CompTIA 220-1101 A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 5 Q 61-75
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Question 61:
A technician is troubleshooting a computer that is experiencing slow performance. The technician notices that the hard drive LED is constantly illuminated. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) Failing power supply
B) Insufficient RAM causing excessive paging
C) Overheating CPU
D) Faulty network adapter
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a computer experiences slow performance accompanied by a constantly illuminated hard drive LED, this is a classic indicator of excessive disk activity. The most common cause of this symptom is insufficient RAM leading to excessive paging or swapping to the hard drive.
RAM (Random Access Memory) serves as the primary working memory for the computer system. When a system runs out of available physical RAM, the operating system must use a portion of the hard drive as virtual memory. This process is called paging in Windows or swapping in Linux systems. The operating system creates a page file or swap file on the hard drive to temporarily store data that would normally reside in RAM.
When insufficient RAM is available, the system constantly reads and writes data between RAM and the hard drive. This continuous disk activity causes the hard drive LED to remain illuminated almost constantly. The hard drive is significantly slower than RAM, with typical hard drive access times measured in milliseconds compared to RAM access times measured in nanoseconds. This speed difference of several orders of magnitude results in severe performance degradation when the system relies heavily on virtual memory.
The symptoms described in the question directly correlate with this excessive paging behavior. Users typically experience slow application loading times, delayed response to user input, and general system sluggishness. Opening Task Manager or Resource Monitor would reveal high disk usage percentages and low available physical memory.
A) is incorrect because a failing power supply would typically cause different symptoms such as random shutdowns, system instability, failure to boot, or complete power loss. While a failing power supply can cause various issues, it would not specifically cause constant hard drive activity with the LED remaining illuminated continuously.
B) is incorrect… wait, this is the correct answer.
C) is incorrect because an overheating CPU would cause thermal throttling, where the processor reduces its clock speed to lower temperature. This results in slow performance, but would not specifically cause constant hard drive LED illumination. Overheating typically triggers system shutdowns or automatic restarts as protective measures.
D) is incorrect because a faulty network adapter would cause network connectivity issues, slow network transfers, or intermittent connection problems. It would not cause system-wide slowness or constant hard drive activity. Network issues are isolated to network-related functions and do not typically impact overall system performance or disk usage patterns.
Question 62:
A user reports that their laptop screen is very dim and difficult to read. Which of the following is the FIRST step a technician should take?
A) Replace the LCD panel
B) Update the graphics driver
C) Adjust the brightness settings
D) Replace the inverter board
Answer: C
Explanation:
When troubleshooting any technical issue, it is essential to follow a systematic approach that begins with the simplest and least invasive solutions before progressing to more complex interventions. In the case of a dim laptop screen, the first and most logical step is to check and adjust the brightness settings.
Modern laptops provide multiple methods for controlling screen brightness. Most laptops have dedicated function keys (typically Fn key combined with function keys that have sun icons) that allow users to increase or decrease brightness. Additionally, brightness can be adjusted through the operating system settings, either in Windows Settings under System and Display, or through the quick settings panel in the system tray.
There are several common reasons why brightness settings might be reduced unintentionally. Users may accidentally press the brightness-down key combination without realizing it. Power management settings in Windows can automatically reduce brightness when the laptop is running on battery power to conserve energy. Some systems have ambient light sensors that automatically adjust brightness based on environmental lighting conditions, which can sometimes result in unexpected dimming.
Before assuming hardware failure or investing time in driver updates or component replacement, verifying and adjusting the brightness settings takes only seconds and resolves the issue in a significant percentage of cases. This approach follows the fundamental troubleshooting principle of eliminating simple causes first, which saves time, effort, and unnecessary expense.
A) is incorrect because replacing the LCD panel is an expensive and time-consuming hardware repair that should only be considered after ruling out all software and settings-related causes. LCD panel replacement is appropriate when there is physical damage, dead pixels, or confirmed backlight failure that cannot be attributed to other components.
B) is incorrect because while outdated graphics drivers can cause various display issues, they rarely cause simple dimness problems. Driver updates should be considered if adjusting settings does not resolve the issue and other symptoms suggest driver-related problems, but this is not the first step in the troubleshooting process.
D) is incorrect because replacing the inverter board (found in older CCFL-backlit displays) or the LED backlight array (in modern LED-backlit displays) is a hardware repair reserved for confirmed backlight failures. This would only be necessary after verifying that brightness settings are correct and the issue persists across different operating systems or BIOS screens.
Question 63:
Which of the following cable types is used to connect a computer to a cable modem?
A) Coaxial
B) Fiber optic
C) HDMI
D) USB
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cable modems utilize coaxial cable connections to communicate with the Internet Service Provider’s network infrastructure. Understanding the cable modem connection architecture is essential for CompTIA A+ certification and practical networking troubleshooting.
Coaxial cable, commonly referred to as coax, consists of a center conductor wire surrounded by insulation, a metallic shield, and an outer plastic jacket. This construction provides excellent protection against electromagnetic interference while efficiently transmitting radio frequency signals. Cable modems connect to the ISP network using RG-6 coaxial cable, which is the standard for modern cable television and cable internet installations.
The cable modem serves as a bridge between the ISP’s coaxial cable network and the user’s home network. On one side, the coaxial cable connects to the cable input port (typically an F-connector) on the modem. This connection carries both downstream data (from the ISP to the user) and upstream data (from the user to the ISP) using different frequency ranges on the same cable. On the other side, the cable modem connects to the user’s computer or router using an Ethernet cable (typically RJ-45 connector).
The DOCSIS (Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification) standard governs how cable modems transmit data over coaxial cable networks. Modern cable systems use DOCSIS 3.0 or DOCSIS 3.1, which provide high-speed internet access through channel bonding and advanced modulation techniques. The coaxial infrastructure was originally designed for cable television but has been adapted to carry high-speed internet data efficiently.
B) is incorrect because fiber optic cables are used for fiber internet connections, not cable modem connections. Fiber optic technology uses light signals transmitted through glass or plastic fibers and requires specialized equipment like ONT (Optical Network Terminal) devices rather than cable modems.
C) is incorrect because HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface) cables are used for transmitting audio and video signals between devices like computers, monitors, televisions, and media players. HDMI has no role in internet connectivity or modem connections.
D) is incorrect because while some modems may have USB ports for specific purposes like configuration or connecting USB devices, the primary connection between the cable modem and the ISP network is through coaxial cable, not USB.
Question 64:
A technician needs to configure a SOHO wireless router for a small office. Which of the following should the technician change from the default settings to improve security? (Select TWO)
A) SSID
B) Channel
C) Admin password
D) IP address range
E) Firmware version
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
Securing a SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) wireless router is critical for protecting the network from unauthorized access and potential security breaches. When configuring a new router, changing default settings is one of the most important security measures a technician can implement.
Changing the default SSID (Service Set Identifier) is a fundamental security practice. The SSID is the network name that appears when users scan for available wireless networks. Manufacturers assign default SSIDs that often include the brand name or model number, such as «NETGEAR,» «Linksys,» or «TP-Link-5G.» These default names immediately identify the router manufacturer and model to potential attackers. Knowing the specific router model allows attackers to research known vulnerabilities, default credentials, and exploit techniques specific to that device. By changing the SSID to a custom name that does not reveal the router’s identity, technicians eliminate this information disclosure vulnerability. The SSID should be changed to something non-identifiable that does not contain personal information, business names, or addresses.
Changing the default admin password is arguably the most critical security measure. Router manufacturers ship devices with well-known default administrator credentials, commonly «admin/admin» or «admin/password.» These default credentials are publicly documented and easily found online in manufacturer documentation or credential databases. Attackers routinely attempt to access routers using default credentials, and successful access grants complete control over the router configuration, network settings, and connected devices. A compromised router allows attackers to intercept traffic, redirect users to malicious websites, modify DNS settings, or use the network for illegal activities. The admin password should be changed to a strong, unique password containing uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters, with a minimum length of 12-15 characters.
B) is incorrect because changing the wireless channel is primarily for optimizing performance and reducing interference from neighboring networks, not for security purposes. While proper channel selection improves network performance, it does not enhance security protections against unauthorized access or attacks.
D) is incorrect because changing the IP address range is not a security measure. While modifying the default private IP address range (such as changing from 192.168.1.x to a different subnet) might provide minimal security through obscurity, it is not considered a meaningful security improvement and is not a standard security recommendation.
E) is incorrect because firmware version refers to updating the router’s firmware, not changing a default setting. While keeping firmware updated is indeed an important security practice, the question specifically asks about changing default settings, and firmware updates are a separate maintenance activity rather than a configuration change.
Question 65:
A user’s computer is displaying a «No boot device found» error message. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) Failed RAM module
B) Corrupted operating system
C) Disconnected or failed hard drive
D) Faulty graphics card
Answer: C
Explanation:
The «No boot device found» error message is a specific BIOS or UEFI error that indicates the system cannot locate a bootable storage device. Understanding the boot process and what triggers this error is essential for effective troubleshooting.
When a computer powers on, the BIOS or UEFI firmware initializes hardware components and then searches for a boot device according to the boot order configuration. The boot order specifies which storage devices the system should check for bootable media, typically starting with the hard drive, then optical drives, USB devices, or network boot options. A bootable device must contain a valid boot sector or EFI system partition with boot loader files that tell the system how to start the operating system.
The «No boot device found» error specifically indicates that the BIOS/UEFI has completed its hardware initialization but cannot find any storage device containing valid boot information. The most common cause is a disconnected or failed hard drive. Physical disconnection can occur due to loose SATA cables, power cable disconnection, or cable damage. Hard drive failure can be mechanical (in traditional hard drives with spinning platters and read/write heads) or electronic (in both traditional hard drives and solid-state drives).
A failed hard drive may still be detected by the BIOS in some cases but cannot be read properly, or it may not be detected at all if the failure is severe. Physical inspection should verify that all cables are properly connected and seated. Accessing the BIOS setup utility can confirm whether the system detects the hard drive. If the drive is not listed in the BIOS, this confirms either connection problems or complete drive failure.
A) is incorrect because failed RAM typically causes different symptoms. When RAM fails or is not properly seated, the computer usually fails to POST (Power-On Self-Test), produces beep codes, displays RAM-related error messages, or shows no display output at all. The system would not progress to the point of searching for boot devices.
B) is incorrect because a corrupted operating system would not produce a «No boot device found» error. If the operating system files are corrupted but the boot sector remains intact, the system would attempt to boot and display OS-specific error messages such as «Operating System Not Found,» «BOOTMGR is missing,» or «No bootable medium found.» The BIOS would successfully identify the hard drive as a boot device before encountering OS corruption.
D) is incorrect because a faulty graphics card affects video output but does not prevent the system from detecting boot devices. A failed graphics card might result in no display output, but the boot device detection process occurs independently of graphics functionality. The error message would not appear on screen if the graphics system were completely failed.
Question 66:
Which of the following connector types is commonly used for analog audio connections?
A) RJ-45
B)5mm TRS
C) DisplayPort
D) USB-C
Answer: B
Explanation:
The 3.5mm TRS (Tip-Ring-Sleeve) connector, also known as a mini-jack or headphone jack, is the standard connector type for analog audio connections in consumer electronics and computer systems. Understanding audio connector types and their applications is important for CompTIA A+ certification and practical computer hardware support.
The TRS designation describes the connector’s physical structure. The connector features three conductive sections separated by insulating rings: the tip, ring, and sleeve. Each section carries a different audio signal. In stereo audio applications, the tip carries the left channel signal, the ring carries the right channel signal, and the sleeve serves as the common ground for both channels. This three-conductor design enables stereo audio transmission through a single compact connector.
The 3.5mm size (approximately 1/8 inch) has become the universal standard for computer audio connections. Computer sound cards and motherboards with integrated audio typically feature three color-coded 3.5mm ports: green for line-out/speakers/headphones, pink for microphone input, and blue for line-in. Some systems use a single combination port that can detect whether headphones or a microphone is connected.
TRS connectors also exist in other sizes, including 6.35mm (1/4 inch) commonly used in professional audio equipment and musical instruments, and 2.5mm used in some mobile devices and older cell phones. The 3.5mm variant remains dominant in consumer electronics, computers, portable audio devices, headphones, and multimedia speakers.
Modern variants include TRRS (Tip-Ring-Ring-Sleeve) connectors with four conductors, which add microphone capability to headphone connections. This allows headset devices with both audio output and microphone input to use a single connector. TRRS connectors are common in smartphones and laptops with combination audio jacks.
A) is incorrect because RJ-45 connectors are used for Ethernet network connections, not audio. The RJ-45 is an 8-position, 8-contact modular connector used with Category 5e, Category 6, and other twisted-pair Ethernet cables for wired networking.
C) is incorrect because DisplayPort is a digital display interface used for video and audio transmission to monitors and displays. While DisplayPort can carry audio signals, it is not an analog audio connector and is primarily designed for video connectivity with embedded digital audio capability.
D) is incorrect because USB-C is a digital connector used for data transfer, power delivery, and digital audio/video transmission. While USB-C can carry audio through digital protocols or USB Audio Class specifications, it is not an analog audio connector and represents a completely different connection technology.
Question 67:
A technician is installing a new graphics card that requires additional power. Which of the following power connectors would MOST likely be used?
A) 4-pin Molex
B) 24-pin ATX
C) 8-pin PCIe
D) 15-pin SATA
Answer: C
Explanation:
Modern high-performance graphics cards require more electrical power than the PCIe slot alone can provide. The PCIe x16 slot supplies a maximum of 75 watts through the slot connection, which is insufficient for mid-range and high-end graphics cards that may consume 150 to 450 watts or more under load. To meet these power requirements, graphics cards use dedicated PCIe power connectors that draw power directly from the power supply unit.
The 8-pin PCIe power connector is the standard auxiliary power connection for graphics cards requiring additional power beyond what the PCIe slot provides. Each 8-pin PCIe connector can deliver up to 150 watts of power. The 8-pin configuration includes three 12-volt pins, three ground pins, and two sense pins that allow the graphics card to detect proper connection. Some power supplies also provide 6-pin PCIe connectors, which can deliver up to 75 watts and are used for less power-hungry graphics cards.
High-end graphics cards may require multiple power connectors. For example, a powerful GPU might require two 8-pin connectors or one 8-pin and one 6-pin connector, allowing the card to draw 300 watts or more (75W from slot + 150W from first 8-pin + 150W from second 8-pin = 375W total). The newest high-end cards may use the 12VHPWR connector (also called 12+4 pin PCIe 5.0 connector) capable of delivering up to 600 watts through a single connector.
When installing a graphics card, technicians must verify that the power supply has the appropriate PCIe power connectors available and that the power supply’s total wattage is sufficient for the entire system including the graphics card. Insufficient power supply capacity can cause system instability, crashes, or failure to boot.
A) is incorrect because 4-pin Molex connectors are older peripheral power connectors originally designed for IDE hard drives, optical drives, and case fans. While some older or low-power graphics cards used Molex-to-PCIe adapters, this is not the standard connection method for modern graphics cards requiring additional power.
B) is incorrect because the 24-pin ATX connector is the main power connector for the motherboard, not for graphics cards. This connector provides power to the motherboard and its integrated components but does not directly connect to expansion cards. It supplies multiple voltage rails (3.3V, 5V, and 12V) to power various motherboard components.
D) is incorrect because 15-pin SATA power connectors are designed specifically for SATA storage devices such as hard drives and solid-state drives. SATA power connectors provide 3.3V, 5V, and 12V power rails for storage devices but are never used for graphics card power connections due to their lower current capacity and different voltage requirements.
Question 68:
Which of the following cloud deployment models allows an organization to share resources with other organizations while maintaining some level of privacy?
A) Public cloud
B) Private cloud
C) Hybrid cloud
D) Community cloud
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cloud computing deployment models define how cloud infrastructure is deployed, who has access to it, and how resources are shared among users. Understanding the different cloud deployment models is essential for making informed decisions about cloud service adoption and for CompTIA A+ certification.
A community cloud is a cloud deployment model where infrastructure is shared among several organizations with common interests, requirements, or compliance needs. This model allows multiple organizations to pool resources while maintaining greater privacy and control than a public cloud. Community clouds are typically used by organizations in the same industry sector, such as healthcare institutions sharing HIPAA-compliant infrastructure, government agencies sharing secure resources, or financial institutions requiring specific regulatory compliance.
The community cloud model offers several advantages. Organizations benefit from cost sharing since infrastructure expenses are distributed among multiple participants rather than borne by a single organization. The shared infrastructure is specifically designed to meet the common requirements of all participating organizations, such as specific security standards, compliance requirements, or specialized applications. Privacy and security controls are stronger than public clouds because access is restricted to member organizations rather than the general public.
Community clouds can be managed internally by participating organizations or externally by a third-party provider. The infrastructure may be located on-premises at one of the participating organizations or hosted at a third-party data center. Governance and access policies are jointly determined by member organizations to ensure that all participants’ needs are met while maintaining appropriate security and privacy controls.
A) is incorrect because public clouds are open to the general public and operated by third-party cloud service providers like Amazon Web Services, Microsoft Azure, or Google Cloud Platform. Public clouds offer no inherent privacy between different customer organizations, as resources are shared in a multi-tenant environment where customers are isolated through virtualization and security controls but share the same physical infrastructure without organizational relationships.
B) is incorrect because private clouds are dedicated to a single organization and are not shared with other organizations. Private cloud infrastructure may be located on-premises or hosted by a third party, but exclusive use by one organization means there is no resource sharing with other organizations, eliminating the shared resource aspect mentioned in the question.
C) is incorrect because hybrid clouds combine private cloud infrastructure with public cloud services, allowing organizations to move workloads between private and public environments. While hybrid clouds provide flexibility and resource sharing between an organization’s private and public cloud components, they do not specifically address sharing resources with other organizations while maintaining privacy.
Question 69:
A user reports that their wireless mouse is not working. The LED on the mouse is not illuminated. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A) Replace the mouse
B) Reinstall the mouse driver
C) Replace the batteries
D) Check Device Manager for errors
Answer: C
Explanation:
When troubleshooting any hardware issue, following a systematic approach that begins with the simplest and most probable causes saves time and prevents unnecessary component replacement or complex troubleshooting procedures. For a wireless mouse with no LED illumination, the first and most logical step is to replace the batteries.
Wireless mice operate on battery power, typically using AA or AAA batteries, though some models use rechargeable batteries or built-in lithium-ion batteries charged via USB. The LED indicator on a wireless mouse serves multiple purposes: it confirms that the mouse has power, indicates when the mouse is active and transmitting data, and often provides low battery warnings through different blinking patterns. When the LED is completely non-illuminated, this is a direct indicator of power supply failure, most commonly caused by depleted batteries.
Battery depletion is the most common cause of wireless mouse failure. Depending on usage patterns and battery quality, wireless mouse batteries typically last from several months to over a year. Users may not track battery installation dates and can be surprised when batteries suddenly fail. Additionally, batteries can discharge over time even when not in use, and old batteries may leak or corrode, causing power delivery problems.
Replacing the batteries takes only seconds and immediately resolves the issue if battery depletion is the cause. This follows the fundamental troubleshooting principle of testing the simplest, most likely cause first before proceeding to more complex solutions. If battery replacement does not resolve the issue, the technician can then progress to other troubleshooting steps such as checking the wireless receiver connection, testing the mouse on another computer, or examining device driver issues.
A) is incorrect because replacing the mouse should be a last resort after all troubleshooting steps have been exhausted. Immediately replacing hardware without basic troubleshooting is wasteful and inefficient. Many apparent hardware failures have simple causes like dead batteries or loose connections that can be resolved without replacement.
B) is incorrect because reinstalling the mouse driver would not address the issue of no LED illumination. Driver issues typically cause problems with mouse functionality or recognition by the operating system, but the mouse would still receive power and the LED would illuminate if batteries were functional. Driver reinstallation should only be considered after confirming the mouse has power.
D) is incorrect because checking Device Manager for errors is premature when the mouse shows no signs of power. Device Manager is useful for diagnosing recognition issues, driver problems, or device conflicts, but these checks require that the device is powered on and attempting to communicate with the computer. Without power, the mouse will not appear in Device Manager at all.
Question 70:
Which of the following RAID levels provides both fault tolerance and improved read performance through disk striping with parity?
A) RAID 0
B) RAID 1
C) RAID 5
D) RAID 10
Answer: C
Explanation:
RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) technology combines multiple physical hard drives into logical units to achieve various combinations of performance improvement, data redundancy, and fault tolerance. Understanding different RAID levels and their characteristics is essential for CompTIA A+ certification and making informed storage decisions.
RAID 5 provides both fault tolerance and improved read performance through a technique called striping with distributed parity. In a RAID 5 array, data is striped across multiple disks in blocks, similar to RAID 0, which provides performance benefits. However, RAID 5 adds fault tolerance by calculating and storing parity information distributed across all drives in the array.
Parity is calculated using XOR (exclusive OR) operations on the data blocks. When data is written, the RAID controller calculates parity information that can be used to reconstruct data if a drive fails. Unlike RAID 4 which stores parity on a dedicated drive, RAID 5 distributes parity blocks across all drives in the array. This distribution prevents the parity drive from becoming a performance bottleneck and distributes wear evenly across all drives.
RAID 5 requires a minimum of three drives and can tolerate the failure of any single drive without data loss. When a drive fails, the array continues operating in a degraded state, and data from the failed drive can be reconstructed on-the-fly using the parity information from the remaining drives. Read performance is excellent because data requests can be distributed across multiple drives simultaneously. However, write performance is slower than RAID 0 or RAID 10 because parity must be calculated and written for each write operation.
The usable capacity in RAID 5 equals the total capacity minus one drive’s worth of space. For example, a four-drive RAID 5 array with 1TB drives provides 3TB of usable space, with 1TB dedicated to parity information.
A) is incorrect because RAID 0 provides improved performance through disk striping but offers no fault tolerance or redundancy. Data is split across multiple drives, and if any single drive fails, all data in the array is lost. RAID 0 doubles read and write performance but doubles the risk of data loss.
B) is incorrect because RAID 1 provides fault tolerance through disk mirroring but does not use striping. RAID 1 maintains identical copies of data on two or more drives. While it offers excellent fault tolerance and improved read performance (reads can be distributed), it does not use parity and provides no capacity advantage.
D) is incorrect because RAID 10 (also called RAID 1+0) combines mirroring and striping by creating mirrored pairs that are then striped together. RAID 10 provides excellent fault tolerance and performance but does not use parity. It requires a minimum of four drives and provides only 50% usable capacity.
Question 71:
A technician needs to configure a printer for a user who works from home. The printer must be accessible from multiple devices without requiring a direct connection. Which of the following connection types should the technician configure?
A) USB
B) Parallel
C) Network
D) Serial
Answer: C
Explanation:
Modern printing requirements often demand that printers be accessible from multiple devices simultaneously without requiring physical cable connections to each device. Network printing provides this capability and has become the standard for both home and business environments where multiple users need printer access.
A network printer connects to the local area network through either Ethernet or Wi-Fi connectivity. Ethernet-connected network printers use an RJ-45 connection to plug directly into a network switch or router, while wireless network printers connect to the Wi-Fi network using WPA2 or WPA3 security protocols. Once connected to the network, the printer receives an IP address either through DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) or manual static IP configuration.
Network printing offers numerous advantages for the scenario described in the question. Multiple devices including computers, laptops, tablets, and smartphones can all send print jobs to the same printer without physical connections or cable switching. Users can print from anywhere within the home or office that has network access. The printer maintains its own print queue and processes jobs from multiple users efficiently. Network printers can be centrally located rather than physically connected to a specific computer.
Configuration typically involves connecting the printer to the network, installing printer drivers on client computers, and adding the printer using its IP address or through automatic discovery protocols like Bonjour or WS-Discovery. Modern operating systems make network printer setup straightforward with automatic printer detection and driver installation. Many network printers also support mobile printing protocols such as AirPrint for iOS devices and Google Cloud Print or Mopria for Android devices.
A) is incorrect because USB connections require a direct physical cable connection between the printer and a single computer. While USB is common for direct-attached printers and offers reliable connectivity and good print speeds, it does not allow multiple devices to access the printer simultaneously unless USB printer sharing is configured on a host computer, which adds complexity and requires the host computer to remain powered on.
B) is incorrect because parallel ports are legacy connectors that were used for printers in older computer systems. Parallel connections (typically using DB-25 connectors and Centronics connectors) provided direct printer attachment but have been obsolete for many years. Modern computers do not include parallel ports, and parallel connections do not support multiple device access.
D) is incorrect because serial connections are not used for modern printer connectivity. Serial ports (using RS-232 protocol and DB-9 connectors) have very limited bandwidth unsuitable for printing, and like parallel ports, they provide only direct point-to-point connections. Serial connections are obsolete for printer applications and do not support multiple device access.
Question 72:
Which of the following wireless encryption protocols is considered the MOST secure?
A) WEP
B) WPA
C) WPA2
D) WPA3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Wireless network security has evolved significantly over the past two decades as vulnerabilities have been discovered and cryptographic techniques have advanced. Understanding the progression of wireless encryption protocols and their relative security strengths is essential for implementing secure wireless networks and for CompTIA A+ certification.
WPA3 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 3) is the most current and secure wireless encryption protocol available. Released in 2018 by the Wi-Fi Alliance, WPA3 addresses several security vulnerabilities present in earlier protocols and introduces significant improvements to wireless security. WPA3 implements Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE), which replaces the Pre-Shared Key (PSK) authentication used in WPA2. SAE provides protection against offline dictionary attacks where attackers capture handshake packets and attempt to crack passwords offline.
One of WPA3’s most significant improvements is forward secrecy, which ensures that even if an attacker captures encrypted traffic and later obtains the network password, they cannot decrypt previously captured traffic. This protection is crucial for long-term data confidentiality. WPA3 also provides individualized data encryption, meaning that traffic between each device and the access point is encrypted with unique keys, preventing other devices on the same network from intercepting traffic.
WPA3 includes two operational modes: WPA3-Personal for home and small office networks using password authentication, and WPA3-Enterprise for business environments using 802.1X authentication with RADIUS servers. WPA3-Personal requires passwords of at least 8 characters, though longer passwords are recommended. The protocol also makes it easier for devices without displays, like IoT devices, to securely join networks through Wi-Fi Easy Connect using QR codes.
A) is incorrect because WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is the oldest and least secure wireless encryption protocol. Introduced in 1997, WEP has numerous critical vulnerabilities that allow attackers to crack the encryption in minutes. WEP uses the RC4 encryption algorithm with weak implementation and reuses initialization vectors, making it trivially breakable with readily available tools. WEP should never be used on modern networks.
B) is incorrect because WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) was introduced as a temporary improvement over WEP while WPA2 was being developed. While significantly more secure than WEP, WPA still has vulnerabilities and has been superseded by WPA2 and WPA3. WPA uses TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) for encryption, which has known weaknesses.
C) is incorrect because while WPA2 was the security standard for over a decade and remains widely used, it is not the most secure option. WPA2 uses AES encryption with CCMP, providing strong security, but it is vulnerable to KRACK attacks and offline dictionary attacks against captured handshakes. WPA3 addresses these vulnerabilities, making it the more secure choice.
Question 73:
A user’s computer frequently crashes with a Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) showing different error messages each time. Which of the following hardware components is MOST likely failing?
A) Power supply
B) RAM
C) Hard drive
D) CPU
Answer: B
Explanation:
Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) errors, officially called Stop errors in Windows, indicate that the operating system has encountered a critical error from which it cannot recover safely. The system halts to prevent potential data corruption or additional damage. When BSOD errors occur frequently with varying error messages, this pattern is highly indicative of hardware failure, particularly RAM failure.
Random Access Memory (RAM) is one of the most common causes of random, intermittent BSOD errors with different error codes. RAM stores all actively running programs and data that the CPU is currently processing. When RAM modules fail or develop errors, data corruption occurs unpredictably. A failing memory cell might corrupt any data stored in that location, whether it’s operating system code, application data, or driver instructions. This corruption causes different types of errors depending on what data is affected, resulting in different BSOD error messages.
Common BSOD error codes associated with RAM failure include MEMORY_MANAGEMENT, PAGE_FAULT_IN_NONPAGED_AREA, IRQL_NOT_LESS_OR_EQUAL, and SYSTEM_SERVICE_EXCEPTION, though many other error codes can also result from memory problems. The variability in error messages occurs because memory errors affect different parts of the system at different times, and the specific error code reflects what operation failed due to corrupted data.
RAM failure can be caused by various factors including manufacturing defects, physical damage, overheating, electrical issues, or simply age-related degradation. Memory errors may start intermittently and worsen over time.
A) is incorrect because power supply issues typically cause different symptoms. A failing power supply generally causes random shutdowns, failure to boot, system instability, or spontaneous reboots rather than BSOD errors with error messages. Power supplies that cannot deliver adequate or stable voltage cause hardware to stop functioning rather than generating specific Windows error codes.
C) is incorrect because hard drive failures typically produce different symptoms and error patterns. Failing hard drives cause slow performance, file corruption, specific disk-related error messages like «DISK BOOT FAILURE» or «SMART errors,» and may cause the system to hang rather than blue screen. While hard drive failures can occasionally cause BSOD errors, they typically produce consistent disk-related error codes rather than varying error messages.
D) is incorrect because CPU failures are relatively rare and typically manifest differently than described. A failing CPU generally causes system instability, calculation errors, failure to boot, or complete system failure rather than BSOD errors. When CPUs do cause BSOD errors, they typically produce the same error code consistently rather than varying messages, and are often accompanied by overheating or physical damage indicators.
Question 74:
Which of the following IPv6 address types is used for one-to-many communication?
A) Unicast
B) Multicast
C) Anycast
D) Broadcast
Answer: B
Explanation:
IPv6 addressing introduces several significant changes from IPv4, including the elimination of broadcast addresses and the introduction of different address types designed for specific communication patterns. Understanding IPv6 address types and their communication methods is essential for modern networking and CompTIA A+ certification.
Multicast addresses in IPv6 are used for one-to-many communication, where a single packet sent to a multicast address is delivered to all devices that have joined that specific multicast group. This efficient communication method allows a sender to transmit data once, and the network infrastructure ensures that the packet reaches all interested recipients without requiring separate transmissions to each device.
IPv6 multicast addresses begin with the prefix FF00::/8, meaning the first 8 bits are all ones (FF in hexadecimal). The next 4 bits define the scope of the multicast, such as link-local, site-local, or global scope, determining how far the multicast packets can travel. Common multicast scopes include FF02 for link-local multicast and FF05 for site-local multicast. Following the scope bits, the remaining bits identify the specific multicast group.
Multicast is essential for many network operations. Examples include router discovery where devices send requests to multicast addresses to find routers, DHCPv6 communication where clients discover DHCP servers, Neighbor Discovery Protocol which replaces ARP in IPv6, and streaming media applications where content is efficiently distributed to multiple recipients simultaneously. Common IPv6 multicast addresses include FF02::1 (all nodes on the local link), FF02::2 (all routers on the local link), and FF02::1:2 (all DHCP agents).
Multicast is more efficient than broadcast because only devices that have specifically joined the multicast group process the packets, whereas broadcast forces all devices to process packets regardless of interest. This selective delivery reduces unnecessary processing and network overhead.
A) is incorrect because unicast addresses are used for one-to-one communication, where a packet is sent from one sender to a single specific recipient identified by a unique address. Unicast is the most common address type and is used for standard point-to-point communication between two devices. IPv6 unicast addresses include global unicast addresses (equivalent to public IPv4 addresses) and link-local unicast addresses.
C) is incorrect because anycast addresses are used for one-to-nearest communication, where a packet sent to an anycast address is delivered to the nearest device (in routing terms) among a group of devices sharing that anycast address. Anycast is used for service redundancy and load distribution, such as DNS root servers that share the same anycast address, allowing clients to automatically reach the nearest server.
D) is incorrect because broadcast addresses do not exist in IPv6. The broadcast concept from IPv4 has been eliminated in IPv6 and replaced with multicast addressing. IPv6 uses link-local multicast to all nodes (FF02::1) to achieve functionality similar to IPv4 broadcast, but this is technically multicast, not broadcast. The elimination of broadcast reduces unnecessary network traffic and processing overhead.
Question 75:
A technician is troubleshooting a laptop that powers on but displays nothing on the screen. An external monitor connected to the laptop displays the desktop properly. Which of the following components is MOST likely faulty?
A) Graphics card
B) RAM
C) LCD panel or inverter
D) Motherboard
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a laptop powers on but displays nothing on the internal screen while an external monitor works properly, this specific symptom pattern indicates a problem with the laptop’s display assembly rather than core system components. The fact that the external monitor displays correctly proves that the motherboard, graphics card, RAM, and operating system are functioning properly, allowing the technician to isolate the problem to the internal display components.
The laptop display system consists of several components that work together to produce the image on screen. The LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) panel is the actual screen that displays the image. The backlight system provides illumination for the LCD panel so the image is visible. In older laptops with CCFL (Cold Cathode Fluorescent Lamp) backlights, an inverter board converts DC power from the motherboard to AC power required by the CCFL tubes. Modern laptops use LED backlights that don’t require inverters but still have LED driver circuits. The display cable (often called LVDS cable or eDP cable) connects the LCD panel to the motherboard and carries video signals and power.
When the internal display shows nothing but external displays work properly, the failure is in one of these display-specific components. The LCD panel itself may have failed due to physical damage, manufacturing defects, or age-related deterioration. The backlight or inverter may have failed, which would cause a very dim or completely dark screen, though the image might still be barely visible with a flashlight shined on the screen. The display cable may be damaged, loose, or disconnected, preventing video signals from reaching the panel.
Troubleshooting steps include checking display brightness settings to ensure the backlight isn’t simply turned down, examining the display cable connection at both ends, testing with a flashlight to determine if a faint image is visible (indicating backlight failure), and checking BIOS settings to ensure the internal display isn’t disabled. If the laptop has a function key combination to toggle displays (typically Fn+F4, F5, or F8), the technician should verify that the display hasn’t been inadvertently switched to external-only mode.
A) is incorrect because if the graphics card were faulty, the external monitor would also display nothing or show artifacts and errors. Since the external monitor displays properly, this proves the graphics processing unit and graphics memory are functioning correctly. The GPU generates the video signal that is sent to both internal and external displays.
B) is incorrect because RAM failure causes different symptoms. When RAM fails or is improperly seated, the system typically fails to complete POST (Power-On Self-Test), produces beep codes, or fails to boot entirely. The system would not boot to the desktop or display properly on an external monitor if RAM were faulty. The successful external display confirms that RAM is functioning.
D) is incorrect because motherboard failure would affect the entire system and prevent successful operation. If the motherboard were faulty, the laptop would not boot properly, and the external monitor would not display the desktop. The successful operation with an external display confirms that the motherboard, including its graphics components and video output circuitry, is functioning properly.