CompTIA 220-1101 A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 2 Q 16-30
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Question 16:
A technician is troubleshooting a computer that is experiencing random shutdowns and performance issues. Upon inspection, the technician notices that the CPU temperature is consistently reaching 95°C. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A) Failing power supply unit
B) Insufficient RAM capacity
C) Dried thermal paste on the CPU
D) Corrupted operating system files
Answer: C
Explanation:
CPU overheating is a critical hardware issue that can lead to system instability, random shutdowns, and degraded performance. Modern processors have built-in thermal protection mechanisms that automatically throttle performance or shut down the system when temperatures exceed safe operating limits, typically around 90-100°C depending on the processor model. Understanding the causes of thermal issues is essential for proper computer maintenance and troubleshooting.
The most likely cause of sustained high CPU temperatures is dried or degraded thermal paste. Thermal paste, also called thermal compound or thermal interface material (TIM), is applied between the CPU and the heatsink to fill microscopic gaps and improve heat transfer. Over time, thermal paste can dry out, crack, or lose its thermal conductivity properties due to heat cycles and age. When this occurs, heat cannot efficiently transfer from the CPU to the heatsink, causing temperatures to rise dramatically. This is especially common in systems that are several years old or have never had thermal paste maintenance performed.
When thermal paste degrades, an air gap forms between the CPU and heatsink, and since air is a poor thermal conductor compared to thermal paste, heat accumulates on the CPU die. The heatsink cannot effectively dissipate this heat, leading to thermal throttling and eventual system shutdown as protective measures activate. Other factors that can contribute to high CPU temperatures include dust accumulation in heatsinks, failed cooling fans, or improperly mounted heatsinks, but dried thermal paste is the most common culprit.
Option A, a failing power supply unit, typically causes different symptoms such as unexpected shutdowns under load, failure to power on, or system instability unrelated to temperature. While PSU issues can cause shutdowns, they wouldn’t specifically cause elevated CPU temperatures. Option B, insufficient RAM capacity, would cause performance slowdowns, excessive page file usage, and application crashes, but would not directly cause CPU overheating. RAM capacity issues manifest as memory-related errors rather than thermal problems. Option D, corrupted operating system files, would cause software-related issues such as blue screens, application crashes, boot failures, or system errors, but would not cause sustained high hardware temperatures.
The solution involves removing the heatsink, cleaning off the old thermal paste with isopropyl alcohol, applying fresh thermal paste, and properly reattaching the heatsink. This maintenance procedure typically resolves thermal issues and restores normal operating temperatures.
Question 17:
A user reports that their laptop screen is very dim and difficult to read, even though the brightness settings are at maximum. An external monitor connected to the laptop displays normally. Which of the following components is MOST likely causing this issue?
A) Graphics processing unit
B) LCD inverter or backlight
C) Video cable connection
D) System RAM modules
Answer: B
Explanation:
Laptop display issues that involve dimness or lack of brightness, while the screen still displays an image, typically indicate problems with the backlight system or its power supply components. Understanding the laptop display architecture is crucial for diagnosing these types of issues. Modern laptop displays consist of the LCD panel itself, which creates the image, and a backlight system that illuminates the panel so the image is visible to the user.
The LCD inverter (in older laptops with CCFL backlights) or the LED backlight driver circuit (in newer laptops with LED backlights) is responsible for providing power to the backlight. When these components fail or malfunction, the backlight operates at reduced capacity or fails completely. The key diagnostic clue in this scenario is that the screen displays an image but is extremely dim, even at maximum brightness settings. This indicates that the LCD panel itself is functioning and creating images, but the backlight that illuminates the panel is not working properly.
In older laptops with cold cathode fluorescent lamp (CCFL) backlights, the inverter converts DC power to the high-voltage AC power required by the fluorescent tube. When inverters fail, they often fail gradually, causing progressively dimmer displays before complete failure. In modern laptops with LED backlights, the LED driver circuit can fail similarly, causing reduced brightness or complete backlight failure. Users can often still see a faint image on the screen by shining a flashlight on it, confirming that the LCD panel works but lacks proper backlighting.
Option A, graphics processing unit failure, would cause different symptoms such as no display output, artifacts, distorted images, or color problems on both internal and external displays. Since the external monitor displays normally, the GPU is functioning correctly. Option C, video cable connection issues, would typically cause flickering, intermittent display, or complete loss of image, not consistent dimness across the entire screen. Additionally, cable issues often worsen with movement of the laptop lid. Option D, system RAM modules, would cause system instability, boot failures, or blue screens, but would not specifically affect display brightness while leaving external monitor functionality intact.
The appropriate solution involves replacing the failed inverter board or LED backlight assembly, depending on the laptop’s backlight technology.
Question 18:
A technician needs to configure a new wireless router for a small office. The office requires the BEST possible wireless performance and has devices that support the latest Wi-Fi standards. Which of the following wireless standards should the technician configure to provide the FASTEST speeds?
A)11g
B)11n
C)11ac
D)11ax
Answer: D
Explanation:
Understanding wireless networking standards is essential for configuring optimal network performance in modern environments. The IEEE 802.11 family of standards defines wireless local area network (WLAN) communication protocols, with each generation offering improvements in speed, range, efficiency, and capacity. When selecting the appropriate wireless standard, technicians must consider both theoretical maximum speeds and real-world performance factors.
The 802.11ax standard, also marketed as Wi-Fi 6 or Wi-Fi 6E, represents the latest generation of wireless technology and provides the fastest speeds available. This standard offers theoretical maximum speeds up to 9.6 Gbps, though real-world speeds typically range from 1-3 Gbps depending on environmental conditions and client device capabilities. Beyond raw speed, 802.11ax introduces several advanced technologies that improve overall network performance in dense environments.
Key improvements in 802.11ax include Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access (OFDMA), which allows simultaneous transmission to multiple devices rather than sequential transmission, significantly reducing latency and improving efficiency in environments with many connected devices. The standard also implements Target Wake Time (TWT), which improves battery life for mobile devices by scheduling when devices wake to transmit or receive data. Additionally, 802.11ax operates on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands (with 6 GHz support in Wi-Fi 6E), utilizing wider channels and more efficient modulation schemes (1024-QAM) compared to previous generations.
Option A, 802.11g, is an older standard from 2003 that operates only on the 2.4 GHz band with maximum theoretical speeds of 54 Mbps. While still functional for basic tasks, it is significantly outdated for modern office requirements. Option B, 802.11n (Wi-Fi 4), introduced in 2009, operates on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands with maximum theoretical speeds of 600 Mbps using multiple antenna configurations. While adequate for basic office work, it lacks the efficiency and speed of newer standards. Option C, 802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5), released in 2013, operates exclusively on 5 GHz with theoretical speeds up to 3.5 Gbps using advanced features like multi-user MIMO. While significantly faster than 802.11n, it still falls short of 802.11ax capabilities.
For a small office requiring the best possible wireless performance with modern devices, configuring 802.11ax ensures maximum speed, efficiency, and future-proofing for evolving network demands.
Question 19:
A user’s computer displays a «No Boot Device Found» error when powered on. The technician verifies that the hard drive is properly connected and appears in the BIOS. Which of the following should the technician check NEXT?
A) RAM module configuration
B) Boot order settings in BIOS
C) Power supply voltage output
D) Network adapter settings
Answer: B
Explanation:
Boot sequence errors are common troubleshooting scenarios that require systematic diagnosis to identify the root cause. When a computer displays a «No Boot Device Found» or similar error message, it indicates that the system’s firmware (BIOS or UEFI) cannot locate a valid operating system bootloader on any connected storage device. The logical troubleshooting approach follows a progression from most likely to least likely causes.
Since the technician has already verified that the hard drive is properly connected and appears in the BIOS, this confirms that the hardware is physically functional and the system can detect the storage device. The next logical step is to check the boot order settings in BIOS/UEFI. The boot order, also called boot sequence or boot priority, determines which devices the system checks for bootable operating systems and in what order. If the boot order is incorrectly configured, the system might attempt to boot from devices without operating systems (such as optical drives, USB ports, or network boot) before checking the hard drive.
Common scenarios that cause boot order issues include BIOS settings being reset to defaults after battery replacement or CMOS clear, accidental changes during BIOS configuration, or updates that reset custom settings. Additionally, if a non-bootable USB drive or disc is connected to the system, and those devices are higher in the boot priority than the hard drive, the system will attempt to boot from them first and fail. The solution involves entering the BIOS/UEFI setup utility (typically by pressing F2, Del, F10, or Esc during startup) and modifying the boot order to prioritize the hard drive containing the operating system.
Option A, RAM module configuration, would cause different symptoms such as POST beep codes, failure to reach BIOS, or memory-related error messages. Since the system reaches BIOS and can detect hardware, RAM is functioning adequately. Option C, power supply voltage output, would cause power-related issues such as unexpected shutdowns, failure to power on, or intermittent operation, not boot device detection problems. If the PSU were failing, the system likely wouldn’t reach the point of displaying boot errors. Option D, network adapter settings, are irrelevant to local hard drive boot issues unless specifically attempting network boot (PXE boot), which is uncommon in standard user environments.
After correcting the boot order, the system should successfully locate and load the operating system from the hard drive.
Question 20:
A technician is installing a new solid-state drive (SSD) in a desktop computer to improve performance. Which of the following interfaces will provide the FASTEST data transfer speeds for the SSD?
A) SATA III
B) USB 3.0
C) NVMe M.2
D) eSATA
Answer: C
Explanation:
Storage interface technology has evolved significantly to accommodate the performance capabilities of modern solid-state drives. Understanding the differences between storage interfaces is crucial for maximizing system performance, as the interface can become a bottleneck that prevents drives from reaching their full potential. Each interface has different bandwidth limitations, protocols, and physical connection methods.
NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) over the M.2 interface provides the fastest data transfer speeds currently available for consumer solid-state drives. NVMe is a communications protocol specifically designed for SSDs that connects directly to the PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) bus, bypassing the limitations of older SATA-based protocols. Modern NVMe drives using PCIe 3.0 x4 can achieve sequential read speeds of 3,500 MB/s and write speeds of 3,000 MB/s, while PCIe 4.0 NVMe drives can exceed 7,000 MB/s for both reads and writes. This represents a dramatic improvement over previous interface technologies.
The M.2 form factor is a small, rectangular connector that can support either SATA or NVMe protocols, though NVMe M.2 drives provide superior performance. The direct PCIe connection eliminates controller overhead and reduces latency significantly compared to SATA connections. NVMe also supports much deeper command queues (64,000 queues with 64,000 commands each) compared to SATA’s single queue of 32 commands, allowing for better parallel processing and improved performance in multi-threaded applications.
Option A, SATA III (also called SATA 6Gb/s), is limited to theoretical maximum speeds of 600 MB/s, though real-world speeds typically reach about 550 MB/s due to protocol overhead. While adequate for many applications, SATA III represents a significant bottleneck for modern high-performance SSDs. Option B, USB 3.0, provides theoretical speeds of 5 Gbps (about 625 MB/s), but is primarily used for external storage rather than internal system drives and includes overhead that reduces effective speeds. Option D, eSATA (external SATA), provides the same 600 MB/s maximum as internal SATA III but is designed for external connections and is largely obsolete, having been superseded by USB and Thunderbolt technologies.
For maximum performance when installing a new SSD, technicians should verify that the motherboard supports NVMe M.2 connections and install an NVMe drive to take full advantage of modern storage capabilities.
Question 21:
A user reports that their computer is running slowly and the hard drive activity light is constantly illuminated. The technician opens Task Manager and observes that the disk usage is at 100%. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A) Failing graphics card
B) Windows Search indexing service
C) Insufficient CPU cooling
D) Low network bandwidth
Answer: B
Explanation:
Persistent high disk usage is a common performance issue in Windows operating systems that can significantly impact system responsiveness and user experience. When disk usage reaches 100%, the storage device becomes a bottleneck, causing applications to freeze, slow response times, and general system sluggishness. Identifying the root cause requires understanding various system processes and services that can generate intensive disk activity.
The Windows Search indexing service is one of the most common causes of sustained high disk usage, particularly after system updates, new file additions, or initial system setup. This service creates and maintains an index of files on the computer to enable fast file searches through the Start menu and File Explorer. The indexing process reads files, extracts metadata, and updates the search database, generating substantial disk I/O activity. On systems with traditional hard disk drives (HDDs), this indexing can consume 100% of disk bandwidth for extended periods, sometimes hours or days, especially when indexing large numbers of files.
The indexing service typically runs with low priority to minimize impact, but on systems with slower storage or limited resources, it can still monopolize disk access. Other common symptoms accompanying Windows Search indexing include the «SearchIndexer.exe» or «SearchHost.exe» processes showing high disk usage in Task Manager, system responsiveness issues that improve when pausing indexing, and the problem being more pronounced after major Windows updates that rebuild indexes. Solutions include modifying indexing options to exclude certain locations, rebuilding the search index, or disabling indexing entirely for users who don’t utilize Windows Search features.
Option A, a failing graphics card, would cause visual artifacts, display issues, crashes in graphics-intensive applications, or driver errors, but would not directly cause high disk usage. GPU problems manifest through video output issues rather than storage bottlenecks. Option C, insufficient CPU cooling, would cause thermal throttling, system shutdowns, or CPU performance reduction, but wouldn’t specifically cause 100% disk usage. While CPU thermal issues can slow overall system performance, they don’t target disk I/O specifically. Option D, low network bandwidth, affects internet connection speeds and network file transfer rates but has no direct impact on local disk usage percentages shown in Task Manager.
Technicians can resolve this issue by configuring indexing options through Control Panel, rebuilding the search index, or temporarily disabling the service to confirm it as the cause before implementing a permanent solution.
Question 22:
A technician is building a new workstation for video editing and 3D rendering. The client requires maximum performance for GPU-intensive tasks. Which of the following expansion slots should the technician use for installing the graphics card?
A) PCI
B) PCIe x1
C) PCIe x16
D) AGP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Understanding expansion slot types and their bandwidth capabilities is essential when building high-performance workstations, particularly for applications that demand substantial graphics processing power. Modern motherboards feature various expansion slots, each designed for different types of add-in cards with varying bandwidth requirements. Selecting the appropriate slot type directly impacts performance, especially for GPU-intensive tasks like video editing and 3D rendering.
The PCIe x16 slot (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express with 16 lanes) provides the highest bandwidth available for graphics cards and is the industry standard for modern GPU installation. The «x16» designation indicates that the slot has 16 data lanes, each capable of transferring data in both directions simultaneously. PCIe 3.0 x16 provides approximately 15.75 GB/s of bandwidth in each direction, while PCIe 4.0 x16 doubles this to approximately 31.5 GB/s per direction. This massive bandwidth is crucial for modern graphics cards that transfer enormous amounts of data between system RAM, the GPU, and VRAM during rendering operations.
High-performance graphics cards for professional video editing and 3D rendering require the full bandwidth of PCIe x16 slots to achieve maximum performance. These cards generate complex 3D scenes, apply effects, render video timelines, and perform GPU-accelerated computations that demand constant high-speed data transfer. The physical PCIe x16 slot is also the longest expansion slot on the motherboard, typically positioned closest to the CPU for optimal electrical characteristics. Modern motherboards usually include multiple PCIe x16 slots to support multi-GPU configurations for even greater performance in professional applications.
Option A, PCI (the original Peripheral Component Interconnect), is an obsolete technology from the 1990s with maximum bandwidth of only 133 MB/s. No modern graphics cards use PCI connections, and most current motherboards don’t include PCI slots. Option B, PCIe x1 slots, provide only 1/16th the bandwidth of PCIe x16, with PCIe 3.0 x1 offering approximately 985 MB/s per direction. While suitable for network cards, sound cards, or USB expansion cards, PCIe x1 is completely inadequate for graphics cards. Option D, AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port), was a graphics-specific interface used from the late 1990s to mid-2000s before being replaced by PCIe, and hasn’t been used on new motherboards for over 15 years.
For maximum GPU performance in video editing and 3D rendering workstations, technicians must install graphics cards in PCIe x16 slots, ensuring the slot is directly connected to the CPU rather than through chipset connections for optimal bandwidth.
Question 23:
A laptop user reports that when typing, the cursor randomly jumps to different locations on the screen, causing text to be inserted in the wrong places. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A) Failing hard drive
B) Outdated BIOS firmware
C) Touchpad sensitivity settings
D) Corrupt display drivers
Answer: C
Explanation:
Random cursor movement during typing is a frustrating issue commonly experienced by laptop users and typically stems from unintentional touchpad interaction rather than hardware failure or software corruption. Understanding the physical layout of laptop input devices and how they interact is essential for diagnosing this type of problem. Most laptops position the touchpad directly below the keyboard, placing it in close proximity to where users rest their palms and wrists while typing.
Touchpad sensitivity settings determine how much pressure or contact is required to register input, and overly sensitive settings can cause accidental cursor movement when the user’s palms, thumbs, or wrists brush against the touchpad surface during normal typing. This manifests as the cursor jumping to random screen locations, often causing text to be inserted wherever the cursor lands rather than at the intended location. The issue is particularly common among users who are touch typists or those with larger hands, as their palms may naturally rest closer to or on the touchpad surface.
Modern touchpads include palm rejection technology designed to distinguish between intentional touches and accidental palm contact, but this feature’s effectiveness varies by manufacturer and configuration. When palm rejection is disabled, poorly calibrated, or insufficient for a user’s typing style, the touchpad interprets palm contact as intentional input. Solutions include adjusting touchpad sensitivity to require firmer contact, enabling or improving palm rejection settings, increasing the delay before tap-to-click registers, or disabling the touchpad entirely when an external mouse is connected. Many laptops include function key combinations (such as Fn+F5 or Fn+F9) to quickly toggle touchpad functionality.
Option A, a failing hard drive, would cause symptoms like slow performance, file corruption, clicking sounds, boot failures, or SMART errors, but would not cause cursor jumping during typing. Storage device issues affect data access rather than input device behavior. Option B, outdated BIOS firmware, might cause hardware compatibility issues, boot problems, or performance limitations, but doesn’t directly affect touchpad cursor behavior during normal operation. BIOS updates rarely resolve input device issues occurring within the operating system. Option D, corrupt display drivers, would cause visual problems such as artifacts, incorrect resolutions, flickering, or display output failures, but wouldn’t affect cursor position responsiveness to input devices.
Technicians can resolve this issue by accessing touchpad settings through Windows Settings or the manufacturer’s touchpad control panel, adjusting sensitivity levels, enabling palm rejection features, or recommending an external mouse as an alternative input method for users who continue experiencing issues.
Question 24:
A technician needs to replace a failed power supply in a desktop computer. Before purchasing a replacement, which of the following specifications is MOST important to verify for compatibility?
A) Power supply wattage and form factor
B) Number of RGB lighting headers
C) Operating system version
D) RAM speed support
Answer: A
Explanation:
Selecting a compatible replacement power supply requires understanding several critical specifications that ensure the new unit will physically fit in the case, provide adequate power, and connect properly to all system components. Power supply compatibility is not universal, and installing an incompatible unit can result in inability to mount the PSU, insufficient power delivery, or inability to connect necessary cables to motherboard and peripheral components.
Power supply wattage is the primary specification that determines whether the PSU can provide sufficient electrical power to all system components. Wattage represents the total power output capacity, measured in watts (W), that the PSU can deliver across its various voltage rails (+3.3V, +5V, +12V, -12V, and +5VSB). Modern gaming or workstation computers with high-end graphics cards and multiple storage devices may require 650W to 1000W or more, while basic office computers typically operate adequately with 400W to 500W PSUs. Insufficient wattage causes system instability, unexpected shutdowns under load, or failure to boot when power demand exceeds supply capacity.
Form factor is equally critical for physical compatibility and refers to the PSU’s size, shape, and mounting hole configuration. The most common form factor is ATX (standard ATX measures 150mm x 86mm x 140mm), which fits standard mid-tower and full-tower cases. Other form factors include SFX (Small Form Factor) for compact builds, TFX for slim cases, and proprietary designs used by specific manufacturers like Dell or HP in pre-built systems. Installing a PSU with an incorrect form factor results in physical incompatibility, either because the unit won’t fit in the designated space or mounting holes don’t align with case mounting points.
Additional important considerations include the number and types of power connectors (24-pin ATX motherboard connector, 4+4 pin or 8-pin CPU power, 6+2 pin PCIe graphics card connectors, SATA power connectors for drives), efficiency rating (80 PLUS Bronze, Silver, Gold, Platinum, Titanium), and cable management options (modular, semi-modular, or non-modular). Matching these specifications ensures the replacement PSU can power all components properly.
Option B, the number of RGB lighting headers, is not a power supply specification. RGB headers are found on motherboards and control decorative lighting, having no bearing on PSU compatibility or functionality. Option C, operating system version, is software-based and completely independent of power supply hardware. PSUs provide electrical power to components and have no interaction with operating system software. Option D, RAM speed support, is determined by the motherboard and CPU, not the power supply. While PSUs power RAM modules, they don’t have specifications related to memory speed compatibility.
Technicians must verify both adequate wattage for system power requirements and correct form factor for case compatibility before purchasing a replacement power supply to ensure successful installation and reliable system operation.
Question 25:
A user’s smartphone is experiencing very poor battery life, draining from 100% to 20% in just three hours with minimal use. Which of the following should a technician check FIRST to identify the cause?
A) Installed application battery usage
B) Physical damage to charging port
C) Mobile network signal strength
D) Screen color calibration
Answer: A
Explanation:
Smartphone battery life issues are among the most common complaints users experience, and effective troubleshooting requires systematic identification of processes and applications consuming excessive power. Modern smartphones include detailed battery usage statistics that provide visibility into which applications, services, and system functions are consuming battery power, making this the logical first diagnostic step.
Installed application battery usage analysis reveals which apps are running in the background, how frequently they access system resources, and their overall power consumption patterns. Many applications, particularly social media, messaging, and location-based services, continue running background processes even when not actively in use. These background processes may constantly check for updates, sync data, monitor location, maintain network connections, or perform other activities that drain battery power. Rogue or poorly optimized applications can cause dramatic battery drain, sometimes consuming 30-50% of battery capacity through excessive background activity.
Accessing battery usage statistics through Settings > Battery (on most Android devices) or Settings > Battery > Battery Health (on iOS devices) shows a breakdown of power consumption by application over recent time periods. Common culprits include social media apps with aggressive refresh intervals, streaming applications that maintain connections, games that continue running background processes, or apps with location services set to «Always» rather than «While Using.» Additionally, apps stuck in crash loops, malware, or system services experiencing errors can cause abnormal battery drain.
The immediate troubleshooting approach involves identifying high-consumption applications and taking corrective action such as restricting background activity, adjusting refresh intervals, changing location permissions to «While Using App,» force-stopping problematic apps, clearing app cache, updating to the latest version, or uninstalling applications that consistently consume excessive power. This software-focused approach often resolves battery drain issues without requiring hardware intervention.
Option B, physical damage to the charging port, would prevent proper charging or cause slow charging but wouldn’t directly cause rapid battery discharge during use. Port damage affects power input rather than power consumption. Option C, mobile network signal strength, can indeed impact battery life as the device increases power to maintain weak cellular connections, but this represents a more subtle drain compared to rogue applications and should be investigated after eliminating software causes. Option D, screen color calibration, has minimal impact on battery consumption and is unrelated to rapid discharge issues. While screen brightness significantly affects battery life, color calibration settings have negligible power impact.
By first examining application battery usage statistics, technicians can quickly identify and resolve software-related causes before investigating hardware issues or environmental factors, providing the most efficient troubleshooting path for battery drain complaints.
Question 26:
A technician is installing multiple hard drives in a workstation that will be used for data redundancy. The configuration should allow for the failure of one drive without data loss. Which of the following RAID configurations should the technician implement?
A) RAID 0
B) RAID 1
C) RAID 5
D) JBOD
Answer: B
Explanation:
RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) technology combines multiple physical drives into a single logical unit to improve performance, provide redundancy, or both. Understanding different RAID levels and their characteristics is essential for implementing appropriate storage solutions based on specific requirements for data protection, performance, and capacity utilization. Each RAID level offers different trade-offs between these factors.
RAID 1, also called disk mirroring, creates an exact duplicate of data across two or more drives simultaneously. When data is written to one drive, it’s automatically written to the mirror drive(s) at the same time, maintaining identical copies. This configuration provides complete data redundancy, allowing the system to continue operating normally if one drive fails. When drive failure occurs, the remaining functional drive(s) continue providing access to all data without interruption. RAID 1 is the simplest redundant configuration and is particularly suitable for situations requiring data protection with minimal complexity.
The key advantages of RAID 1 include straightforward implementation, excellent read performance (data can be read from multiple drives simultaneously), and simple recovery process (replacing the failed drive and rebuilding the mirror). The primary disadvantage is storage efficiency, as RAID 1 requires at least two drives but only provides the usable capacity of one drive. For example, two 1TB drives in RAID 1 provide only 1TB of usable space, representing 50% storage efficiency. Despite this limitation, RAID 1’s simplicity and reliability make it an excellent choice for critical data protection in workstation environments.
Option A, RAID 0 (disk striping), splits data across multiple drives to improve performance but provides no redundancy whatsoever. If any single drive fails in RAID 0, all data across the entire array is lost. While RAID 0 offers excellent performance, it actually increases failure risk and is inappropriate for any scenario requiring data protection. Option C, RAID 5, provides redundancy and can tolerate one drive failure, but requires a minimum of three drives and is more complex to configure and manage than RAID 1. While RAID 5 offers better storage efficiency (uses capacity of N-1 drives where N is total drives), the question specifies «multiple hard drives» without specifying three or more, making RAID 1 the most appropriate answer. Option D, JBOD (Just a Bunch of Disks), simply combines multiple drives into one large volume without any redundancy or performance benefit, offering no protection against drive failure.
For a workstation requiring data redundancy with the ability to tolerate one drive failure, RAID 1 provides the optimal solution with straightforward implementation, reliable protection, and simple maintenance requirements.
Question 27:
A technician responds to a report that a laser printer is producing faded prints with light streaks. The technician confirms the issue affects all print jobs. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) Incorrect printer driver settings
B) Low or defective toner cartridge
C) Damaged Ethernet cable
D) Insufficient printer memory
Answer: B
Explanation:
Laser printer print quality issues require systematic diagnosis based on understanding the laser printing process and how various components affect output quality. The laser printing process consists of seven steps: processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, and cleaning. Print quality problems like faded output or light streaks typically indicate issues with components involved in the developing or transferring phases, particularly those related to toner application.
A low or defective toner cartridge is the most common cause of faded prints and light streaks across all documents. Toner cartridges contain fine powder particles that create the actual printed image on paper. When toner levels become low, insufficient toner is available to create properly saturated images, resulting in faded or washed-out prints. The fading may appear uniform across the page or may manifest as light streaks if toner distribution within the cartridge becomes uneven as supplies deplete.
Additionally, defective toner cartridges can cause similar symptoms even when not empty. Manufacturing defects, damage during handling, improper storage, or expired toner can result in poor toner distribution, clumping, or failure of internal cartridge components like the developer roller or doctor blade. When the developer roller (which carries toner to form the image) is worn or damaged, it cannot properly transfer toner to the photosensitive drum, causing faded prints. Light streaks specifically often indicate areas where toner isn’t being applied properly due to cartridge defects or obstructions.
The diagnostic approach involves checking toner levels through printer control panel or software utilities, visually inspecting the toner cartridge for damage or leaks, gently shaking the cartridge to redistribute remaining toner, and ultimately replacing the cartridge if the issue persists. Often, simply installing a new genuine toner cartridge resolves fading and streak issues immediately. It’s worth noting that counterfeit or refilled cartridges are more likely to cause quality issues compared to OEM cartridges.
Option A, incorrect printer driver settings, could affect various print characteristics like darkness or contrast, but typically wouldn’t cause physical light streaks, and the problem would likely vary between applications or documents rather than affecting all print jobs consistently. Option C, a damaged Ethernet cable, would cause connectivity issues, print job failures, or intermittent printing problems, but wouldn’t affect the physical print quality of jobs that successfully complete. Network connectivity is independent of print output quality. Option D, insufficient printer memory, causes problems printing complex documents with high-resolution images or graphics, manifesting as incomplete prints, error messages, or simplified output, not faded prints with streaks.
Replacing the toner cartridge typically resolves fading and streak issues, restoring normal print quality and proper toner saturation across all printed documents.
Question 28:
A user reports that their computer randomly restarts without warning, particularly when running demanding applications. The technician notices no error messages appear before the restart. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) Corrupted operating system files
B) Overheating CPU
C) Failing network adapter
D) Fragmented hard drive
Answer: B
Explanation:
Random system restarts, particularly those occurring during high-demand activities without error messages or warnings, typically indicate hardware issues rather than software problems. Understanding thermal management in computer systems is crucial for diagnosing these intermittent stability issues. Modern processors generate substantial heat during operation, with power consumption and heat generation increasing dramatically under heavy workloads.
CPU overheating is the most common cause of sudden restarts during demanding applications. Processors include built-in thermal protection mechanisms that automatically shut down the system when temperatures exceed safe operating thresholds, typically 90-100°C depending on the processor model. This automatic shutdown is a protection feature designed to prevent permanent thermal damage to the CPU. Unlike other system errors that generate blue screens or error messages, thermal shutdowns occur at the hardware level, resulting
The pattern of restarts occurring specifically during demanding applications is a key diagnostic indicator of thermal issues. High-demand applications like video editing, 3D rendering, gaming, or computational tasks cause the CPU to operate at maximum performance levels, generating peak heat output. If the cooling system is inadequate, clogged with dust, improperly mounted, or has degraded thermal paste, the CPU temperature rapidly exceeds safe limits, triggering automatic shutdown. After shutdown, the system cools briefly and can restart, only to overheat again under load, creating a cycle of instability.
Contributing factors to CPU overheating include dust accumulation in heatsinks blocking airflow, failed or slowed cooling fans unable to dissipate heat adequately, dried or improperly applied thermal paste creating poor thermal transfer between CPU and heatsink, improper heatsink mounting causing inadequate contact pressure, and insufficient case ventilation preventing hot air exhaust. Diagnostic steps include monitoring CPU temperatures using utilities like HWMonitor or Core Temp, inspecting cooling fans for proper operation, cleaning dust from heatsinks and case ventilation, and potentially reapplying thermal paste or replacing cooling components.
Option A, corrupted operating system files, would typically cause blue screen errors, specific error messages, boot failures, or application crashes rather than silent sudden restarts. Operating system corruption manifests through software error reporting mechanisms. Option C, a failing network adapter, would cause network connectivity issues, driver errors, or device manager problems, but has no mechanism to cause system restarts. Network hardware failures remain localized to networking functionality. Option D, a fragmented hard drive, causes slow performance and longer file access times but doesn’t trigger system restarts. Fragmentation is a performance issue, not a stability issue.
Resolving CPU overheating involves cleaning cooling components, verifying fan operation, reapplying thermal paste, ensuring proper heatsink mounting, and improving case airflow, which typically eliminates random restart behavior and restores system stability.
Question 29:
A technician needs to securely dispose of several hard drives that contain sensitive company data. Which of the following methods provides the MOST secure data destruction?
A) Quick format of the drives
B) Physical destruction/shredding
C) Deletion of all files and folders
D) Converting to dynamic disks
Answer: B
Explanation:
Secure data destruction is a critical aspect of information security, particularly when disposing of storage media that previously contained sensitive, confidential, or proprietary information. Understanding different data destruction methods and their effectiveness is essential for ensuring data cannot be recovered by unauthorized parties after media disposal. Different scenarios require different levels of data destruction security based on data sensitivity.
Physical destruction or shredding provides the most secure and complete data destruction method available. This approach renders storage media completely unusable and makes data recovery impossible through any means. Physical destruction methods include specialized hard drive shredders that pulverize drives into small fragments, degaussers that use powerful magnetic fields to permanently disrupt magnetic storage media, drilling multiple holes through drive platters to physically destroy the magnetic surfaces, or disassembling drives and physically destroying platters through bending, cutting, or crushing.
The key advantage of physical destruction is absolute certainty that data cannot be recovered. Unlike software-based methods that erase or overwrite data while leaving physical media intact, physical destruction eliminates both the data and the storage medium itself. This is particularly important for highly sensitive data subject to regulatory compliance requirements such as HIPAA for healthcare data, GDPR for personal information, or classified government information. Many organizations maintain documented destruction policies requiring physical destruction for specific data classification levels.
Professional data destruction services offer certified destruction with documentation proving proper disposal, providing an auditable chain of custody for compliance purposes. These services typically provide certificates of destruction that specify what was destroyed, how it was destroyed, and when destruction occurred. For organizations handling large volumes of drive disposals or those with strict compliance requirements, professional destruction services ensure proper handling while meeting regulatory obligations.
Option A, quick format, simply removes file system references to data but leaves actual data intact on the drive. Data recovery software can easily recover files after quick format operations. Quick formatting provides no actual data security and is completely inadequate for secure disposal. Option C, deletion of all files and folders, similarly only removes file system entries while leaving underlying data recoverable. Standard file deletion moves files to recycle bin or removes directory entries but doesn’t overwrite actual data storage locations. Option D, converting to dynamic disks, is a Windows disk management operation that changes how disk partitions are managed but doesn’t affect stored data at all. This provides zero data destruction and is irrelevant to secure disposal.
For sensitive company data requiring secure disposal, physical destruction through shredding, degaussing, or other physical methods provides the only completely secure guarantee that data cannot be recovered under any circumstances.
Question 30:
A technician is troubleshooting a computer that displays a continuous series of beeps when powered on and shows no video output. Which of the following is the MOST likely component causing this issue?
A) Failed RAM modules
B) Corrupted hard drive
C) Disconnected monitor cable
D) Outdated device drivers
Answer: A
Explanation:
POST (Power-On Self-Test) beep codes represent the computer’s firmware-level diagnostic system that identifies hardware problems during the boot process before the operating system loads. Understanding beep codes is essential for diagnosing pre-boot hardware failures when no visual output is available. The BIOS or UEFI firmware performs POST immediately after powering on, testing critical hardware components and signaling errors through speaker beep patterns when problems are detected.
Failed RAM modules are the most common cause of continuous beep codes accompanied by no video output. Memory is one of the first components tested during POST because the system requires functional RAM to proceed with the boot process. When the motherboard cannot detect RAM, detects faulty RAM modules, or identifies improperly seated memory, it generates beep code patterns indicating memory failure. Different BIOS manufacturers (AMI, Award, Phoenix) use different beep patterns, but continuous beeping or repeating patterns typically indicate memory issues across most systems.
Memory failures can result from several causes including RAM modules that are not fully seated in their slots, incompatible RAM that doesn’t meet motherboard specifications, failed memory modules due to electrical damage or manufacturing defects, improperly configured RAM in wrong slot positions when specific population rules exist, or corrosion/contamination on memory contacts preventing proper electrical connection. The absence of video output alongside beep codes indicates the system cannot proceed far enough in the boot process to initialize graphics, which requires functional memory.
Troubleshooting steps include powering down the system, disconnecting power, opening the case, and reseating each RAM module by removing them completely and reinstalling with firm, even pressure until retaining clips snap into place. If multiple modules are installed, testing each individually in different slots helps identify whether specific modules are faulty or specific slots have failed. Testing with known-good RAM can definitively confirm whether memory is the issue. Additionally, consulting the motherboard manual for proper RAM configuration and beep code meanings provides manufacturer-specific diagnostic information.
Option B, corrupted hard drive, would not cause beep codes during POST because POST occurs before the system attempts to access storage devices. Hard drive issues manifest as boot errors or operating system failure messages after POST completes successfully. Option C, disconnected monitor cable, would cause no video output but wouldn’t trigger beep codes since the monitor cable is peripheral to the computer and isn’t tested during POST. A disconnected monitor doesn’t represent a component failure from the system’s perspective. Option D, outdated device drivers, are software components that load after the operating system starts and have no involvement in POST or beep code generation. Driver issues occur within the operating system, not at the firmware level.
Resolving memory-related beep codes typically involves reseating RAM modules, testing individual modules, replacing failed memory, or ensuring RAM compatibility with motherboard specifications, which allows POST to complete successfully and normal boot process to proceed.