CompTIA 220-1101 A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 4 Q 46-60
Visit here for our full CompTIA 220-1101 exam dumps and practice test questions.
Question 46:
A technician is troubleshooting a computer that is experiencing slow performance. The technician notices that the hard drive LED is constantly lit. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) Insufficient RAM causing excessive page file usage
B) A failing CPU fan causing thermal throttling
C) A corrupt video driver causing display issues
D) A failing network adapter causing connectivity issues
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question addresses a common performance issue related to storage subsystem activity and memory management. When a hard drive LED remains constantly lit, it indicates continuous disk activity, which is often a symptom of the system relying heavily on virtual memory or the page file.
When a computer has insufficient RAM to handle all running applications and processes, the operating system compensates by using a portion of the hard drive as virtual memory, commonly known as the page file or swap file. This process is called paging or swapping. As the system constantly moves data between RAM and the hard drive, the hard drive LED remains illuminated, indicating persistent read and write operations. Since hard drives are significantly slower than RAM, this excessive paging results in severe performance degradation, system slowdowns, and delayed application responses.
The page file serves as an overflow area when physical RAM is exhausted. Modern operating systems use demand paging, where data is moved between RAM and the page file as needed. When RAM is insufficient, the system experiences thrashing, a condition where it spends more time swapping data than executing programs. This manifests as a constantly lit hard drive LED and sluggish system performance. Users typically notice applications taking longer to respond, windows being slow to open, and general system unresponsiveness.
A) is correct because insufficient RAM directly causes the operating system to rely heavily on the page file, resulting in constant hard drive activity indicated by the continuously lit LED. This is the most common cause of both symptoms presented in the question.
B) is incorrect because while a failing CPU fan can cause thermal throttling, which reduces performance, it would not directly cause the hard drive LED to remain constantly lit. Thermal throttling affects CPU performance but does not increase disk activity.
C) is incorrect because a corrupt video driver would cause display-related problems such as screen artifacts, incorrect resolutions, or system crashes, but would not specifically cause constant hard drive activity or a persistently lit hard drive LED.
D) is incorrect because a failing network adapter would cause connectivity problems, slow network speeds, or intermittent network drops, but would not affect hard drive activity or cause the hard drive LED to remain constantly illuminated. Network issues are independent of storage subsystem performance.
Question 47:
A user reports that their laptop screen is very dim and difficult to read. The user can barely see the desktop icons. Which of the following is the MOST likely solution?
A) Replace the LCD screen
B) Increase the screen brightness using function keys
C) Update the graphics driver
D) Replace the laptop battery
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question addresses a common issue users experience with laptop displays, particularly related to brightness settings. When a laptop screen appears very dim but the display is still visible, the most likely cause is that the brightness level has been inadvertently reduced, rather than a hardware failure.
Most laptops include dedicated function keys that allow users to quickly adjust screen brightness without navigating through operating system settings. These function keys typically require pressing the Fn key in combination with a key marked with brightness symbols, usually represented by sun icons with plus and minus signs. Users may accidentally press these key combinations, resulting in reduced brightness levels. This is especially common when users are unfamiliar with their laptop’s keyboard layout or when cleaning the keyboard.
The brightness control is a firmware-level setting that operates independently of the operating system, allowing adjustments even before the operating system loads. Modern laptops remember the last brightness setting and apply it on subsequent boots. If a user accidentally reduced the brightness, it will remain at that level until manually adjusted. The dim screen described in the question, where icons are barely visible but still present, is characteristic of a low brightness setting rather than a complete backlight failure or LCD malfunction.
Before concluding that hardware replacement is necessary, technicians should always check the simplest and most common solutions first. This troubleshooting principle, often called the «low-hanging fruit» approach, saves time and resources by addressing likely causes before investigating complex hardware issues. Adjusting brightness settings takes seconds and costs nothing, making it the logical first step.
A) is incorrect because replacing the LCD screen is an expensive and time-consuming solution that should only be considered after ruling out simpler causes. If the screen were actually failing, there would typically be additional symptoms such as dead pixels, cracks, discoloration, or complete backlight failure where nothing is visible at all.
B) is correct because adjusting the screen brightness using function keys is the quickest, easiest, and most cost-effective solution. This addresses the most common cause of a dim laptop screen and should always be attempted first before considering hardware replacement or driver updates.
C) is incorrect because graphics driver issues typically cause problems such as incorrect resolutions, color distortion, flickering, or system crashes, but would not specifically cause the screen to appear uniformly dim. Driver problems affect how images are rendered, not the backlight intensity.
D) is incorrect because while a failing battery can cause various laptop issues, it does not directly affect screen brightness. The laptop would still maintain normal brightness when connected to AC power, and a battery issue would present symptoms like short runtime or failure to charge.
Question 48:
A technician needs to configure a SOHO router for a small business. Which of the following should be changed from the default settings to improve security? (Select TWO)
A) SSID broadcast
B) Admin password
C) DHCP settings
D) Wireless channel
E) Firmware version
Answer: B, E
Explanation:
This question focuses on essential security practices for configuring small office/home office routers. Default router configurations often leave networks vulnerable to unauthorized access and exploitation, making it critical to modify certain settings immediately after installation.
The admin password is one of the most critical security settings on any router. Manufacturers ship routers with default administrative credentials that are publicly documented and easily found online. These default passwords are often simple combinations like «admin/admin» or «admin/password» and are identical across thousands or millions of devices from the same manufacturer. Attackers routinely scan networks for devices using default credentials, making them easy targets for compromise. Once an attacker gains administrative access to a router, they can modify DNS settings to redirect traffic, steal data, deploy malware, or use the network for illegal activities. Changing the admin password to a strong, unique passphrase is the single most important security measure for any router deployment.
Firmware updates are equally critical for router security. Router firmware contains the operating system and security protocols that protect the network. Manufacturers regularly release firmware updates to patch newly discovered vulnerabilities, fix bugs, and improve functionality. Routers running outdated firmware are susceptible to known exploits that attackers can leverage to gain unauthorized access. Many significant security breaches have occurred because devices were running vulnerable firmware versions. Keeping firmware updated ensures that the latest security patches are applied, protecting against both known and emerging threats.
A) is incorrect because disabling SSID broadcast provides minimal security benefit and is often considered security through obscurity. While it hides the network name from casual observation, the SSID is still transmitted in other network packets and can be easily discovered using wireless analysis tools. This setting primarily inconveniences legitimate users.
B) is correct because changing the default admin password prevents unauthorized access to router configuration settings. This is a fundamental security practice that protects against both external attacks and unauthorized changes by individuals who know common default credentials.
C) is incorrect because DHCP settings control automatic IP address assignment and do not directly impact security. While DHCP can be configured for specific network management purposes, changing it from default settings is not a security requirement.
D) is incorrect because wireless channel selection affects network performance and interference, not security. Choosing a less congested channel improves connection quality but does not protect against unauthorized access.
E) is correct because updating firmware to the latest version ensures all known security vulnerabilities are patched. Outdated firmware is a common attack vector, and keeping it current is essential for maintaining network security.
Question 49:
A user is unable to access the Internet on their workstation. The technician verifies that the workstation has an IP address of 169.254.45.87. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) The DNS server is offline
B) The workstation cannot reach the DHCP server
C) The default gateway is incorrect
D) The subnet mask is misconfigured
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question tests understanding of automatic private IP addressing and DHCP functionality in network troubleshooting. The IP address shown in the question belongs to a specific range that Windows and other operating systems use when they cannot obtain a proper IP address from a DHCP server.
The IP address 169.254.45.87 falls within the Automatic Private IP Addressing range of 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255, specifically defined in RFC 3927. This address range is reserved for Automatic Private IP Addressing, a feature that allows devices to self-assign IP addresses when DHCP services are unavailable. When a computer configured for DHCP boots up or connects to a network, it sends broadcast messages requesting IP configuration from a DHCP server. If no DHCP server responds after multiple attempts, the operating system automatically assigns itself an APIPA address from the 169.254.x.x range.
APIPA addresses allow computers on the same local network segment to communicate with each other without manual configuration or DHCP services, but they do not provide Internet connectivity. Devices with APIPA addresses cannot communicate beyond their local subnet because these addresses are not routable on the Internet or across network boundaries. The presence of an APIPA address is a clear indicator that DHCP communication has failed, which could result from several scenarios including a disconnected network cable, a non-functioning DHCP server, network switch problems, or VLAN configuration issues preventing DHCP broadcast traffic from reaching the server.
A) is incorrect because DNS server problems would prevent domain name resolution but would not cause the workstation to receive an APIPA address. With DNS issues, the computer would still have a valid IP address from DHCP but would be unable to resolve website names to IP addresses.
B) is correct because the APIPA address definitively indicates that the workstation cannot communicate with the DHCP server. This is the root cause of the problem, as the workstation has fallen back to self-assigning an address after failing to receive DHCP configuration.
C) is incorrect because an incorrect default gateway would still allow the workstation to receive an IP address from DHCP. The gateway problem would prevent Internet access but would not trigger APIPA addressing.
D) is incorrect because a misconfigured subnet mask would not cause APIPA addressing. If DHCP were functioning, it would provide both the IP address and subnet mask configuration, preventing this scenario.
Question 50:
A technician is setting up a new wireless network for a small office. The office is located in a building with many other wireless networks nearby. Which of the following should the technician do to minimize interference?
A) Disable SSID broadcast
B) Enable MAC filtering
C) Change to a less congested wireless channel
D) Reduce the transmit power
Answer: C
Explanation:
This question addresses wireless network optimization in environments with multiple competing networks, a common scenario in office buildings, apartment complexes, and urban areas. Understanding wireless channels and interference is essential for maintaining reliable wireless connectivity and optimal performance.
Wireless networks operating on the 2.4 GHz frequency band use channels numbered 1 through 11 in North America or 1 through 13 in other regions. However, these channels overlap significantly, with each channel spanning approximately 22 MHz of bandwidth. Only channels 1, 6, and 11 are truly non-overlapping in the 2.4 GHz band. When multiple wireless networks operate on the same or overlapping channels in close proximity, they create co-channel interference, resulting in reduced throughput, increased latency, packet loss, and unreliable connections.
In densely populated wireless environments, conducting a site survey using wireless analysis tools helps identify which channels are most congested. Technicians can use utilities like Wi-Fi analyzers, spectrum analyzers, or built-in operating system tools to visualize nearby networks and their channel usage. By selecting a channel with minimal usage, particularly one of the non-overlapping channels that has the least competing traffic, network performance can be significantly improved. The 5 GHz frequency band offers an alternative with more non-overlapping channels and typically less congestion, though it has shorter range and reduced wall penetration compared to 2.4 GHz.
Interference manifests in various ways including slow file transfers, buffering during video streaming, dropped connections, and poor VoIP call quality. Channel optimization is a straightforward solution that addresses the root cause of interference without requiring expensive equipment upgrades or complex configuration changes.
A) is incorrect because disabling SSID broadcast does not reduce interference. This setting only hides the network name from casual discovery but does not affect how radio signals interact or compete for airspace with other networks.
B) is incorrect because MAC filtering is a security measure that restricts which devices can connect to the network based on their hardware addresses. It has no effect on wireless interference or signal quality from neighboring networks.
C) is correct because changing to a less congested wireless channel directly addresses interference by moving the network to a frequency range with fewer competing signals. This improves signal quality, reduces packet collisions, and enhances overall network performance.
D) is incorrect because reducing transmit power would decrease the network’s coverage area and signal strength, potentially making connectivity worse for legitimate users while not effectively addressing interference from neighboring networks operating on the same channel.
Question 51:
A user reports that their computer keeps displaying a «No Boot Device Found» error message when starting up. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) Corrupted operating system files
B) Failed hard drive
C) Insufficient RAM
D) Faulty power supply
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question focuses on boot process troubleshooting and understanding error messages related to storage device detection. The «No Boot Device Found» error occurs during the Power-On Self-Test phase when the system BIOS or UEFI firmware cannot locate a valid bootable storage device.
When a computer starts, the firmware performs POST to verify hardware components are functioning properly. After POST completes, the firmware searches for bootable devices according to the boot order specified in BIOS/UEFI settings. It looks for devices containing boot sectors with valid boot signatures. If no device responds or if the detected devices lack proper boot information, the system displays a «No Boot Device Found» or similar error message.
A failed hard drive is the most common cause of this error. Hard drives fail through various mechanisms including mechanical failures in traditional HDDs where platters, read/write heads, or motors malfunction, and electronic failures in both HDDs and SSDs where controller circuits fail. When a hard drive fails completely, the system cannot detect it during the boot process, resulting in this error. Partial failures might allow detection but prevent successful booting due to corrupted boot sectors.
Other potential causes include loose or disconnected storage cables, incorrect boot order settings prioritizing non-bootable devices, or BIOS settings accidentally disabling the storage controller. However, given the error message and typical failure patterns, a failed hard drive represents the most probable cause requiring immediate attention and likely hardware replacement.
A) is incorrect because corrupted operating system files would still allow the BIOS to detect the hard drive as a device. The error would occur later in the boot process, typically displaying messages like «Missing Operating System,» «BOOTMGR is missing,» or system repair screens rather than «No Boot Device Found.»
B) is correct because a failed hard drive prevents the system from detecting any bootable device, directly causing the «No Boot Device Found» error. This represents a complete hardware failure requiring drive replacement and data recovery from backups.
C) is incorrect because insufficient RAM causes different symptoms such as system instability, slow performance, or failure to boot past POST with specific memory-related beep codes. The system would still detect the hard drive even with RAM issues.
D) is incorrect because a faulty power supply would typically prevent the computer from powering on at all or cause random shutdowns and restarts. If the computer reaches the point of displaying error messages, the power supply is providing sufficient power for basic operation.
Question 52:
A technician needs to connect a new printer to a network. The printer only has a USB interface. Which of the following devices should the technician use to accomplish this task?
A) Switch
B) Hub
C) Print server
D) Repeater
Answer: C
Explanation:
This question addresses network printing solutions for devices that lack built-in network interfaces. Many printers, especially older or budget models, only include USB connectivity, limiting them to direct connection with a single computer. Organizations often need to share these printers across multiple users on a network.
A print server is a specialized hardware device or software application that bridges the gap between USB-only printers and network infrastructure. Hardware print servers are small dedicated devices with one or more USB ports for printer connections and an Ethernet or wireless network interface for connecting to the local area network. The print server receives print jobs from network computers, translates the communication protocols, and forwards the jobs to the USB-connected printer. This effectively converts a USB printer into a network printer accessible by multiple users simultaneously.
Print servers operate by creating a network share or using standard network printing protocols such as Internet Printing Protocol, Line Printer Daemon protocol, or Server Message Block. Client computers install printer drivers configured to communicate with the print server’s network address rather than a local USB port. The print server manages the print queue, handles multiple concurrent print jobs, and ensures orderly job processing. Many print servers also provide web-based management interfaces for monitoring printer status, configuring settings, and managing access permissions.
Alternative solutions include connecting the USB printer to a computer and sharing it through operating system print sharing features, but this requires the host computer to remain powered on constantly. Dedicated hardware print servers offer more reliable operation, better performance, and independence from user computers.
A) is incorrect because a switch is a network device that connects multiple devices using Ethernet cables and facilitates communication between them. Switches operate at Layer 2 or Layer 3 of the OSI model and cannot interface with USB devices or convert USB signals to network protocols.
B) is incorrect because a hub is a basic network device that broadcasts data to all connected ports. Like switches, hubs only work with Ethernet connections and cannot connect or communicate with USB devices.
C) is correct because a print server specifically converts USB printer connections to network-accessible resources. This device enables multiple network users to share a USB-only printer as if it were a native network printer.
D) is incorrect because a repeater amplifies and retransmits network signals to extend the physical range of a network. Repeaters work with network cables or wireless signals and cannot interface with USB devices or provide protocol conversion.
Question 53:
A user’s mobile device is experiencing poor battery life. Which of the following should a technician recommend FIRST to improve battery performance?
A) Replace the battery
B) Reduce screen brightness and timeout
C) Perform a factory reset
D) Update the operating system
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question addresses mobile device battery optimization through configuration changes before pursuing more drastic measures. Understanding battery consumption factors is essential for providing effective user support and extending mobile device usability between charges.
The display is consistently the largest power consumer on mobile devices, typically accounting for 30 to 50 percent of total battery usage under normal conditions. Modern smartphones and tablets use power-intensive display technologies including LCD, OLED, and AMOLED screens that require significant electrical current, especially at higher brightness levels. The relationship between brightness and power consumption is roughly linear, meaning reducing brightness by 50 percent can decrease display power consumption by approximately the same proportion.
Screen timeout settings determine how long the display remains active after the last user interaction. Shorter timeout periods ensure the screen turns off quickly when not actively in use, preventing unnecessary battery drain. Many users leave brightness at maximum levels and timeout settings at extended durations without realizing the substantial impact on battery life. These settings can be adjusted immediately without cost, risk, or technical expertise, making them ideal first steps in addressing battery concerns.
Additional battery-saving measures include disabling unnecessary background app refresh, reducing location services frequency, disabling push email in favor of manual fetch, managing wireless connections by turning off Bluetooth and Wi-Fi when not needed, and enabling battery saver or low power modes. However, display settings provide the most immediate and significant impact on battery life while minimally affecting usability.
A) is incorrect because battery replacement is an expensive and potentially unnecessary solution that should only be considered after software-based optimizations have been attempted. Battery replacement is appropriate when the battery has degraded significantly after many charge cycles, but not as a first troubleshooting step.
B) is correct because reducing screen brightness and timeout settings provides immediate battery life improvement without cost or risk. This addresses the largest single power consumer and represents the most logical first step in battery optimization.
C) is incorrect because performing a factory reset is a drastic measure that erases all user data and settings. While it might help if battery drain results from problematic software, it should not be the first recommendation due to its disruptive nature.
D) is incorrect because updating the operating system might improve battery life if the update includes optimization improvements, but it is not guaranteed to solve the problem and should not be the first step. Updates also carry risks of compatibility issues or increased power consumption in some cases.
Question 54:
A technician is troubleshooting a desktop computer that is randomly restarting. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) Overheating CPU
B) Corrupted RAM
C) Outdated graphics driver
D) Insufficient hard drive space
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question focuses on identifying hardware issues that cause system instability, specifically random restarts. Understanding thermal management and its effects on computer stability is crucial for effective hardware troubleshooting.
The central processing unit generates significant heat during operation, with modern processors producing 65 to over 250 watts of thermal energy depending on the model and workload. CPUs include integrated thermal protection mechanisms that prevent permanent damage from excessive temperatures. When a processor reaches its thermal threshold, typically between 90 and 105 degrees Celsius depending on the model, it implements thermal throttling by reducing clock speeds to decrease heat generation. If temperatures continue rising despite throttling, the processor triggers an emergency thermal shutdown, causing the computer to restart or power off immediately without warning.
CPU overheating results from various factors including failed or improperly mounted heatsinks, non-functioning cooling fans, dried thermal paste that no longer transfers heat effectively, blocked air vents restricting airflow, excessive dust accumulation inside the case, or ambient room temperatures exceeding design specifications. Random restarts occur when the CPU periodically reaches critical temperatures during demanding tasks, triggering protective shutdowns. The randomness reflects varying workload intensities and corresponding heat generation.
Diagnosing overheating involves checking cooling system functionality, monitoring temperatures using BIOS hardware monitors or software utilities, listening for fan operation, inspecting for dust buildup, and verifying proper heatsink mounting. Solutions include cleaning dust from components, replacing thermal paste, ensuring all fans operate correctly, improving case airflow, and verifying that the cooling system matches the processor’s thermal requirements.
A) is correct because CPU overheating triggers automatic thermal protection that forces immediate system restarts to prevent permanent hardware damage. This is one of the most common causes of random restart behavior and directly correlates with the described symptom.
B) is incorrect because while corrupted or failing RAM can cause system instability, it typically manifests as blue screen errors, application crashes, or system freezes rather than clean restarts. Memory issues usually generate error messages or log entries before system failure.
C) is incorrect because outdated graphics drivers typically cause display issues, application crashes, or poor graphics performance. While severely problematic drivers might cause system crashes, they would not typically cause random restarts without accompanying error messages or blue screens.
D) is incorrect because insufficient hard drive space causes performance degradation, prevents file saving, and may prevent updates or installations, but does not cause random system restarts. The operating system generates warnings about low disk space but continues operating.
Question 55:
Which of the following connector types is commonly used for analog video connections?
A) HDMI
B) DisplayPort
C) VGA
D) USB-C
Answer: C
Explanation:
This question tests knowledge of video connector standards and the fundamental difference between analog and digital video transmission technologies. Understanding connector types is essential for properly connecting displays and troubleshooting video connectivity issues.
VGA stands for Video Graphics Array, a video standard introduced by IBM in 1987 that became ubiquitous for computer displays throughout the 1990s and early 2000s. VGA uses analog signals to transmit video information, representing color and brightness as continuously variable voltage levels rather than discrete digital values. The VGA connector is a 15-pin D-subminiature connector arranged in three rows, typically colored blue, with thumbscrews for securing the connection.
Analog video transmission in VGA works by sending separate signals for red, green, and blue color channels, along with horizontal and vertical synchronization signals. The analog nature means signal quality degrades over long cable distances, and the connection is susceptible to electromagnetic interference. Maximum practical resolution for VGA is typically 1920×1200, though higher resolutions are theoretically possible with shorter cables and high-quality components. VGA only transmits video signals and requires separate audio connections.
Despite being legacy technology, VGA remains relevant because many older projectors, monitors, and computers still use VGA connections. Many modern computers and displays no longer include native VGA ports, requiring adapters to connect to older equipment. The industry has largely transitioned to digital interfaces offering superior image quality, higher resolutions, and integrated audio transmission.
A) is incorrect because HDMI is a fully digital interface that transmits both high-definition video and multichannel audio through a single cable. HDMI uses packet-based digital transmission completely different from analog video signals.
B) is incorrect because DisplayPort is also a digital interface designed for connecting video sources to display devices. DisplayPort supports higher resolutions and refresh rates than HDMI and uses digital packet-based transmission rather than analog signals.
C) is correct because VGA is the standard analog video connector used for decades on computers and displays. It transmits video as analog signals and is the only analog option among the choices presented.
D) is incorrect because USB-C is a multipurpose digital connector that can carry various data types including video through protocols like DisplayPort Alt Mode. All video transmission through USB-C uses digital signals, not analog.
Question 56:
A technician needs to install additional memory in a desktop computer. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A) Check the maximum supported memory capacity
B) Purchase the highest speed RAM available
C) Remove the existing memory modules
D) Update the BIOS firmware
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question addresses proper planning procedures before upgrading computer memory. Understanding system limitations and compatibility requirements prevents purchasing incorrect components and ensures successful upgrades.
Every computer motherboard and processor combination has specific memory limitations determined by the chipset architecture, motherboard design, and CPU memory controller capabilities. These limitations include maximum total memory capacity, maximum memory per slot, supported memory types, compatible speeds, and maximum number of modules. Installing memory that exceeds these specifications may result in the system not recognizing all installed memory, boot failures, or system instability.
Checking maximum supported memory capacity involves consulting several sources including the computer or motherboard manufacturer’s documentation, the motherboard’s printed specifications, system information utilities within the operating system, or CPU specifications from the processor manufacturer. This research reveals critical information such as whether the system uses DDR3, DDR4, or DDR5 memory, the maximum capacity per slot, whether dual-channel or quad-channel configuration is supported, and compatible memory speeds.
For example, a motherboard might support a maximum of 32 GB of DDR4 memory across four slots, meaning each slot can accept up to an 8 GB module. Installing 16 GB modules would exceed the per-slot limitation even though the total would be within the 32 GB maximum capacity. Similarly, mixing memory types or incompatible speeds can cause boot failures or force all memory to run at the slowest module’s speed.
Beyond capacity, technicians should verify compatibility with existing modules if performing an expansion rather than complete replacement. Matching specifications including memory type, speed, timing, and voltage ensures optimal stability and performance. Mismatched memory often works but may cause intermittent stability issues or force conservative memory settings.
A) is correct because checking the maximum supported memory capacity ensures the technician purchases compatible memory that the system can fully utilize. This prevents wasted money on incompatible or excessive memory and ensures a successful upgrade.
B) is incorrect because purchasing the highest speed RAM available is unnecessary and potentially wasteful. The system will operate memory at the highest speed it supports, so faster memory provides no benefit. Additionally, speed is irrelevant if capacity or type is incompatible.
C) is incorrect because removing existing memory modules before determining what replacement or additional memory is needed could leave the system inoperable and provides no diagnostic benefit. Memory should only be removed after obtaining appropriate replacements.
D) is incorrect because updating BIOS firmware is not a prerequisite for memory installation in most cases. While newer BIOS versions might improve memory compatibility or support higher capacities, this should not be the first step and is often unnecessary.
Question 57:
A user reports that their computer is running very slowly and that pop-up advertisements keep appearing. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) Failing hard drive
B) Insufficient RAM
C) Malware infection
D) Outdated operating system
Answer: C
Explanation:
This question addresses identifying malware infections based on characteristic symptoms. Understanding how malware affects system behavior is essential for effective security troubleshooting and remediation.
Malware encompasses various types of malicious software including viruses, trojans, worms, spyware, adware, and ransomware. Adware specifically generates revenue for its creators by displaying unwanted advertisements, often through pop-up windows that appear randomly regardless of which application is active. The combination of significantly degraded system performance and persistent unwanted advertisements is a hallmark symptom of malware infection, particularly adware or potentially unwanted programs.
Malware causes performance degradation through multiple mechanisms including consuming processor cycles for malicious activities, using memory for malicious processes, generating excessive network traffic for command and control communication or data exfiltration, and modifying system configurations to ensure persistence. Browser hijackers redirect web searches and home pages, adware injects advertisements into web pages and generates pop-ups, and cryptocurrency miners use processor resources for mining operations. These activities compete with legitimate applications for system resources, causing overall slowness.
The persistent pop-up advertisements mentioned in the question specifically indicate adware infection. These pop-ups typically appear outside web browsers as separate windows, occur when no browser is open, promote suspicious products or services, or direct users to potentially dangerous websites. Legitimate advertisements only appear within web browsers on websites that host advertising, whereas malware-generated pop-ups occur system-wide.
Addressing malware infections requires running comprehensive antimalware scans using updated security software, removing identified threats, checking browser extensions for suspicious add-ons, resetting browser settings to defaults, and potentially using specialized removal tools for stubborn infections. Prevention includes maintaining updated security software, avoiding suspicious downloads and email attachments, and practicing safe browsing habits.
A) is incorrect because a failing hard drive causes symptoms such as unusual noises, extremely slow file access, frequent disk errors, or system crashes, but would not cause pop-up advertisements. While a failing drive does affect performance, the specific symptom of pop-ups indicates malware rather than hardware failure.
B) is incorrect because insufficient RAM causes slowness when running multiple applications or memory-intensive programs, but does not generate pop-up advertisements. Memory limitations result in excessive paging and application delays, not unwanted advertising.
C) is correct because the combination of severe performance degradation and persistent pop-up advertisements is characteristic of malware infection, specifically adware or potentially unwanted programs. This matches the described symptoms precisely and represents the most likely cause.
D) is incorrect because an outdated operating system might have security vulnerabilities and miss performance improvements, but does not directly cause pop-up advertisements. An outdated system might be more susceptible to malware infection, but the advertisements themselves indicate active malware rather than simply outdated software.
Question 58:
A technician is configuring a RAID array that provides both redundancy and improved read performance. Which of the following RAID levels should the technician implement?
A) RAID 0
B) RAID 1
C) RAID 5
D) RAID 10
Answer: C
Explanation:
This question tests understanding of RAID configurations and their respective characteristics regarding performance, redundancy, and storage efficiency. RAID technology combines multiple physical drives into logical units to achieve various benefits depending on the configuration level selected.
RAID 5 uses block-level striping with distributed parity across three or more drives. Data and parity information are distributed across all drives in the array, allowing any single drive to fail without data loss. When reading data, RAID 5 can retrieve information from multiple drives simultaneously, providing improved read performance compared to single drives. The distributed parity means that unlike RAID 1 which duplicates data, RAID 5 uses storage space more efficiently while still providing fault tolerance.
The performance characteristics of RAID 5 include enhanced read speeds because multiple drives can service read requests concurrently, similar to RAID 0 striping benefits. However, write performance is typically slower than single drives because the controller must calculate parity information and write both data and parity across multiple drives. This write penalty is acceptable in many applications where read operations predominate.
RAID 5 requires a minimum of three drives and provides usable capacity equal to the sum of all drives minus one drive’s capacity for parity. For example, four 1 TB drives in RAID 5 provide 3 TB of usable storage. This represents a better storage efficiency ratio than RAID 1 or RAID 10 while maintaining single-drive fault tolerance. However, RAID 5 cannot survive multiple simultaneous drive failures, and rebuild times after drive replacement can be lengthy for large capacity drives.
A) is incorrect because RAID 0 provides improved read and write performance through striping data across multiple drives but offers absolutely no redundancy. If any single drive fails, all data in the array is lost. This violates the requirement for redundancy.
B) is incorrect because RAID 1 provides redundancy through complete data mirroring but does not significantly improve read performance beyond what a single drive provides. While some implementations can read from both drives simultaneously, the performance improvement is minimal compared to striping configurations.
C) is correct because RAID 5 provides both redundancy through distributed parity and improved read performance through striping data across multiple drives. This directly satisfies both requirements specified in the question.
D) is incorrect while RAID 10 does provide both redundancy and excellent read performance, it was not asked for in this question and typically offers better performance than RAID 5 but at the cost of 50 percent storage efficiency compared to RAID 5’s more efficient capacity utilization. The question asks for a RAID level, and both RAID 5 and RAID 10 technically meet the criteria, but RAID 5 is the better answer given standard industry implementations.
Question 59:
A user’s laptop is not charging when plugged in. The charging indicator light does not illuminate. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?
A) Battery health
B) Power adapter output
C) Charging port condition
D) BIOS battery settings
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question addresses systematic troubleshooting of laptop charging issues by identifying the most fundamental component to verify first. Effective troubleshooting follows a logical progression from most likely and easily tested causes to more complex possibilities.
The power adapter converts AC mains voltage to the specific DC voltage and current required by the laptop. Power adapters can fail due to internal component failure, damaged cables, broken connectors, or deteriorated solder joints. When a power adapter fails completely, it provides no power to the laptop, resulting in no charging indicator light, no battery charging, and inability to operate the laptop without battery power if the battery is depleted.
Checking the power adapter first makes logical sense because it is external, easily accessible, and can be tested without opening the laptop or using specialized tools. A technician can verify power adapter output using a multimeter to measure voltage at the connector tip, try a known working replacement adapter if available, check for physical damage to the adapter and cable, verify the wall outlet provides power by testing with another device, and check for indicator lights on the adapter itself if equipped.
The power adapter represents a single point of failure in the charging system. If the adapter provides no output, nothing downstream can function properly regardless of battery condition, port condition, or settings. This makes it the most fundamental component to verify and represents the easiest component to replace if defective. Many charging problems are resolved simply by replacing a failed power adapter.
This troubleshooting approach follows the principle of starting with simple, obvious causes before investigating more complex possibilities. It minimizes unnecessary disassembly, reduces troubleshooting time, and often identifies the problem quickly.
A) is incorrect because checking battery health becomes relevant only after verifying that power is being delivered to the laptop. Additionally, even with a completely failed battery, the charging indicator would typically illuminate and the laptop would operate on adapter power alone if the adapter were functioning properly.
B) is correct because verifying the power adapter output is the most fundamental first step. If the adapter is not producing the correct voltage, nothing else in the charging system can function properly. This is the easiest component to test and represents the most common failure point.
Question 60:
A technician needs to securely dispose of hard drives that contain sensitive data. Which of the following methods provides the MOST secure data destruction?
A) Reformatting the drives
B) Degaussing the drives
C) Deleting all files and emptying recycle bin
D) Physical destruction of the drives
Answer: D
Explanation:
This question addresses data security and proper disposal procedures for storage devices containing sensitive information. Understanding data destruction methods is critical for protecting confidential information and ensuring compliance with privacy regulations and organizational policies.
Physical destruction involves rendering storage media completely unusable through mechanical means including shredding drives into small pieces, drilling multiple holes through platters and circuit boards, crushing drives with hydraulic presses, or incinerating drives at high temperatures. Physical destruction ensures that data cannot be recovered through any technical means because the physical media no longer exists in any usable form. This represents the highest level of security for data destruction.
Hard drives store data magnetically on platters in traditional HDDs or electronically in flash memory chips for SSDs. Even after deletion or formatting, data physically remains on the storage media and can often be recovered using specialized software or techniques. Simple file deletion only removes file system references while leaving actual data intact. Formatting creates a new file system structure but typically does not overwrite existing data. Even multiple-pass overwriting methods, while effective, rely on proper execution and complete coverage of all storage areas including remapped sectors and hidden areas.
Physical destruction eliminates uncertainty about whether data was completely overwritten or whether recovery techniques might retrieve remnants. Organizations handling classified information, financial records, medical data, or other sensitive information often require physical destruction to meet regulatory compliance requirements under standards like NIST SP 800-88, HIPAA, or GDPR. Certified destruction services provide documentation of destruction for audit and compliance purposes.
For SSDs specifically, physical destruction is especially important because wear-leveling algorithms and over-provisioned storage areas mean that software-based wiping methods cannot guarantee all data copies are overwritten. The controller may retain data in areas inaccessible to normal overwriting procedures.
A) is incorrect because reformatting creates a new file system structure but does not overwrite the actual data on the drive. Data recovery software can easily retrieve files from reformatted drives, making this method completely inadequate for secure disposal.
B) is incorrect because while degaussing effectively destroys data on traditional magnetic hard drives by disrupting magnetic fields, it does not work on solid-state drives that use flash memory. Additionally, degaussing renders the drive potentially reusable by sophisticated attackers with specialized equipment, and verification of complete data destruction is difficult.
C) is incorrect because deleting files and emptying the recycle bin only removes file system entries while leaving all data physically intact on the drive. This is the least secure method and allows trivial data recovery using basic recovery tools.
D) is correct because physical destruction provides absolute certainty that data cannot be recovered. By mechanically destroying the storage media itself, no possibility exists for data retrieval regardless of the technology or techniques employed. This represents the most secure data destruction method.