CompTIA 220-1101 A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 12 Q 166-180
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Question 166:
A technician is troubleshooting a computer that is experiencing random shutdowns. The technician has verified that the power supply is functioning correctly and the computer is not overheating. Which of the following should the technician check NEXT?
A) RAM modules
B) Hard drive
C) Graphics card
D) Motherboard
Answer: A
Explanation:
When troubleshooting random computer shutdowns, it’s essential to follow a systematic approach to identify the root cause. After eliminating power supply issues and overheating as potential causes, the next logical step is to examine the RAM modules, making A the correct answer.
Random shutdowns are often caused by faulty or improperly seated RAM modules. Memory issues can cause system instability that manifests as unexpected shutdowns, freezes, or blue screen errors. RAM problems occur when memory chips develop defects, become loose in their slots, or experience corruption. When the system attempts to access faulty memory addresses, it can trigger protective mechanisms that shut down the computer to prevent data corruption or hardware damage.
Testing RAM should be prioritized because memory issues are relatively common and can be diagnosed quickly using built-in Windows Memory Diagnostic tool or third-party utilities like MemTest86. The technician should first reseat the RAM modules to ensure proper connection, then run comprehensive memory tests. If multiple RAM modules are installed, testing them individually can help identify which specific module is causing the problem. Memory issues can also result from incompatible RAM speeds, mixing different RAM types, or exceeding the motherboard’s maximum supported memory specifications.
Option B, the hard drive, is less likely to cause random shutdowns. While a failing hard drive can cause system slowdowns, application crashes, or boot failures, it typically doesn’t trigger complete system shutdowns unless it’s the boot drive experiencing critical failures. Hard drive problems usually manifest as clicking sounds, slow performance, or file corruption rather than sudden shutdowns.
Option C, the graphics card, could potentially cause shutdowns if it’s overheating or drawing excessive power, but the technician has already verified that overheating isn’t an issue. Graphics card failures typically cause display artifacts, screen flickering, or driver crashes rather than complete system shutdowns. Unless the GPU is severely faulty or causing power spikes, it’s less likely to be the culprit.
Option D, the motherboard, while possible, should be checked after other more common components have been ruled out. Motherboard failures can certainly cause random shutdowns, but they’re generally less common than RAM issues and more difficult to diagnose. Motherboard problems often present with additional symptoms like POST beep codes, failure to boot, or USB port malfunctions. Following proper troubleshooting methodology means testing easier-to-diagnose components first before suspecting motherboard failure.
Question 167:
A user reports that a laptop is running extremely slow and the fan is constantly running at high speed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) Failing battery
B) Dust accumulation in cooling system
C) Outdated BIOS
D) Defective keyboard
Answer: B
Explanation:
This scenario describes classic symptoms of thermal management issues in a laptop computer. When a laptop runs slow with the fan constantly operating at maximum speed, it indicates the system is attempting to manage excessive heat, making B the correct answer.
Dust accumulation in the cooling system is one of the most common causes of laptop performance degradation and thermal issues. Over time, dust, lint, and debris collect in the laptop’s air vents, heat sink fins, and fan blades. This buildup acts as an insulator, preventing efficient heat dissipation from critical components like the CPU and GPU. When the cooling system becomes clogged, the processor temperature rises rapidly during normal operation.
Modern processors use thermal throttling as a protective mechanism. When the CPU temperature exceeds safe operating thresholds, it automatically reduces its clock speed to generate less heat. This throttling causes the significant performance degradation the user experiences. Simultaneously, the system’s thermal management firmware commands the cooling fan to run at maximum speed in an attempt to lower temperatures. The combination of reduced processor performance and constantly running fan are telltale signs of cooling system obstruction.
The solution involves opening the laptop chassis and carefully cleaning the cooling system using compressed air, starting from the inside to push dust outward through the vents. In severe cases, the heat sink may need removal for thorough cleaning, and thermal paste reapplication might be necessary to ensure optimal heat transfer between the processor and heat sink.
Option A, a failing battery, would cause symptoms related to power delivery such as unexpected shutdowns, failure to hold charge, or inability to run without AC power. While a defective battery might generate some heat, it wouldn’t directly cause system-wide slowdowns or constant fan operation at maximum speed.
Option C, an outdated BIOS, is unlikely to cause these specific symptoms. While BIOS updates can improve system stability and compatibility, an outdated BIOS rarely causes thermal issues or performance problems. BIOS-related issues typically manifest as hardware compatibility problems, boot failures, or specific feature malfunctions rather than overheating and slowdowns.
Option D, a defective keyboard, would only affect input functionality and has no connection to system performance or thermal management. Keyboard problems present as stuck keys, non-responsive keys, or incorrect character input, not system slowdowns or cooling issues.
Question 168:
A technician needs to configure a SOHO router to ensure that specific devices always receive the same IP address. Which of the following should the technician configure?
A) DHCP reservation
B) Port forwarding
C) Static NAT
D) DMZ
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) network environment, ensuring specific devices consistently receive the same IP address is a common networking requirement. The correct solution is to configure DHCP reservation, making A the correct answer.
DHCP reservation, also called DHCP address reservation or static DHCP, allows the router to assign the same IP address to a specific device every time it connects to the network. This configuration works by mapping a device’s MAC (Media Access Control) address to a specific IP address within the DHCP scope. When the device requests an IP address through the DHCP process, the router recognizes the MAC address and assigns the reserved IP address instead of selecting one randomly from the available pool.
DHCP reservation combines the benefits of both dynamic and static IP addressing. Devices still use DHCP to automatically obtain their network configuration, eliminating the need to manually configure IP settings on each device. However, the assigned addresses remain consistent, which is essential for various network services and applications. This approach is particularly useful for network printers, file servers, security cameras, gaming consoles, and other devices that other computers need to access consistently. It also simplifies port forwarding configurations, remote access setup, and network management tasks.
To configure DHCP reservation, the technician accesses the router’s administrative interface, navigates to the DHCP settings section, and creates a reservation entry by specifying the device’s MAC address and the desired IP address. Most modern routers provide a user-friendly interface showing currently connected devices, making it easy to select devices and create reservations without manually typing MAC addresses.
Option B, port forwarding, is a different networking feature that redirects external network traffic from specific ports to designated internal IP addresses. While port forwarding often works better with devices that have consistent IP addresses (making DHCP reservations complementary), it doesn’t actually assign IP addresses to devices.
Option C, static NAT (Network Address Translation), creates permanent one-to-one mappings between public and private IP addresses. This feature is typically used in enterprise environments for servers that need consistent external accessibility, not for internal device IP management in SOHO networks.
Option D, DMZ (Demilitarized Zone), designates a specific device to receive all incoming traffic that isn’t explicitly forwarded elsewhere. While a DMZ host should have a consistent IP address, configuring DMZ doesn’t ensure devices receive the same IP address—it’s a security configuration feature, not an IP management solution.
Question 169:
A user’s smartphone is experiencing very short battery life after a recent OS update. Which of the following should a technician recommend FIRST?
A) Replace the battery
B) Perform a factory reset
C) Check for app updates
D) Disable background app refresh
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a smartphone experiences sudden battery drain immediately following an operating system update, the most logical first troubleshooting step is to check for application updates, making C the correct answer.
Operating system updates often introduce changes to APIs (Application Programming Interfaces), system frameworks, and power management protocols. These changes can cause compatibility issues with existing applications that haven’t been updated to work optimally with the new OS version. Apps designed for the previous OS version may not properly utilize new battery optimization features, may encounter errors that cause excessive CPU usage, or may repeatedly attempt to access system resources in ways the new OS handles differently.
When apps aren’t optimized for the current OS version, they may run inefficiently in the background, constantly wake the device processor, maintain unnecessary network connections, or fail to enter low-power states properly. These behaviors significantly increase power consumption. App developers typically release updates shortly after major OS releases specifically to address compatibility issues and optimize performance for the new operating system version.
Checking for app updates is a simple, non-invasive first step that often resolves post-update battery drain issues. The technician should recommend opening the device’s app store, checking for available updates, and installing all pending updates. This approach addresses the root cause without requiring data backup, device restoration, or hardware replacement. Users should particularly pay attention to apps they use frequently or apps that appear in the battery usage statistics showing unusually high power consumption.
Option A, replacing the battery, is premature at this stage. The timing of the battery drain—immediately after an OS update—strongly suggests a software-related issue rather than sudden hardware failure. Battery replacement is an invasive and potentially expensive solution that should only be considered after eliminating software causes. Physical battery degradation occurs gradually over many charge cycles, not suddenly after a software update.
Option B, performing a factory reset, is too drastic as an initial troubleshooting step. While factory resets can resolve persistent software problems, they require complete device reconfiguration, data backup, and significant user inconvenience. This nuclear option should be reserved for situations where less invasive solutions have failed. The technician should exhaust simpler troubleshooting methods before recommending factory reset.
Option D, disabling background app refresh, might improve battery life but treats the symptom rather than the underlying cause. While this setting can reduce battery consumption, it may also limit app functionality and prevent apps from displaying current information. Additionally, this approach doesn’t address why apps are suddenly consuming excessive power after the update.
Question 170:
A technician is installing a new wireless access point in a conference room. Which of the following wireless standards provides the MAXIMUM throughput?
A)11ac
B)11n
C)11g
D)11b
Answer: A
Explanation:
When selecting wireless networking standards for maximum throughput, understanding the capabilities of different 802.11 protocols is essential. Among the options provided, 802.11ac delivers the highest data transfer rates, making A the correct answer.
The 802.11ac standard, also known as Wi-Fi 5, represents a significant advancement in wireless networking technology. Operating exclusively on the 5 GHz frequency band, 802.11ac achieves theoretical maximum throughput of up to 1.3 Gbps (gigabits per second) on typical configurations and can reach up to 6.93 Gbps in optimal conditions with multiple antenna configurations. This standard introduced several technological improvements including wider channel bandwidths (up to 160 MHz), multi-user MIMO (MU-MIMO) technology allowing simultaneous communication with multiple devices, and advanced modulation techniques (256-QAM) that pack more data into each transmission.
For a conference room environment where multiple users simultaneously connect devices for presentations, video conferencing, and file transfers, 802.11ac provides the bandwidth necessary to support these demanding applications without performance degradation. The standard’s beamforming technology also improves signal quality by directing wireless signals toward specific devices rather than broadcasting omnidirectionally, resulting in better performance and range.
Option B, 802.11n (Wi-Fi 4), was the predecessor to 802.11ac and offers respectable performance with theoretical maximum speeds of 600 Mbps when using four spatial streams. While 802.11n can operate on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands providing better compatibility with older devices, its maximum throughput is significantly lower than 802.11ac. The 802.11n standard uses 40 MHz channel widths and introduced MIMO technology, representing a major improvement over earlier standards.
Option C, 802.11g, operates exclusively on the 2.4 GHz band with maximum theoretical throughput of 54 Mbps. This standard, released in 2003, provided backward compatibility with 802.11b devices while offering faster speeds. However, its limited bandwidth makes it inadequate for modern conference room requirements where multiple high-bandwidth applications run simultaneously.
Option D, 802.11b, is the oldest standard among these options with maximum theoretical throughput of only 11 Mbps. Operating on the 2.4 GHz band, 802.11b was widely adopted in the early 2000s but is now obsolete for practical purposes. Its extremely limited bandwidth cannot support modern applications, and most current devices don’t even include 802.11b support anymore.
Question 171:
A technician receives a report that a printer is not printing color correctly. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A) Replace the color toner cartridges
B) Clean the print heads
C) Run the printer’s calibration utility
D) Update the printer driver
Answer: C
Explanation:
When addressing color printing issues, following proper troubleshooting methodology is essential to avoid unnecessary part replacements and expenses. Running the printer’s calibration utility should be the first step, making C the correct answer.
Printer calibration is a built-in diagnostic and adjustment process that aligns and optimizes the printer’s color output. Modern printers include sophisticated calibration routines accessible through the printer’s control panel or management software. These utilities perform several critical functions: they align print heads to ensure proper color registration, adjust color density levels, verify that ink or toner is flowing correctly, and create test patterns to identify specific color reproduction problems.
Color printing issues often result from misalignment rather than hardware failure. When print heads become misaligned, colors may appear shifted, blurred, or mixed incorrectly. Environmental factors like temperature changes, physical movement during transportation, or normal wear from extended use can cause these alignment issues. The calibration process systematically corrects these problems by printing alignment patterns and using internal sensors to detect and adjust for any deviations.
Running calibration is a quick, cost-free troubleshooting step that frequently resolves color printing problems without requiring any physical intervention or part replacement. The process typically takes only a few minutes and provides diagnostic information about the printer’s condition. If calibration completes successfully and color printing improves, the issue is resolved. If calibration fails or identifies specific problems, the technician gains valuable diagnostic information about which components may require attention.
Option A, replacing color toner cartridges, is premature without first performing diagnostics. Toner cartridges are expensive consumables that should only be replaced when actually depleted or confirmed defective. Replacing cartridges unnecessarily wastes resources and doesn’t address potential underlying issues like misalignment or clogged nozzles. Most printers display toner levels, and the technician should verify these levels before considering replacement.
Option B, cleaning print heads, is a reasonable troubleshooting step but should follow calibration. Print head cleaning is more invasive than calibration and consumes ink or toner during the cleaning process. While clogged print heads certainly cause color printing problems, particularly on inkjet printers, running calibration first may reveal that cleaning isn’t necessary. If calibration indicates specific nozzles are clogged, then cleaning becomes the appropriate next step.
Option D, updating the printer driver, addresses software communication between the computer and printer. While outdated drivers can occasionally cause printing problems, they’re more likely to cause issues like failure to print, incorrect page formatting, or feature availability rather than color accuracy problems. Driver updates should be considered when calibration and hardware-focused troubleshooting steps don’t resolve the issue.
Question 172:
A user reports that their laptop screen is very dim and difficult to read even though the brightness is set to maximum. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) Incorrect display resolution
B) Failing inverter or backlight
C) Loose video cable
D) Outdated graphics driver
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a laptop display remains extremely dim despite brightness settings being maximized, this indicates a hardware problem with the screen’s illumination system. The most likely cause is a failing inverter or backlight, making B the correct answer.
Laptop displays require backlighting to make the image visible. Older LCD screens use CCFL (Cold Cathode Fluorescent Lamp) backlights powered by an inverter that converts low-voltage DC power to the high-voltage AC required by fluorescent tubes. Newer displays use LED (Light Emitting Diode) backlights with integrated LED drivers. When these backlight components fail or degrade, the screen becomes progressively dimmer because insufficient light passes through the LCD panel to illuminate the image.
Backlight failure typically manifests gradually, with the screen becoming dimmer over time before eventually failing completely. The inverter, being an electronic component that operates at high voltage and generates heat, is particularly susceptible to failure. Component aging, capacitor degradation, and thermal stress cause inverter failures. LED backlights can also fail when individual LEDs burn out or the LED driver circuit malfunctions. Users can sometimes verify backlight failure by shining a flashlight directly on the screen—if the image is faintly visible in the flashlight’s beam, the LCD panel is generating an image but the backlight isn’t illuminating it properly.
Backlight and inverter problems require professional repair or component replacement. On older laptops with CCFL backlights, inverter replacement is sometimes economically feasible. However, for modern LED-backlit displays, the backlight is often integrated into the display assembly, requiring complete screen replacement. Technicians must consider the laptop’s age and value when recommending repairs, as screen replacement can be expensive.
Option A, incorrect display resolution, affects image clarity and sharpness but doesn’t impact screen brightness. When resolution is set incorrectly, text appears blurry or pixelated, and images look stretched or compressed. Resolution settings have no relationship to the backlight system that controls screen brightness.
Option C, a loose video cable, would typically cause intermittent display issues, flickering, color distortion, or complete signal loss rather than consistent dimness. The video cable (LVDS or eDP cable) carries image data from the motherboard to the display panel. If this cable were loose, users would experience image dropout, screen flickering when moving the display, or no image at all, not a consistently dim display.
Option D, an outdated graphics driver, could theoretically cause various display problems, but driver issues typically manifest as artifacts, incorrect colors, resolution limitations, or system crashes rather than reduced brightness. The backlight operates independently of graphics drivers, controlled by the system’s firmware and power management circuitry rather than display drivers.
Question 173:
Which of the following cable types is used to connect a cable modem to a wall outlet?
A) RJ45
B) RJ11
C) F-connector
D) BNC
Answer: C
Explanation:
Understanding cable connector types is fundamental for network installation and troubleshooting. When connecting a cable modem to a wall outlet for internet service, the appropriate connector is an F-connector, making C the correct answer.
The F-connector is a coaxial cable connector specifically designed for carrying radio frequency (RF) signals used in cable television and cable internet systems. This connector features a threaded design that screws onto the corresponding port, providing a secure, weather-resistant connection that maintains signal integrity. The F-connector’s threaded coupling mechanism prevents accidental disconnection and provides better shielding against electromagnetic interference compared to push-on connectors.
Cable internet service uses the same coaxial cable infrastructure originally deployed for cable television. The coaxial cable consists of a center conductor surrounded by dielectric insulation, a metallic shield, and an outer protective jacket. This construction provides excellent bandwidth capacity and noise immunity, making it suitable for high-speed data transmission. The cable enters the home from the service provider’s distribution network, terminates at a wall outlet with a female F-connector, and connects to the cable modem using a coaxial cable with male F-connectors on both ends.
The cable modem modulates and demodulates signals, converting RF signals from the coaxial cable into digital data that computers and routers can process. Modern cable modems use DOCSIS (Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification) standards, with current versions supporting gigabit-level download speeds. The F-connector’s robust design and impedance characteristics (75 ohms) are specifically matched to cable systems’ requirements.
Option A, RJ45 connectors, are used for Ethernet networking over twisted-pair cables. These connectors terminate Category 5e, Category 6, or higher-rated Ethernet cables and connect computers, routers, switches, and other network devices. While cable modems have RJ45 ports for connecting to routers or computers, they don’t use RJ45 connectors for the wall outlet connection that receives the internet signal from the service provider.
Option B, RJ11 connectors, are smaller connectors primarily used for telephone systems. These connectors typically have four or six positions but usually only use two or four conductors. RJ11 connectors are found on telephone cables connecting phones to wall jacks or DSL modems to telephone lines. Cable internet systems don’t use RJ11 connectors because they lack the bandwidth capacity and impedance characteristics required for high-speed data transmission.
Option D, BNC (Bayonet Neill-Concelman) connectors, are coaxial connectors featuring a bayonet-style coupling mechanism. While BNC connectors are used in various applications including professional video equipment, older network installations (10BASE2 Ethernet), and test equipment, they’re not used for residential cable internet connections. Cable television and internet systems standardized on F-connectors due to their superior performance and cost-effectiveness.
Question 174:
A technician is configuring a new workstation to dual boot between Windows and Linux. Which of the following should the technician configure?
A) Separate partitions
B) RAID array
C) Dynamic disks
D) Storage spaces
Answer: A
Explanation:
Setting up a dual-boot configuration requires proper disk organization to allow multiple operating systems to coexist on the same computer. The essential requirement is creating separate partitions, making A the correct answer.
Disk partitioning divides a physical hard drive or SSD into distinct logical sections that the operating system treats as separate storage volumes. Each partition functions independently with its own file system, boot sector, and data structures. For dual-boot configurations, separate partitions are absolutely necessary because each operating system requires its own dedicated space with appropriate file systems—Windows typically uses NTFS (New Technology File System), while Linux commonly uses ext4, though other file systems like XFS or Btrfs are also used.
The dual-boot setup process involves several critical steps. First, the technician must partition the drive, typically creating at minimum one partition for Windows, one for Linux root filesystem, and often additional partitions for Linux swap space and shared data storage. The partitioning can be accomplished before OS installation using tools like GParted, or during the installation process of each operating system. Modern installation media includes partitioning tools that can resize existing partitions and create new ones without data loss.
After partitioning, each operating system installs to its designated partition. The boot loader, typically GRUB (Grand Unified Bootloader) when Linux is involved, is configured to recognize both operating systems and present a menu at startup allowing the user to select which OS to boot. The boot loader resides in the drive’s boot sector or EFI system partition and must be properly configured to detect and launch both operating systems.
Separate partitions provide important benefits beyond enabling dual-boot functionality. They isolate each operating system, preventing one OS from inadvertently corrupting the other’s system files. Users can maintain separate data partitions accessible from both operating systems. If one OS becomes corrupted or requires reinstallation, the other remains unaffected.
Option B, RAID arrays, provide redundancy and performance improvements by combining multiple physical drives into a single logical unit. While RAID configurations offer benefits like data protection (RAID 1, RAID 5) or improved performance (RAID 0), they’re not required or specifically related to dual-boot configurations. RAID operates at the hardware or firmware level below the operating system and doesn’t facilitate multiple OS installations.
Option C, dynamic disks, are a Windows-specific disk management feature that provides advanced capabilities like spanning volumes across multiple physical disks, creating striped or mirrored volumes, and allowing volume resizing without rebooting. However, dynamic disks are not compatible with Linux and would actually complicate dual-boot setups. Basic disks with standard partitions are the appropriate choice for dual-boot configurations.
Option D, Storage Spaces, is a Windows storage virtualization technology that pools physical drives to create resilient, flexible storage volumes with features similar to RAID. Like dynamic disks, Storage Spaces is Windows-specific and doesn’t facilitate dual-boot configurations with Linux or other operating systems.
Question 175:
A user is unable to access network resources after connecting to the guest wireless network. The user can browse the internet without issues. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation?
A) Incorrect DNS settings
B) Wireless isolation is enabled
C) DHCP server is offline
D) Incorrect subnet mask
Answer: B
Explanation:
This scenario describes a situation where internet access works properly, but access to local network resources is blocked. The most likely explanation is that wireless isolation is enabled on the guest network, making B the correct answer.
Wireless isolation, also called AP isolation, client isolation, or station isolation, is a security feature implemented on wireless access points and routers that prevents wireless clients from communicating directly with each other or accessing local network resources. This feature operates at the network layer by filtering traffic between wireless clients and between wireless clients and the wired network segments. When wireless isolation is enabled, each connected device can only communicate with the wireless access point itself and any resources beyond the router’s external interface (internet connection), but cannot communicate with other devices on the local network.
Guest wireless networks specifically implement wireless isolation as a fundamental security measure. Organizations and home users create guest networks to provide internet access for visitors, customers, or untrusted devices without exposing internal network resources like file servers, printers, network-attached storage devices, or other computers. This configuration protects sensitive data and internal systems while still providing convenient internet connectivity. The described scenario—internet access functioning normally while network resource access is blocked—is the expected and intended behavior of a properly configured guest network.
The technical implementation of wireless isolation typically involves the access point or router examining packet headers and dropping any traffic destined for local IP address ranges or other wireless clients. Some implementations use VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) tagging to segregate guest network traffic at the switch level, while others use packet filtering rules within the access point firmware. Regardless of implementation method, the result is identical: isolated clients can reach the internet but cannot access local resources.
Option A, incorrect DNS settings, would prevent the user from resolving domain names to IP addresses, resulting in inability to browse internet websites by name (though direct IP address access would still work). Since the user can browse the internet without issues, DNS is functioning correctly. DNS problems would not selectively block local network resource access while allowing internet access.
Option C, a DHCP server offline, would prevent the user from obtaining network configuration automatically, resulting in no network connectivity whatsoever. The user couldn’t browse the internet if DHCP weren’t functioning. The fact that internet access works indicates the user successfully obtained an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server information from the DHCP server.
Option D, an incorrect subnet mask, would cause routing problems and intermittent connectivity issues. An incorrect subnet mask might prevent access to certain IP ranges while allowing access to others, but it wouldn’t create the specific pattern described where all internet access works perfectly while all local network access is blocked. This symptom pattern is characteristic of intentional access control policies rather than network misconfiguration.
Question 176:
A technician is troubleshooting a desktop computer that is displaying artifacts and distorted images on the screen. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) Faulty RAM
B) Failing hard drive
C) Defective graphics card
D) Corrupted operating system
Answer: C
Explanation:
Display artifacts and distorted images are specific symptoms that point directly to graphics processing and display rendering issues. The most likely cause of these symptoms is a defective graphics card, making C the correct answer.
Graphics cards (also called video cards, GPUs, or graphics adapters) are responsible for processing and rendering all visual output displayed on the monitor. When a graphics card fails or malfunctions, it produces characteristic visual symptoms including artifacts (unexpected pixels, lines, or blocks appearing on screen), texture corruption, color distortion, screen tearing, flickering, or geometric distortions. These symptoms occur because the GPU is incorrectly processing graphics data or the video memory (VRAM) is corrupted.
Graphics card failures typically result from several common causes. Overheating is a primary factor—graphics cards generate substantial heat during operation, and inadequate cooling allows temperatures to exceed safe thresholds, causing permanent damage to the GPU chip or memory modules. Dust accumulation on the heatsink and fans reduces cooling efficiency, exacerbating thermal problems. Manufacturing defects, component aging, power delivery issues, and physical damage also cause graphics card failures.
The specific symptom of artifacts appearing on screen often indicates VRAM (video memory) corruption or GPU processing errors. When video memory cells fail, they store incorrect data that appears as visual glitches when rendered. GPU core failures manifest as calculation errors producing geometrically impossible or distorted images. These problems typically worsen over time and may be temperature-dependent, appearing more frequently when the card reaches higher temperatures during intensive graphics processing.
Troubleshooting graphics artifacts should include several steps. First, verify that the graphics card isn’t overheating by monitoring temperatures using software utilities. Clean any dust from the graphics card cooling system. Ensure the graphics driver is current, as driver bugs can occasionally cause display problems. Testing with a different monitor and cable rules out display hardware issues. If these steps don’t resolve the problem, the graphics card likely requires replacement.
Option A, faulty RAM, causes system instability issues including application crashes, blue screens, random reboots, or complete system failure. While severe RAM problems can occasionally affect graphics if the system becomes so unstable it cannot properly execute graphics driver code, RAM failures don’t directly cause the specific pattern of display artifacts and distortions described. RAM issues typically manifest as system-wide instability rather than isolated display problems.
Option B, a failing hard drive, causes data access problems including slow file operations, application loading delays, file corruption, or operating system boot failures. Hard drives don’t process or render graphics, so drive failures cannot directly cause display artifacts. Even if the hard drive were failing so severely that graphics driver files became corrupted, reinstalling drivers would resolve the issue—hardware-based artifacts from GPU failures persist regardless of software reinstallation.
Option D, a corrupted operating system, might cause various software problems including application failures, boot issues, or system instability. While operating system corruption could theoretically affect graphics driver functionality, this would more likely manifest as driver crashes, blue screens, or complete display failure rather than the persistent artifacts and distortions characteristic of hardware failure. Operating system corruption is typically resolved through repair utilities or reinstallation, whereas hardware-based artifacts persist across OS reinstalls.
Question 177:
Which of the following cloud computing models provides users with email, storage, and office productivity applications?
A) IaaS
B) PaaS
C) SaaS
D) DaaS
Answer: C
Explanation:
Cloud computing offers different service models, each providing varying levels of abstraction and management responsibility. When users access email, storage, and office productivity applications directly through the cloud, this represents Software as a Service, making C the correct answer.
SaaS (Software as a Service) delivers complete, fully functional applications to end users over the internet. Users access these applications through web browsers or lightweight client applications without installing traditional software packages on their local computers. The SaaS provider manages all underlying infrastructure including servers, storage, networking, operating systems, middleware, and the application software itself. Users simply consume the application functionality, paying subscription fees typically calculated per user per month.
Common SaaS examples include email services (Gmail, Outlook.com), office productivity suites (Microsoft 365, Google Workspace), customer relationship management systems (Salesforce), collaboration platforms (Slack, Microsoft Teams), and cloud storage services (Dropbox, Google Drive). These applications exemplify SaaS characteristics: immediate accessibility, no installation requirements, automatic updates, multi-tenant architecture serving numerous customers from shared infrastructure, and subscription-based pricing.
SaaS provides significant advantages for organizations and individual users. It eliminates software installation and maintenance burden, ensures users always access the latest version with newest features and security patches, enables access from any device with internet connectivity, and typically offers more predictable costs through subscription pricing versus traditional software licensing. The provider handles all technical complexities including scaling, backup, security, and disaster recovery.
The SaaS model fundamentally changed software consumption patterns. Traditional software required purchasing licenses, installing applications on individual computers, manually applying updates, and maintaining compatibility with various operating systems and hardware configurations. SaaS abstracts these complexities, allowing users to focus on utilizing software capabilities rather than managing technical implementation details.
Option A, IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service), provides virtualized computing resources including virtual machines, storage, and networking components. Users rent fundamental infrastructure without managing physical hardware but must install and maintain their own operating systems, middleware, and applications. Examples include Amazon EC2, Microsoft Azure Virtual Machines, and Google Compute Engine. IaaS requires significant technical expertise and doesn’t provide ready-to-use applications like email or office suites.
Option B, PaaS (Platform as a Service), provides development and deployment platforms for building custom applications. PaaS includes operating systems, programming language runtimes, databases, and web servers, allowing developers to create applications without managing underlying infrastructure. Examples include Heroku, Google App Engine, and Microsoft Azure App Service. PaaS targets developers building custom solutions, not end users seeking ready-made applications like email or office productivity tools.
Option D, DaaS (Desktop as a Service), delivers complete virtual desktop environments to users over the network. DaaS provides virtualized desktops including operating systems and applications, accessible from thin clients or other devices. Users receive full desktop experiences rather than individual applications. While DaaS might include email and office applications within the virtual desktop, it represents a different service model focused on desktop virtualization rather than direct application delivery. The question specifically asks about providing individual applications like email and office productivity tools, which describes SaaS rather than DaaS.
Question 178:
A user reports that their computer displays a «No boot device found» error message. Which of the following should a technician check FIRST
A) BIOS boot order
B) Hard drive connections
C) RAM modules
D) Power supply
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a computer displays a «No boot device found» error, this indicates the system BIOS or UEFI firmware cannot locate a bootable storage device. The most efficient first troubleshooting step is checking the BIOS boot order, making A the correct answer.
The boot order (also called boot sequence or boot priority) is a BIOS/UEFI firmware setting that determines which storage devices the system checks for bootable operating systems and the sequence in which it checks them. Common boot order configurations list hard drives, SSDs, optical drives, USB devices, and network boot options. During startup, the firmware sequentially examines each device in the configured order, looking for valid boot sectors or EFI boot loaders. When the firmware finds a bootable device, it transfers control to that device’s boot code, beginning the operating system loading process.
The boot order can become misconfigured through various scenarios. BIOS setting changes (intentional or accidental), CMOS battery failure causing settings to revert to defaults, firmware updates resetting configurations, or hardware changes triggering automatic reconfiguration can all alter boot order. If the boot order lists a non-bootable device (like an optical drive or USB port with no media) ahead of the hard drive containing the operating system, the system displays «No boot device found» even though a perfectly functional bootable drive is present.
Checking boot order is the fastest, least invasive troubleshooting step requiring no tools or physical hardware manipulation. The technician simply accesses BIOS/UEFI setup during system startup (typically by pressing F2, Del, F10, or Esc), navigates to boot configuration settings, and verifies that the operating system’s storage device appears in the boot order list and is prioritized appropriately. If boot order is incorrect, adjusting it takes seconds and immediately resolves the issue. This simple check prevents unnecessary hardware troubleshooting and potential service calls.
Additionally, reviewing boot order helps identify whether the BIOS recognizes the storage device at all. If the hard drive or SSD doesn’t appear in available boot devices, this indicates the firmware cannot detect the drive, pointing toward connection problems, drive failure, or controller issues requiring hardware-focused troubleshooting.
Option B, checking hard drive connections, is certainly an important troubleshooting step but should follow boot order verification. If boot order is configured correctly but the system still cannot boot, then inspecting physical connections becomes appropriate. Checking connections requires opening the computer case, potentially voiding warranties on some systems, and takes more time than reviewing BIOS settings. Following efficient troubleshooting methodology means performing quick, non-invasive checks before physical inspection.
Option C, RAM modules, don’t directly cause «No boot device found» errors. Faulty RAM prevents successful POST (Power-On Self-Test) completion, typically producing beep codes, different error messages, or blank screens rather than this specific error message. The «No boot device found» error indicates the system successfully completed POST and initialization but cannot locate bootable storage, pointing to boot configuration or storage device issues rather than memory problems.
Option D, power supply problems, would manifest differently. Insufficient power causes systems to fail to turn on, randomly shut down, exhibit instability, or fail to power certain components. A power supply problem wouldn’t typically allow the system to complete POST and display this specific error message. The fact that the system boots far enough to display an error message indicates power delivery is adequate for basic operation.
Question 179:
A technician needs to dispose of a hard drive that contains sensitive information. Which of the following methods provides the MOST secure data destruction?
A) Standard format
B) Degaussing
C) Physical destruction
D) Quick format
Answer: C
Explanation:
When disposing of storage devices containing sensitive information, selecting the appropriate data destruction method is critical for data security and privacy compliance. Physical destruction provides the most secure data destruction, making C the correct answer.
Physical destruction renders storage devices completely unusable by mechanically damaging the platters, chips, or components that store data beyond any possibility of recovery. Methods include shredding drives in industrial shredders designed specifically for electronic media, drilling multiple holes through the platters or memory chips, crushing devices with hydraulic presses, or incineration in certified facilities. These methods ensure data cannot be recovered using any technique, including advanced forensic methods or specialized equipment.
The security of physical destruction comes from completely destroying the physical media where data resides. Hard drives store information magnetically on aluminum or glass platters coated with magnetic material. Physically damaging these platters—shattering glass platters or deforming aluminum platters—destroys the magnetic domains containing data. SSDs store data in NAND flash memory chips; physically destroying these chips makes data recovery impossible. Unlike software-based deletion methods that leave physical media intact and potentially recoverable, physical destruction eliminates the storage medium itself.
Organizations handling highly sensitive information including financial records, healthcare data, classified government information, or personal identifiable information often require physical destruction for compliance with regulations like HIPAA, GDPR, or defense industry standards. Certified data destruction services provide chain-of-custody documentation and certificates of destruction verifying compliant disposal. Many organizations maintain on-site physical destruction equipment for immediate device destruction.
Physical destruction is particularly important for devices that are damaged, non-functional, or where software-based wiping cannot be verified. If a drive controller is damaged preventing software access, physical destruction remains effective. For maximum security scenarios, combining methods—performing software wiping followed by physical destruction—provides defense-in-depth.
Option A, standard formatting, creates a new file system on the drive but doesn’t actually overwrite data. Formatting simply erases the file allocation table or directory structure that tracks where files reside, marking space as available for new data. The original data remains physically present on the drive until overwritten by new data. Data recovery software can easily restore files after standard formatting by scanning for data patterns and reconstructing file structures. Standard formatting provides minimal data security.
Option B, degaussing, uses powerful electromagnetic fields to randomize magnetic domains on hard drive platters, effectively erasing data. While degaussing is effective for traditional magnetic hard drives and renders them non-functional, it has limitations. Degaussing doesn’t work on solid-state drives (SSDs), USB flash drives, or other flash memory devices because they use electrical charges in transistors rather than magnetic storage. Additionally, modern hard drives with high coercivity magnetic materials may require extremely powerful degaussers for effective erasure. Degaussing equipment is expensive and requires proper operation training.
Option D, quick formatting, is even less secure than standard formatting. Quick format only clears the file system metadata without even verifying the drive’s condition or making any changes to actual data areas. Quick format completes very rapidly because it performs minimal operations, but leaves all data completely intact and easily recoverable. Quick formatting provides essentially no data security and should never be used for disposing of drives with sensitive information.
Question 180:
Which of the following IP addresses is a private IP address that cannot be routed on the public internet?
A)16.50.10
B)8.8.8
C)233.160.0
D)137.246.8
Answer: A
Explanation:
Understanding IP addressing fundamentals is essential for networking. Private IP addresses are reserved address ranges that cannot be routed on the public internet, and 172.16.50.10 falls within these ranges, making A the correct answer.
Private IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918, which reserves three specific IP address ranges for private network use: 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 (Class A, 10.0.0.0/8), 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 (Class B, 172.16.0.0/12), and 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 (Class C, 192.168.0.0/16). These address ranges can be used freely within private networks without coordination with internet registries or concern about address conflicts with other organizations’ networks.
The address 172.16.50.10 falls within the 172.16.0.0/12 range, specifically in the 172.16.0.0/16 subnet. Organizations commonly use this range for internal networks when the smaller 192.168.0.0/16 range doesn’t provide enough addresses or when implementing hierarchical network designs with multiple subnets. The 172.16.0.0/12 range provides over 1 million usable addresses (specifically 1,048,576 addresses), making it suitable for medium to large enterprises.
Internet routers are configured to drop packets with private IP addresses as source or destination addresses, preventing them from being routed across the public internet. This design serves two important purposes. First, it conserves the limited IPv4 address space—instead of requiring unique public addresses for every device, organizations can reuse private addresses internally while sharing a smaller number of public addresses through NAT (Network Address Translation). Second, it provides inherent security by preventing direct external access to devices with private addresses, creating a basic level of protection for internal network devices.
NAT enables private network devices to access internet resources by translating private IP addresses to public addresses at the network edge. When internal devices initiate connections to internet services, the router replaces their private source IP addresses with the router’s public IP address, maintaining translation tables to route responses back to the correct internal device. This allows thousands of internal devices to share a single public IP address or small pool of public addresses.
Option B, 8.8.8.8, is a public IP address belonging to Google and used for their public DNS service. This address is globally routable on the internet and is one of the most commonly used DNS resolver addresses. Public IP addresses like this are assigned by regional internet registries and must be globally unique to prevent routing conflicts.
Option C, 64.233.160.0, is part of a public IP address range (64.233.160.0/19) assigned to Google. This range contains addresses used for various Google services. As a public address range, it is fully routable on the internet and cannot be used for private network addressing without causing conflicts.
Option D, 98.137.246.8, is a public IP address from a range (98.128.0.0/11) assigned to various organizations through ARIN (American Registry for Internet Numbers). This is a publicly routable address that would typically be assigned to internet-connected services or devices requiring direct internet accessibility. Using this address on a private network would cause routing problems and connection failures.