CompTIA 220-1101 A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 11 Q 151-165

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Question 151: 

A technician is troubleshooting a computer that is experiencing slow performance. The technician opens the Task Manager and notices that the CPU usage is consistently at 100%. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?

A) Replace the CPU with a faster processor

B) Identify which process is consuming the most CPU resources

C) Increase the amount of RAM in the system

D) Restart the computer to clear the high CPU usage

Answer: B

Explanation:

When troubleshooting computer performance issues, particularly those related to high CPU usage, it is essential to follow a systematic approach that begins with identifying the root cause of the problem before implementing any solutions. This methodical approach prevents unnecessary hardware replacements, reduces costs, and ensures that the actual issue is resolved rather than symptoms being temporarily masked.

Task Manager is a powerful diagnostic tool in Windows operating systems that provides real-time information about system resource utilization, including CPU, memory, disk, and network usage. When CPU usage reaches 100% consistently, it indicates that the processor is working at maximum capacity, which can cause system slowdowns, application freezes, and overall poor performance. However, high CPU usage itself is merely a symptom, not the underlying cause.

The first step in troubleshooting methodology is always to gather information and identify the specific cause of the problem. In this scenario, the technician needs to determine which process or application is consuming the excessive CPU resources. Task Manager displays all running processes and their respective resource consumption, allowing the technician to sort processes by CPU usage and identify the culprit. Common causes of high CPU usage include malware infections, background applications, Windows updates running in the background, antivirus scans, browser tabs with resource-intensive content, or malfunctioning software.

A) is incorrect because replacing hardware should never be the first step in troubleshooting. This approach is costly, time-consuming, and unnecessary when the issue might be caused by software problems such as malware, runaway processes, or misconfigured applications. Hardware replacement should only be considered after software-related causes have been eliminated.

B) is correct because identifying the process consuming CPU resources is the essential first step in troubleshooting. Once the problematic process is identified, the technician can take appropriate action such as ending the process, uninstalling problematic software, running malware scans, or updating drivers. This approach follows the standard troubleshooting methodology of identifying the problem before implementing solutions.

C) is incorrect because increasing RAM addresses memory-related performance issues, not CPU utilization problems. While insufficient RAM can cause performance degradation, the scenario specifically indicates that CPU usage is at 100%, not memory usage. Adding RAM would not resolve a CPU bottleneck caused by a specific process.

D) is incorrect because restarting the computer may temporarily resolve the symptom but does not address the underlying cause. If a problematic application or malware is causing the high CPU usage, it will likely recur after the restart, leaving the root cause unresolved.

Question 152: 

A user reports that their laptop screen is very dim and difficult to read. The user has already adjusted the brightness settings to maximum, but the screen remains dim. Which of the following components is MOST likely causing this issue?

A) Graphics card

B) LCD panel

C) Inverter or backlight

D) Display cable

Answer: C

Explanation:

When a laptop screen appears very dim despite brightness settings being at maximum, this indicates a hardware issue related to the screen’s illumination system rather than the display panel itself or its ability to generate images. Understanding the components responsible for screen brightness is essential for accurate troubleshooting and repair.

Laptop displays consist of several key components working together to produce visible images. The LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) panel itself does not generate light; instead, it manipulates light passing through it to create images. The light source behind the LCD panel is what makes the screen visible to users. In older laptops, this illumination system consisted of a CCFL (Cold Cathode Fluorescent Lamp) backlight powered by an inverter board. In modern laptops, LED (Light Emitting Diode) backlights have replaced CCFL technology, but the principle remains the same: without proper backlighting, the screen appears very dim or completely dark even though images are technically being displayed.

The inverter is a small circuit board that converts DC power from the laptop’s power supply into AC power required by CCFL backlights. When the inverter fails, the backlight receives insufficient or no power, resulting in a very dim or completely black screen. With LED backlights, similar issues can occur if the LED driver circuit or the LED strips themselves fail. A classic diagnostic test for backlight failure is to shine a flashlight at an angle onto the dim screen while the laptop is powered on. If you can faintly see images on the screen with the flashlight, this confirms that the LCD panel is functioning properly but the backlight system has failed.

A) is incorrect because graphics card failures typically result in different symptoms such as artifacts, distorted images, incorrect colors, no display output, or system crashes. A failing graphics card would not cause the screen to be uniformly dim while still displaying recognizable images. The graphics card processes and sends video signals but does not control the physical brightness of the display.

B) is incorrect because LCD panel failures manifest differently, usually as dead pixels, lines across the screen, color abnormalities, or complete display failure. If the LCD panel itself were damaged, the user would likely see visual defects in the image quality rather than just reduced brightness. The LCD panel manipulates light but does not generate it.

C) is correct because the inverter (in older laptops with CCFL backlights) or the LED backlight system (in newer laptops) is directly responsible for illuminating the screen. When these components fail or malfunction, the most common symptom is a very dim screen that remains difficult to read regardless of brightness settings. The images are still being generated by the LCD panel and graphics system, but without adequate backlighting, they are barely visible.

D) is incorrect because display cable issues typically cause flickering, intermittent display problems, lines on the screen, or complete loss of display depending on movement of the screen. A loose or damaged display cable would not typically cause uniform dimness across the entire screen, and the issue would likely vary with screen position changes.

Question 153: 

A technician needs to configure a new wireless router for a small office. The office requires the highest level of wireless security available. Which of the following security protocols should the technician implement?

A) WEP

B) WPA

C) WPA2

D) WPA3

Answer: D

Explanation:

Wireless network security has evolved significantly over the years as vulnerabilities in older protocols have been discovered and exploited. Understanding the capabilities and limitations of each wireless security protocol is essential for implementing appropriate security measures in any environment, particularly in business settings where sensitive data may be transmitted over the network.

Wireless security protocols serve multiple purposes: they authenticate devices attempting to connect to the network, encrypt data transmitted between devices and the access point, and ensure data integrity. As computing power has increased and security researchers have discovered vulnerabilities in older protocols, newer and more secure standards have been developed to protect wireless networks from unauthorized access and eavesdropping.

WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) was the first wireless security protocol introduced in 1997. It uses RC4 encryption with either 64-bit or 128-bit keys. However, WEP has severe security vulnerabilities that allow attackers to crack the encryption in minutes using readily available tools. WEP should never be used in any modern network, as it provides essentially no real security against determined attackers.

WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) was introduced in 2003 as an interim solution to address WEP’s vulnerabilities while the industry developed a more robust standard. WPA uses TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) for encryption and implements stronger authentication mechanisms. While significantly more secure than WEP, WPA still has known vulnerabilities and has been superseded by newer protocols.

WPA2, introduced in 2004, became the standard wireless security protocol for over a decade. It uses AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) encryption with CCMP (Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol), providing strong security for most applications. WPA2 supports both Personal (PSK — Pre-Shared Key) and Enterprise (802.1X authentication with RADIUS server) modes. However, vulnerabilities such as the KRACK (Key Reinstallation Attack) discovered in 2017 demonstrated that even WPA2 has weaknesses.

A) is incorrect because WEP is the oldest and least secure wireless encryption protocol. It has been deprecated for years due to critical security vulnerabilities that make it trivial to crack. Using WEP provides virtually no protection against unauthorized network access and should never be implemented in any environment.

B) is incorrect because WPA, while more secure than WEP, is outdated and has known vulnerabilities. It was designed as a transitional protocol and has been superseded by WPA2 and WPA3. Organizations should not implement WPA when more secure options are available.

C) is incorrect because although WPA2 has been the industry standard for many years and provides good security for most purposes, it is not the highest level of security available. WPA3 offers enhanced security features that address WPA2’s vulnerabilities and should be used when the highest level of security is required.

D) is correct because WPA3, introduced in 2018, is the most current and secure wireless security protocol available. It provides enhanced encryption through individualized data encryption (protecting data even on open networks), stronger password-based authentication resistant to offline dictionary attacks, forward secrecy ensuring that compromising current encryption keys does not expose past traffic, and simplified security configuration. WPA3 addresses vulnerabilities found in WPA2 and represents the highest level of wireless security currently available.

Question 154: 

A technician is setting up a workstation that requires a static IP address. Which of the following IP addresses would be valid for use on a private network?

A)32.10.5

B)168.1.50

C)0.0.256

D)15.100.1

Answer: B

Explanation:

Understanding IP addressing is fundamental for network configuration and troubleshooting. IP addresses are divided into public and private ranges, with private IP addresses reserved for use within internal networks and not routable on the public Internet. The Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) has designated specific IP address ranges for private network use, as defined in RFC 1918.

Private IP address ranges allow organizations to create internal networks without consuming public IP addresses, which are limited resources. Network Address Translation (NAT) enables devices with private IP addresses to communicate with the Internet through a router that translates private addresses to public addresses. There are three private IP address ranges defined: Class A (10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255), Class B (172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255), and Class C (192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255).

When configuring a static IP address for a workstation on a private network, the address must fall within one of these private ranges and must also be valid according to IP addressing rules. Each octet in an IP address can contain values from 0 to 255, and certain addresses within each range are reserved for special purposes such as network addresses (all host bits set to 0) and broadcast addresses (all host bits set to 1).

A) is incorrect because 172.32.10.5 falls outside the valid private Class B range. The private Class B range spans from 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255. Since 172.32 exceeds 172.31, this address is not within the designated private address space and would be considered a public IP address if used on the Internet.

B) is correct because 192.168.1.50 falls within the valid private Class C range of 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255. This is one of the most commonly used private IP address ranges for home and small business networks. All octets contain valid values (192, 168, 1, and 50 are all within the 0-255 range), and the address is not reserved for special purposes.

C) is incorrect because although it starts with 10, which is the beginning of a valid private Class A range, the fourth octet contains the value 256, which exceeds the maximum allowed value of 255 for any octet in an IP address. Each octet must be between 0 and 255, making this an invalid IP address regardless of whether it is intended for private or public use.

D) is incorrect because 172.15.100.1 falls outside the valid private Class B range. While it begins with 172, the second octet is 15, which is below the minimum value of 16 required for the private Class B range (172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255). Therefore, this address would be considered a public IP address space.

Question 155: 

A user’s smartphone is experiencing extremely short battery life, even after a full charge. The user has not installed any new applications recently. Which of the following should a technician check FIRST?

A) Replace the battery

B) Check for applications running in the background

C) Perform a factory reset

D) Update the operating system

Answer: B

Explanation:

Smartphone battery life issues are among the most common problems users experience, and troubleshooting these issues requires a systematic approach to identify the underlying cause. Battery drain can result from various factors including hardware failure, software problems, misconfigured settings, or specific applications consuming excessive power. Following proper troubleshooting methodology means starting with the least invasive, quickest, and most cost-effective diagnostic steps before proceeding to more drastic measures.

Modern smartphones run multiple applications simultaneously, with many apps continuing to operate in the background even when not actively in use. Background processes can include location services, data synchronization, push notifications, automatic updates, and various system services. Some applications are poorly optimized and may consume excessive CPU cycles, maintain constant network connections, or prevent the device from entering low-power sleep states. Social media apps, navigation apps, streaming services, and games are common culprits for battery drain when allowed to run unrestricted in the background.

Both iOS and Android operating systems provide built-in battery usage statistics that show which applications and services are consuming the most power. These diagnostic tools allow technicians and users to identify specific apps responsible for excessive battery consumption. Checking these statistics should always be the first step when investigating battery life problems, as this information can immediately reveal software-related issues that can be resolved without any hardware replacement or data loss.

A) is incorrect because replacing the battery should not be the first troubleshooting step. While battery degradation over time is normal and eventually all batteries need replacement, jumping directly to hardware replacement without investigating software causes is inefficient and potentially unnecessary. Battery replacement is invasive, costs money, and may not resolve the issue if software problems are the actual cause. This step should only be considered after software-related causes have been eliminated.

B) is correct because checking for applications running in the background is the appropriate first troubleshooting step. This approach is non-invasive, quick to perform, costs nothing, and frequently identifies the root cause of battery drain issues. The technician can access battery usage statistics in the device settings to identify which apps are consuming the most power. If a specific app is identified as problematic, the technician can close it, restrict its background activity, adjust its permissions, or uninstall and reinstall it to resolve the issue without affecting other device functionality or user data.

C) is incorrect because performing a factory reset is a drastic measure that erases all user data, installed applications, and customized settings. This should be reserved as a last resort after all other troubleshooting steps have been exhausted. A factory reset is time-consuming, requires data backup and restoration, and may not resolve the issue if it is hardware-related. Implementing such an invasive solution without first investigating simpler causes violates basic troubleshooting principles.

D) is incorrect because while operating system updates can sometimes improve battery life through optimizations and bug fixes, updating should not be the first step. OS updates can be large downloads requiring significant time, may introduce new issues, and might not address the specific battery drain problem if it is caused by a particular application. Additionally, if the battery issue is severe, the device may not have sufficient power to complete an update. Checking for problematic apps provides more targeted and immediate diagnostic information.

Question 156: 

A technician is installing a new SATA hard drive in a desktop computer. Which of the following connectors will the technician need to connect to the drive? (Choose TWO)

A) Molex

B) SATA power

C) SATA data

D) IDE ribbon cable

E) PCIe power

Answer: B and C

Explanation:

SATA (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment) is the standard interface for connecting storage devices such as hard drives and solid-state drives to computer motherboards. Understanding SATA connectivity is essential for anyone performing computer hardware installation or upgrades. Unlike older storage interface standards that required multiple cables and complex configuration, SATA simplifies the connection process while providing superior performance.

A SATA storage device requires two separate connections to function properly: one for data transfer and one for electrical power. The SATA data cable is a thin, flat cable with small seven-pin connectors on each end. One end connects to the SATA port on the motherboard, and the other end connects to the SATA data port on the storage device. This cable transmits all data between the drive and the motherboard, including read and write operations. SATA data cables are typically red, black, or blue, though color does not affect functionality. Modern SATA standards (SATA III) support data transfer rates up to 6 Gbps.

The SATA power connector is a 15-pin connector that provides electrical power to the drive. This connector comes from the computer’s power supply unit (PSU) and delivers three different voltages (3.3V, 5V, and 12V) necessary for the drive’s operation. The SATA power connector is wider and flatter than the data connector and has a distinctive L-shaped design that prevents incorrect insertion. Both the data and power connections must be securely attached for the drive to be recognized by the system and function correctly.

A) is incorrect because Molex connectors are older four-pin power connectors used primarily with IDE (PATA) drives and other legacy hardware. While adapters exist to convert Molex to SATA power, modern power supplies include native SATA power connectors, and using Molex directly is not the standard or recommended approach for SATA drives.

B) is correct because the SATA power connector is one of the two essential connections required for a SATA hard drive. Without power, the drive cannot spin up, and the storage controller cannot function. The 15-pin SATA power connector provides the necessary voltages for all drive operations.

C) is correct because the SATA data cable is the other essential connection required for a SATA hard drive. This seven-pin connector enables communication between the drive and the motherboard. Without the data connection, the system cannot send commands to the drive or receive data from it, making the drive non-functional even if powered.

D) is incorrect because IDE ribbon cables (also called PATA cables) are used for older IDE/PATA drives, not SATA drives. These wide, flat cables with 40 or 80 conductors are incompatible with SATA connections. IDE and SATA use completely different interfaces and are not interchangeable.

E) is incorrect because PCIe power connectors are used for high-power devices such as graphics cards, not for SATA storage drives. These connectors typically have six or eight pins and provide significantly more power than storage devices require. SATA drives use the standardized 15-pin SATA power connector.

Question 157: 

A company wants to ensure that all data on decommissioned hard drives is completely unrecoverable before the drives are disposed of. Which of the following methods provides the MOST secure data destruction?

A) Formatting the drive

B) Deleting all files and emptying the recycle bin

C) Using degaussing equipment

D) Using data wiping software

Answer: C

Explanation:

Data security extends beyond protecting data while it is in use; organizations must also ensure that sensitive information cannot be recovered from storage devices that are being retired, repurposed, or disposed of. Simply deleting files or formatting drives does not actually remove data from the storage media; instead, these operations merely remove references to the data in the file system, leaving the actual data intact and recoverable using specialized software tools.

When decommissioning storage devices, organizations must consider their data sensitivity, regulatory compliance requirements, and the security risks associated with data breaches. Various data destruction methods exist, ranging from software-based approaches to physical destruction, each with different levels of security and permanence. The most appropriate method depends on the organization’s security requirements, the type of storage media, and whether the device will be reused or completely destroyed.

Degaussing is a physical data destruction method that uses powerful magnetic fields to disrupt the magnetic domains on hard disk platters, effectively randomizing the data and rendering it unrecoverable. Professional degaussing equipment generates extremely strong magnetic fields measured in oersteds or gauss that exceed the coercivity of the hard drive’s magnetic media. This process not only destroys all data but also typically damages the drive’s servo information, making the drive permanently unusable. Degaussing is considered one of the most secure methods of data destruction for magnetic storage media.

A) is incorrect because formatting a drive, whether quick format or full format, does not actually erase data from the physical media. Formatting simply rebuilds the file system structure and marks all sectors as available for new data. The original data remains on the platters and can be easily recovered using data recovery software. This method provides essentially no security for sensitive data disposal.

B) is incorrect because deleting files and emptying the recycle bin is the least secure method of data removal. This operation only removes file system entries that point to the data; the actual data remains unchanged on the storage media until it is overwritten by new data. Data recovery software can easily restore deleted files, making this approach completely inadequate for secure data destruction.

C) is correct because degaussing provides the most secure data destruction method among the options listed. The powerful magnetic fields completely disrupt the magnetic orientation of data on the drive platters, making data recovery impossible even with specialized equipment and techniques. Degaussing meets the requirements of various data security standards and regulations for secure media sanitization. However, it is important to note that degaussing only works on magnetic storage media (traditional hard drives) and is ineffective on solid-state drives (SSDs), which use flash memory technology.

D) is incorrect because while data wiping software (using methods such as DoD 5220.22-M or multiple-pass random overwriting) provides good security and is significantly better than formatting or simple deletion, it is not the most secure method available. Software-based wiping depends on the drive’s controller correctly implementing write commands, and some areas of the drive may be inaccessible to software (such as remapped sectors or areas in the Host Protected Area). Additionally, the process is time-consuming for large capacity drives, and there remains a theoretical possibility that sophisticated forensic techniques might recover some data. Degaussing provides a higher level of security assurance by physically disrupting the magnetic media.

Question 158: 

A technician is troubleshooting a laser printer that is producing faded prints. The technician has verified that the printer settings are correct. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A) Failed fuser assembly

B) Low toner level

C) Dirty corona wire

D) Incorrect paper type

Answer: B

Explanation:

Laser printers are complex devices that use a multi-stage electrophotographic process to transfer toner onto paper and fuse it to create permanent prints. Understanding the laser printing process and how component failures affect print quality is essential for effective troubleshooting. The laser printing process consists of seven main steps: processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, and cleaning. Issues at different stages produce distinct symptoms, allowing technicians to narrow down the cause of print quality problems.

Faded prints indicate that insufficient toner is being applied to the paper or that the toner being applied is not at the proper density. Several factors can cause faded output, including depleted toner supply, issues with the charging or developing stages, contaminated components, or incorrect printer settings. Since the scenario specifies that printer settings have been verified as correct, the issue must be hardware-related rather than configuration-related.

Toner cartridges contain a fine powder composed of plastic particles, carbon, and coloring agents. As the cartridge is used, the toner supply gradually depletes. Most modern printers include monitoring systems that estimate remaining toner based on coverage percentage and page counts. When toner levels become low, the printer may continue to function but will produce progressively lighter prints as less toner is available for the developing stage. This is typically the first and most common cause of faded prints, and it is also the easiest and least expensive to resolve.

A) is incorrect because a failed fuser assembly produces different symptoms than faded prints. The fuser uses heat and pressure to permanently bond toner to paper. When the fuser fails or malfunctions, toner does not properly adhere to the paper, resulting in toner that smudges easily when touched, flakes off the page, or appears shiny and unfused. The prints would show proper toner density but poor adhesion rather than overall fading. Complete fuser failure would prevent any print output.

B) is correct because low toner level is the most common and likely cause of faded prints. When the toner cartridge is depleted or nearly empty, insufficient toner is available during the developing stage, resulting in lighter, faded prints across the entire page. This issue progressively worsens as the toner supply continues to deplete. Replacing or refilling the toner cartridge typically resolves the problem immediately. This is also the most cost-effective solution and should always be checked first when troubleshooting faded prints.

C) is incorrect because while a dirty corona wire (also called primary corona or charge roller) can affect print quality, it typically causes different symptoms than uniform fading. The corona wire applies an electrostatic charge to the photosensitive drum during the charging stage. When contaminated with toner dust or debris, it may apply uneven charges, resulting in vertical streaks, lines, or irregular spots rather than overall fading. Cleaning the corona wire might improve print quality in some cases, but it is not the most likely cause of uniformly faded prints.

D) is incorrect because incorrect paper type generally does not cause faded prints when printer settings have been verified as correct. While very rough or highly textured paper might absorb toner differently than standard paper, this would not produce the uniform fading characteristic of low toner levels. Paper type mismatches more commonly cause feeding problems, paper jams, or poor toner adhesion rather than reduced toner density. The scenario specifies that printer settings have been verified, which would include paper type settings.

Question 159: 

Which of the following cloud computing models provides users with access to applications over the Internet without needing to install or maintain the software locally?

A) IaaS

B) PaaS

C) SaaS

D) DaaS

Answer: C

Explanation:

Cloud computing has revolutionized how organizations and individuals access and utilize computing resources, offering various service models that provide different levels of control, flexibility, and management responsibility. Understanding the distinctions between these models is essential for making appropriate technology decisions and for CompTIA A+ certification. The three primary cloud service models are Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Software as a Service (SaaS), each serving different use cases and target audiences.

The fundamental concept behind all cloud service models is the delivery of computing resources over the Internet on a subscription or pay-per-use basis, eliminating the need for local infrastructure, reducing capital expenses, and shifting IT management responsibilities to service providers. Each model represents a different level of abstraction, with the provider managing increasingly more of the technology stack as you move from IaaS to PaaS to SaaS.

Software as a Service (SaaS) represents the highest level of abstraction and the most complete cloud solution for end users. In the SaaS model, the cloud provider hosts, manages, and maintains complete applications that users access through web browsers or lightweight client applications. The provider handles all aspects of the application including infrastructure, operating systems, middleware, application software, data, security patches, updates, and scalability. Users simply log in and use the application without any installation, configuration, or maintenance responsibilities.

A) is incorrect because Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides virtualized computing resources such as virtual machines, storage, and networking over the Internet. While IaaS eliminates the need for physical hardware ownership, users are responsible for managing operating systems, applications, middleware, and data. Examples include Amazon EC2, Microsoft Azure Virtual Machines, and Google Compute Engine. IaaS does not provide ready-to-use applications; instead, it provides the infrastructure on which users can build and deploy their own applications.

B) is incorrect because Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides a development and deployment environment in the cloud, including tools, libraries, and services for building applications. PaaS is designed for developers who want to create custom applications without managing the underlying infrastructure or platform components. While PaaS eliminates infrastructure management, it does not provide complete, ready-to-use applications for end users. Examples include Google App Engine, Microsoft Azure App Service, and Heroku. Users still need to develop or deploy their own applications on the platform.

C) is correct because Software as a Service (SaaS) delivers fully functional applications over the Internet that users can access without installing or maintaining any software locally. The cloud provider manages everything from infrastructure to application maintenance, updates, and security. Users simply need an Internet connection and a web browser or thin client to access the application. Common examples include Microsoft 365 (formerly Office 365), Google Workspace (formerly G Suite), Salesforce, Dropbox, and Zoom. SaaS applications are ideal for end users who want to use software without any technical management responsibilities.

D) is incorrect because Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides virtual desktop environments hosted in the cloud. While DaaS delivers desktops remotely and eliminates local desktop management, it is not specifically focused on delivering individual applications over the Internet. Instead, DaaS provides complete desktop environments that may include multiple applications and tools. Users typically access DaaS through remote desktop protocols rather than simply using web-based applications. DaaS is more comprehensive than SaaS but requires more user management of the desktop environment itself.

Question 160: 

A technician needs to configure a SOHO router to allow remote access to a web server located on the internal network. Which of the following should the technician configure?

A) DMZ

B) Port forwarding

C) MAC filtering

D) DHCP reservation

Answer: B

Explanation:

Small Office/Home Office (SOHO) routers typically perform Network Address Translation (NAT) to allow multiple internal devices with private IP addresses to share a single public IP address for Internet access. While NAT effectively protects internal devices from unsolicited incoming connections, this security feature becomes a challenge when internal servers need to be accessible from the Internet. Understanding how to properly configure routers to allow selective external access while maintaining security is essential for network administration.

By default, NAT routers block all unsolicited incoming connections from the Internet to protect internal networks. This means external users cannot initiate connections to devices on the internal network, even if those devices are running services that should be publicly accessible, such as web servers, email servers, or game servers. Several router configuration options exist to allow external access to internal services, each with different security implications and use cases.

Port forwarding (also called port mapping) is the most precise and secure method for allowing external access to specific services on specific internal devices. Port forwarding configures the router to forward incoming traffic on specific ports to a designated internal IP address. For example, incoming HTTP traffic on port 80 can be forwarded to the internal web server’s private IP address. This allows external users to access the web server using the router’s public IP address while maintaining protection for all other internal devices and services.

A) is incorrect because while a DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) configuration can allow external access to an internal device, it is less secure and less appropriate for this scenario. Enabling DMZ on a router forwards all incoming traffic on all ports to a single designated internal device, essentially exposing that device completely to the Internet. While this ensures accessibility, it removes most firewall protection from the designated device, creating significant security risks. DMZ should only be used when port forwarding is insufficient or when troubleshooting connectivity issues temporarily. For a web server requiring only HTTP/HTTPS access, port forwarding is the more appropriate and secure solution.

B) is correct because port forwarding is the appropriate configuration for allowing external access to a specific service (web server) on the internal network while maintaining security. The technician would configure the router to forward incoming traffic on ports 80 (HTTP) and 443 (HTTPS) to the internal IP address of the web server. This allows external users to access the web server while keeping all other internal devices protected from unsolicited incoming connections. Port forwarding provides granular control, allowing only necessary services to be exposed while maintaining the router’s firewall protection for everything else.

C) is incorrect because MAC filtering is a wireless security feature that controls which devices can connect to the wireless network based on their MAC addresses. MAC filtering creates a whitelist or blacklist of allowed or denied devices but does not enable external access to internal services. This feature is related to wireless access control, not to routing external traffic to internal servers. MAC filtering would not allow Internet users to reach the internal web server.

D) is incorrect because DHCP reservation ensures that a specific device always receives the same IP address from the DHCP server based on its MAC address. While DHCP reservation is often used in conjunction with port forwarding (to ensure the web server maintains a consistent internal IP address), reservation alone does not enable external access. DHCP reservation is an internal network configuration that affects only how IP addresses are assigned within the local network and has no impact on whether external users can access the server.

Question 161: 

A user reports that their computer is running slowly and frequently displays pop-up advertisements, even when not browsing the web. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely affecting the computer?

A) Ransomware

B) Adware

C) Rootkit

D) Trojan

Answer: B

Explanation:

Malware encompasses various types of malicious software designed to compromise computer systems, steal information, disrupt operations, or generate revenue for attackers. Different malware types exhibit distinct behaviors and symptoms, making it essential to recognize the characteristics of each type for effective identification and remediation. Understanding malware behavior helps technicians quickly diagnose infections and implement appropriate removal procedures.

The symptoms described in this scenario—slow computer performance and frequent pop-up advertisements appearing even when not browsing—are highly characteristic of a specific malware category. While multiple types of malware can slow system performance, the presence of persistent pop-up advertisements is a distinctive indicator that helps narrow the diagnosis. Malware that displays advertisements serves a financial purpose for attackers, who generate revenue through forced ad displays, click fraud, or affiliate marketing schemes.

Adware is specifically designed to display unwanted advertisements to users, often generating revenue for its creators through pay-per-click advertising or affiliate commissions. Adware typically infiltrates systems through software bundling (being packaged with legitimate free software), deceptive download buttons on websites, or social engineering tactics. Once installed, adware commonly runs continuously in the background, consuming system resources (causing slowdowns), monitoring browsing behavior, and displaying pop-up ads, banner ads, or redirecting browsers to advertising websites. The persistent nature of these advertisements, appearing even outside of web browsing contexts, is a hallmark of adware infection.

A) is incorrect because ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts users’ files and demands payment (ransom) for the decryption key. Ransomware typically displays a ransom message explaining that files have been encrypted and providing payment instructions, but it does not generate ongoing pop-up advertisements as its primary symptom. Ransomware’s goal is extortion through file encryption, not advertising revenue. While ransomware does impact system performance during the encryption process, its primary symptom is inaccessibility of files and a ransom demand, not pop-up ads.

B) is correct because adware specifically generates unwanted advertisements as its primary behavior, matching the symptoms described perfectly. The combination of system slowdown (due to adware processes consuming resources) and persistent pop-up advertisements appearing even outside web browsers is the signature characteristic of adware infection. Adware is designed to monetize infected systems through forced ad exposure and is among the most common types of malware encountered by home users and small businesses.

C) is incorrect because a rootkit is a type of malware designed to hide its presence and provide attackers with persistent, privileged access to a compromised system. Rootkits operate stealthily at low system levels, concealing their files, processes, and network connections from security software and system utilities. While rootkits may degrade system performance due to their background activities, they do not typically display pop-up advertisements. Rootkits focus on maintaining hidden access for other malicious activities rather than generating advertising revenue.

D) is incorrect because a Trojan (or Trojan horse) is malware that disguises itself as legitimate software to trick users into installing it. While Trojans can perform various malicious activities including downloading additional malware (which might include adware), stealing information, or providing remote access to attackers, displaying pop-up advertisements is not their primary characteristic or purpose. Trojans are more focused on deception during initial infection and establishing access for other malicious purposes. If pop-up ads are the primary symptom, adware is the more specific and accurate diagnosis.

Question 162: 

A technician is installing a new internal hard drive in a desktop computer. After installation, the drive is not appearing in the operating system. The technician verifies that both power and data cables are properly connected. Which of the following should the technician check NEXT?

A) Verify the drive is

M2

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enabled in BIOS/UEFI

B) Update the operating system

C) Replace the hard drive

D) Reinstall the operating system

Answer: A

Explanation:

When installing new hardware components, particularly storage devices, proper recognition by the computer system involves multiple layers: physical connectivity, BIOS/UEFI detection, and operating system recognition. Troubleshooting hardware installation issues requires following a systematic approach that progresses from basic to advanced steps, checking each layer before concluding that hardware is defective or that more drastic measures are necessary.

The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) or UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) is the firmware interface that initializes hardware components during the boot process before the operating system loads. For a storage device to be available to the operating system, it must first be detected and enabled at the BIOS/UEFI level. Even with proper physical connections, drives may not appear in the operating system for several reasons related to BIOS/UEFI configuration: the SATA port may be disabled, the boot order may need adjustment, legacy vs. UEFI mode settings may conflict, or the system may require initialization of new hardware.

Modern motherboards typically auto-detect connected storage devices, but some systems require manual configuration or enabling of storage controller ports. Additionally, newly installed drives need to be initialized and partitioned before they appear as usable storage in the operating system. However, the drive must first be visible in BIOS/UEFI before these operating system-level configurations can be performed. Checking BIOS/UEFI is a quick, non-invasive diagnostic step that can immediately reveal whether the system is detecting the drive at the hardware level.

A) is correct because checking BIOS/UEFI settings should be the next troubleshooting step after verifying physical connections. The technician should restart the computer, enter the BIOS/UEFI setup interface (typically by pressing Del, F2, F10, or another key during boot), and navigate to storage or boot configuration sections. The technician should verify that the new drive appears in the list of detected storage devices, confirm that the SATA port is enabled, and check for any settings that might prevent drive detection. If the drive appears in BIOS/UEFI but not in the operating system, this indicates the drive is functioning but needs initialization, partitioning, and formatting through Disk Management or similar OS utilities.

B) is incorrect because updating the operating system is unlikely to resolve an issue where a new hard drive is not appearing. Modern operating systems include drivers for standard SATA and IDE controllers, so driver issues are rare for basic storage connectivity. OS updates are time-consuming and do not address the most likely causes of the problem (BIOS/UEFI detection or disk initialization). This step would only be relevant if using unusual storage controllers or very new technology that requires updated drivers, which would be apparent from error messages or device manager warnings.

C) is incorrect because replacing the hard drive should not be the next step. This would be premature before completing software-based troubleshooting. The drive might be fully functional but simply require BIOS/UEFI configuration or operating system initialization. Replacing hardware without proper diagnosis wastes time and money. The drive should only be considered defective after verifying it does not appear in BIOS/UEFI, testing it in another system, or trying different cables and ports.

D) is incorrect because reinstalling the operating system is an extreme and unnecessary step for this issue. The operating system is functioning (since the computer boots normally), and the issue is specifically with detecting a newly added drive. Reinstalling the OS would not address BIOS/UEFI detection issues or disk initialization requirements. This drastic measure would result in data loss, require significant time for reinstallation and reconfiguration, and would not resolve the underlying issue if the drive is not being detected at the hardware level.

Question 163: 

Which of the following cable types is MOST commonly used to connect a modern external monitor to a laptop computer?

A) VGA

B) DVI

C) HDMI

D) DisplayPort

Answer: C

Explanation:

Display connectivity standards have evolved significantly over the years, progressing from analog signals to digital connections that support higher resolutions, faster refresh rates, and additional features such as audio transmission and device charging. Understanding current display connection standards is essential for supporting modern computing environments, particularly as laptops and external monitors increasingly utilize newer connection types while maintaining some backward compatibility with legacy standards.

Modern laptops and monitors have largely transitioned away from older analog and early digital standards toward connections that support high-definition video, audio, and additional functionality through a single cable. The most common display connections found on current devices reflect a balance between widespread adoption, technical capabilities, and backward compatibility. Consumer electronics manufacturers have increasingly converged on specific standards that provide the features required by modern displays while remaining compact enough for laptop integration.

HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface) has become the dominant display connection standard for consumer devices, including laptops, monitors, televisions, projectors, and gaming consoles. HDMI transmits both high-definition video and audio through a single cable, eliminating the need for separate audio connections. The widespread adoption of HDMI across consumer electronics, its relatively compact connector size suitable for laptops, and its support for features like HDCP (copy protection) for content streaming have made it the most common choice for laptop-to-monitor connections. Most modern laptops include at least one HDMI port, often in full-size or mini/micro variants.

A) is incorrect because VGA (Video Graphics Array) is a legacy analog display connection that has been largely phased out on modern laptops. VGA uses a 15-pin D-sub connector and transmits only analog video signals without audio support. While VGA was standard for decades, it has significant limitations including lower maximum resolution, signal degradation over distance, and lack of digital signal support. Most modern laptops no longer include VGA ports, though adapters are available for connecting to older displays. VGA is not the most common connection for modern equipment.

B) is incorrect because DVI (Digital Visual Interface) is an earlier digital display standard that has been superseded by HDMI and DisplayPort in modern devices. DVI provides digital video transmission but does not carry audio signals and uses a larger connector that is impractical for thin laptop designs. While DVI was common on desktop computers and monitors in the mid-2000s, it is rarely found on modern laptops. DVI exists in several variants (DVI-D, DVI-I, DVI-A) with different capabilities, adding complexity. Modern devices have largely abandoned DVI in favor of more capable and compact alternatives.

C) is correct because HDMI is the most commonly used cable type for connecting modern external monitors to laptop computers. HDMI’s widespread adoption, ability to transmit both video and audio, compact connector size, and support for high resolutions make it the standard choice for consumer devices. Most laptops manufactured in recent years include HDMI output, and most external monitors include HDMI input. The ubiquity of HDMI across laptops, monitors, televisions, and other devices has made it the default connection standard for most users.

D) is incorrect because although DisplayPort is technically superior to HDMI in many ways (supporting higher resolutions, refresh rates, and daisy-chaining), it is less common on consumer laptops and monitors compared to HDMI. DisplayPort is more frequently found on business laptops, high-end gaming laptops, and professional monitors, while HDMI remains the standard for mainstream consumer devices. USB-C ports with DisplayPort Alt Mode are becoming increasingly common, but traditional DisplayPort connectors are not the most prevalent connection type across all modern laptops. While DisplayPort usage is growing, HDMI currently maintains broader adoption in the consumer market.

Question 164: 

A user reports that their wireless connection keeps dropping intermittently. The user is located approximately 30 feet from the wireless access point with one wall in between. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A) Incorrect SSID

B) Signal interference

C) Disabled SSID broadcast

D) Incorrect encryption type

Answer: B

Explanation:

Wireless network connectivity issues can stem from various causes including configuration problems, hardware failures, environmental factors, and interference from other devices or networks. When troubleshooting wireless connectivity, it is essential to distinguish between issues that prevent connection entirely and those that cause intermittent disconnections. The symptoms, location, and environmental context provide crucial clues for identifying the root cause.

The scenario describes intermittent connection drops rather than complete inability to connect, which is an important distinction. The user can initially connect and maintain connection for periods of time before experiencing disconnections, then presumably can reconnect. This pattern suggests that authentication and configuration are correct (otherwise, connection would not be possible at all), but something is disrupting the signal quality or causing packet loss sufficient to drop the connection.

Signal interference is one of the most common causes of intermittent wireless connectivity issues. Wireless networks operate in shared frequency bands (2.4 GHz and 5 GHz) that are also used by numerous other devices and networks. The 2.4 GHz band, in particular, suffers from significant interference because it is used by many devices including other Wi-Fi networks, Bluetooth devices, cordless phones, microwave ovens, baby monitors, and wireless cameras. When multiple devices transmit on overlapping or adjacent channels, their signals interfere with each other, causing packet loss, reduced throughput, and connection instability. Physical obstacles like walls, floors, and metal objects also attenuate wireless signals, and at distances around 30 feet with obstacles, the signal may be weakened enough that intermittent interference causes disconnections.

A) is incorrect because an incorrect SSID (Service Set Identifier) would prevent the user from connecting to the wireless network in the first place. The SSID is the network name that identifies the wireless network. If configured incorrectly, the device would either not see the network or would be attempting to connect to a different network entirely. The user would not experience intermittent drops from an established connection; instead, they would be unable to establish a connection at all. The scenario indicates the user successfully connects but then experiences drops, ruling out SSID configuration as the cause.

B) is correct because signal interference is the most likely cause of intermittent wireless connection drops, especially in the described scenario with moderate distance and physical obstacles. At approximately 30 feet with a wall between the user and access point, the signal strength is likely marginal. Any additional interference from neighboring wireless networks, electronic devices, or physical obstructions can cause the signal quality to degrade below the threshold required for maintaining connection, resulting in disconnections. This issue could be resolved by repositioning the access point, switching to a less congested channel, using the 5 GHz band if available, or improving signal strength through additional access points or range extenders.

C) is incorrect because a disabled SSID broadcast would make the network invisible in the list of available networks but would not cause connection drops once connected. Users can still connect to networks with hidden SSIDs by manually entering the network name and credentials. Once connected, SSID broadcast settings have no effect on connection stability. If the user is experiencing intermittent drops from an established connection, SSID broadcast configuration is not the cause. This setting affects network visibility during the connection process, not ongoing connection maintenance.

D) is incorrect because an incorrect encryption type would prevent successful authentication and connection establishment. Wireless encryption (WEP, WPA, WPA2, WPA3) must match between the client device and access point for authentication to succeed. If the encryption type is misconfigured, the device would fail during the authentication phase and would not be able to establish a connection at all. The user would not experience periods of successful connection followed by drops. Since the scenario indicates the user successfully connects initially, the encryption type must be configured correctly.

Question 165: 

A technician needs to ensure that a sensitive file on a hard drive cannot be recovered after deletion. Which of the following methods should the technician use?

A) Move the file to the recycle bin

B) Empty the recycle bin

C) Use the format command

D) Use file shredding software

Answer: D

Explanation:

Understanding data deletion and recovery is crucial for both data security and privacy protection. Many users assume that deleting files removes them permanently from storage devices, but standard deletion methods do not actually erase data from the physical media. Instead, these methods simply mark storage space as available for reuse while leaving the original data intact until it is overwritten by new files. This means that deleted files can often be recovered using specialized data recovery software, which presents significant security risks when disposing of devices or protecting sensitive information.

When files are deleted through normal operating system processes, the file system simply removes the directory entry that points to the file’s location on the disk and marks those sectors as available for new data. The actual data remains in place until the operating system writes new files to those same physical locations. Even after formatting, much of the original data typically remains recoverable. Data recovery software works by scanning storage media for these remnants and reconstructing files from the orphaned data.

For sensitive files that must be completely unrecoverable, secure deletion methods are required. File shredding (also called secure erasure or wiping) involves overwriting the file’s data multiple times with random patterns or specific bit patterns before removing the directory entry. This process ensures that the original data is destroyed and cannot be recovered through any means, including forensic data recovery techniques. Various overwriting standards exist, including DoD 5220.22-M (three-pass overwrite) and Gutmann method (35-pass overwrite), though even single-pass overwrites with random data are generally sufficient for modern hard drives.

A) is incorrect because moving a file to the recycle bin does not delete it at all; it simply moves the file to a special folder on the same drive. Files in the recycle bin remain completely intact and can be restored to their original location with a simple click. This provides no security whatsoever for sensitive data, as anyone with access to the computer can view and restore recycle bin contents. The recycle bin is designed as a safety feature to prevent accidental deletion, not as a security mechanism.

B) is incorrect because emptying the recycle bin performs a standard deletion that only removes the file system references to the files while leaving the actual data on the drive. As explained above, this makes the sectors available for reuse but does not erase the data. Standard deletion operations are easily reversed using data recovery software, which can scan the drive for orphaned data and reconstruct deleted files. This method provides minimal security and is inappropriate for sensitive files.

C) is incorrect because the format command, even when performing a full format rather than a quick format, does not securely erase all data from a drive. Quick format only rebuilds the file system structure without touching the data. Full format additionally scans for bad sectors and may overwrite some data, but significant portions of the original data typically remain recoverable. Formatting is designed for preparing drives for reuse, not for secure data destruction. For secure deletion of individual files, formatting the entire drive would also be impractical and would destroy all other data.

D) is correct because file shredding software specifically addresses the need to make files unrecoverable. These applications overwrite the file’s data multiple times with random or specific patterns before deletion, ensuring that no trace of the original data remains. Popular file shredding utilities include Eraser, SDelete, and built-in secure deletion features in some operating systems. File shredding provides the highest level of security for deleted files and is the appropriate method when dealing with sensitive data that must not be recoverable.