNS infrastructure.
A is incorrect because 192.168.1.1 typically represents a default gateway address in private networks using the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet. The 192.168.0.0/16 range belongs to the RFC 1918 private address space used for internal networks not directly routable on the public internet. While commonly used in home and small business networks, this address performs normal routing functions rather than loopback testing.
C is incorrect because 10.0.0.1 typically represents a gateway or network device in the 10.0.0.0/8 private address range, another RFC 1918 private network space. Large organizations frequently use the 10.0.0.0/8 range for extensive internal networks due to its enormous address capacity. Like 192.168.0.0/16, this serves normal networking functions rather than loopback purposes.
D is incorrect because 255.255.255.255 represents the limited broadcast address used to send packets to all hosts on the local network segment. When a device sends to this address, the packet is delivered to every host on the directly connected network without crossing routers. This address serves broadcast communication purposes, fundamentally different from loopback testing which keeps traffic within a single machine.
Question 120:
A user’s computer intermittently shuts down without warning. The system event log shows critical temperature warnings before each shutdown. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) Failing power supply
B) Overheating CPU
C) Corrupted operating system
D) Insufficient RAM
Answer: B
Explanation:
Computer systems include multiple protective mechanisms to prevent hardware damage from thermal overload conditions. Modern processors and motherboards incorporate thermal monitoring sensors and automatic shutdown capabilities that trigger when component temperatures exceed safe operating thresholds, preventing permanent damage to expensive hardware components.
An overheating CPU represents the most direct explanation for temperature-related critical warnings preceding unexpected shutdowns. The central processor generates substantial heat during operation, with power consumption and thermal output increasing under heavy computational loads. When the CPU temperature approaches or exceeds its thermal specification (typically 90-100°C depending on the processor model), the motherboard’s thermal management system initiates a protective shutdown to prevent thermal damage that could permanently destroy the processor.
Several factors contribute to CPU overheating issues. Dust accumulation on heatsinks and fans dramatically reduces cooling efficiency by blocking airflow and insulating heat-generating components. Thermal paste degradation between the CPU and heatsink impairs heat transfer, as thermal interface material dries out or loses effectiveness over time. Fan failures prevent active heat dissipation, whether the CPU cooler fan stops completely or operates at reduced speeds. Inadequate cooling solutions, particularly in systems where users have overclocked processors or installed more powerful CPUs without upgrading cooling systems, cannot handle the thermal load. Poor case ventilation restricts overall airflow, causing ambient temperatures inside the case to rise and reducing cooling system effectiveness.
The event log entries provide crucial diagnostic information, confirming thermal issues rather than other shutdown causes. Critical temperature warnings logged by Windows specifically indicate the system firmware or operating system detected excessive temperatures before the protective shutdown occurred. This diagnostic information directs troubleshooting efforts toward thermal solutions rather than investigating unrelated hardware or software issues.
Proper remediation involves opening the computer case and systematically addressing cooling system components. Compressed air removes dust accumulation from heatsinks, fans, and ventilation areas. Visual inspection confirms all fans operate correctly at appropriate speeds. If the system has operated for several years, removing the CPU cooler, cleaning old thermal paste with isopropyl alcohol, and applying fresh thermal compound restores optimal heat transfer. In severe cases, replacing the entire CPU cooler with a higher-capacity model or upgrading case ventilation with additional fans may be necessary.
A is incorrect because while failing power supplies can cause unexpected shutdowns, they typically don’t generate critical temperature warnings in event logs. Power supply failures manifest through symptoms including failure to power on, random reboots without thermal patterns, electrical burning smells, or voltage-related errors rather than temperature warnings. Power supply failures are sudden and not specifically correlated with sustained operation or heavy loads that would generate temperature warnings.
C is incorrect because operating system corruption causes boot failures, blue screen errors, application crashes, or system instability, but doesn’t specifically generate hardware-level critical temperature warnings. OS-level issues occur independently of thermal conditions and wouldn’t show the consistent correlation between temperature warnings and shutdowns. The event log specifically indicating temperature problems points to hardware thermal issues rather than software corruption.
D is incorrect because insufficient RAM causes different symptoms including application failures, out of memory errors, poor performance, or errors when launching memory-intensive applications. RAM shortages don’t generate excessive heat or trigger thermal protection mechanisms. While RAM modules do generate some heat, they don’t typically cause system-wide thermal shutdown conditions, and memory issues wouldn’t appear as critical temperature warnings in event logs.