CompTIA 220-1101 A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 10 Q 136-150
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Question 136:
A technician is troubleshooting a computer that is experiencing random shutdowns and blue screen errors. The technician checks the Event Viewer and notices multiple critical errors related to overheating. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST to resolve the issue?
A) Replace the power supply unit
B) Clean the internal components and verify proper airflow
C) Replace the motherboard
D) Update the BIOS firmware
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a computer experiences random shutdowns and blue screen errors accompanied by critical overheating errors in the Event Viewer, the first and most logical step is to address the thermal issues directly. Overheating is a common problem in computer systems that can lead to system instability, component damage, and frequent crashes. The technician should follow a systematic troubleshooting approach, starting with the simplest and most cost-effective solutions before moving to more complex and expensive interventions.
B) is the correct answer because cleaning the internal components and verifying proper airflow directly addresses the root cause identified in the Event Viewer, which is overheating. Over time, dust and debris accumulate inside computer cases, particularly on heat sinks, cooling fans, and air vents. This accumulation restricts airflow and reduces the cooling system’s efficiency, causing components like the CPU and GPU to overheat. By cleaning out the dust using compressed air, checking that all fans are functioning properly, ensuring thermal paste on the CPU is not dried out, and verifying that all air vents are unobstructed, the technician can often resolve overheating issues without replacing any components. This approach is cost-effective, quick, and directly targets the problem identified in the diagnostic logs.
A) is not the first step to take in this scenario. While a failing power supply can cause random shutdowns, the Event Viewer specifically indicates overheating as the issue, not power-related problems. A faulty PSU would typically show different symptoms and error messages. Replacing the power supply without first addressing the documented overheating issue would be premature and potentially wasteful, as it doesn’t address the actual problem. However, if cleaning and airflow verification don’t resolve the issue, checking the PSU could be a subsequent step.
C) is definitely not the first step and would be considered only after all other troubleshooting methods have been exhausted. Replacing the motherboard is an expensive and time-consuming solution that should only be considered when the motherboard itself is confirmed to be faulty. The symptoms described point to a thermal management issue rather than motherboard failure. Motherboard replacement should be a last resort after simpler solutions like cleaning, fan replacement, and thermal paste reapplication have been attempted.
D) is not the appropriate first step for addressing overheating issues. While updating the BIOS firmware can sometimes improve fan control algorithms and thermal management features, it doesn’t address the physical causes of overheating such as dust buildup and restricted airflow. BIOS updates carry some risk and should be performed only when necessary. In this case, since the Event Viewer clearly indicates overheating, the physical cooling system needs to be inspected and cleaned first before considering firmware updates.
Question 137:
A user reports that their laptop battery drains quickly even when the laptop is in sleep mode. Which of the following settings should a technician configure to extend battery life while the laptop is not in use?
A) Enable Fast Startup
B) Configure Hibernate instead of Sleep mode
C) Disable Wi-Fi adapter
D) Increase screen brightness timeout
Answer: B
Explanation:
Battery drain issues while a laptop is supposed to be in a low-power state are common complaints from users, and understanding the differences between various power states is essential for proper troubleshooting. Modern laptops have several power-saving modes including Sleep, Hibernate, and Hybrid Sleep, each with different levels of power consumption and resume times. When a user experiences significant battery drain during periods of inactivity, the technician needs to evaluate which power management settings are most appropriate for the user’s needs and usage patterns.
B) is the correct answer because configuring Hibernate instead of Sleep mode will dramatically reduce battery consumption when the laptop is not in use. In Sleep mode, the computer remains partially powered, maintaining RAM contents in a powered state so that the system can resume quickly. This means the system continues to draw power from the battery, albeit at a reduced rate, to keep the memory active. Over extended periods, this can lead to significant battery drain. In contrast, Hibernate mode saves the entire contents of RAM to the hard drive and then completely powers down the system, consuming virtually no battery power. When the user resumes from Hibernate, the system reads the saved state from the hard drive and restores it to RAM, allowing the user to continue exactly where they left off, but without any battery drain during the hibernation period. This makes Hibernate ideal for situations where the laptop will not be used for extended periods.
A) is not the solution to battery drain during sleep mode. Fast Startup is a Windows feature that combines elements of shutdown and hibernate to reduce boot times. It saves the kernel session and device drivers to the hibernation file during shutdown, allowing for faster startup times. However, Fast Startup doesn’t address battery consumption during sleep mode because it’s a feature that affects the boot process, not the power management behavior while the system is inactive. Enabling Fast Startup would not prevent battery drain when the laptop is in sleep mode.
C) while disabling the Wi-Fi adapter can reduce some power consumption during sleep mode, it is not the most effective solution to the problem. Modern laptops in sleep mode may keep certain components like Wi-Fi adapters in a low-power state to allow for features like Wake-on-LAN or to receive notifications. However, the primary source of battery drain in sleep mode is maintaining RAM in a powered state, not peripheral devices. Disabling Wi-Fi would provide only minimal battery savings compared to switching to Hibernate mode, and it would also disable useful connectivity features.
D) is completely irrelevant to the issue at hand. Screen brightness timeout settings control how long the display remains active when the laptop is being used, not when it’s in sleep mode. When a laptop enters sleep mode, the display is already turned off regardless of brightness timeout settings. Adjusting this setting would have no impact on battery consumption during sleep mode, though it could help extend battery life during active use.
Question 138:
A technician needs to configure a SOHO wireless router to use the MOST secure wireless encryption method available. Which of the following should the technician select?
A) WEP
B) WPA
C) WPA2
D) WPA3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Wireless security has evolved significantly over the years, with each generation of encryption protocols addressing vulnerabilities found in previous versions. For small office/home office environments, selecting the most secure wireless encryption method is crucial to protect sensitive data from unauthorized access, eavesdropping, and various network attacks. Understanding the differences between wireless security protocols and their respective strengths and weaknesses is essential for any IT professional responsible for network configuration and security.
D) is the correct answer because WPA3 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 3) is the most recent and secure wireless encryption standard available. Introduced in 2018, WPA3 addresses several vulnerabilities present in WPA2 and introduces significant security enhancements. WPA3 uses Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE), which replaces the Pre-Shared Key (PSK) authentication method used in WPA2, providing stronger protection against offline dictionary attacks and password-guessing attempts. WPA3 also implements Perfect Forward Secrecy, which ensures that even if an attacker captures encrypted traffic and later obtains the password, they cannot decrypt previously captured data.
A) represents the oldest and least secure option. WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) was introduced in 1997 and has been deprecated for many years due to severe security vulnerabilities. WEP uses the RC4 encryption algorithm with static encryption keys that can be cracked within minutes using readily available tools. The protocol has fundamental design flaws, including weak initialization vectors and inadequate key management. WEP should never be used in any modern network environment, as it provides virtually no real security against determined attackers. Many modern devices no longer even support WEP due to its known vulnerabilities.
B) was introduced in 2003 as an interim solution to address WEP’s security flaws while WPA2 was being finalized. WPA uses the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) for encryption, which was designed to work with existing WEP hardware through firmware updates. While WPA represented a significant improvement over WEP, it still has known vulnerabilities and has been superseded by more secure protocols. TKIP can be compromised through various attack methods, and WPA is no longer considered adequate for securing wireless networks. Modern networks should not rely on WPA for security.
C) was the standard for wireless security from 2004 until the introduction of WPA3 in 2018. WPA2 uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) with Counter Mode Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP), providing strong encryption for wireless communications. WPA2 has been widely adopted and is still considered reasonably secure when used with strong passwords. However, WPA2 is vulnerable to certain attacks, including the KRACK (Key Reinstallation Attack) vulnerability discovered in 2017, which allows attackers to intercept and decrypt wireless traffic under certain conditions. While WPA2 remains acceptable when WPA3 is not available, it is not the most secure option when given a choice.
Question 139:
A user’s smartphone is experiencing poor battery life and becoming hot to the touch during normal use. The user recently installed several new applications. Which of the following should a technician do FIRST to troubleshoot the issue?
A) Replace the battery
B) Check which applications are consuming the most battery power
C) Perform a factory reset
D) Update the operating system
Answer: B
Explanation:
When troubleshooting smartphone issues related to battery life and excessive heat generation, it’s essential to follow a logical diagnostic approach that starts with gathering information before taking any corrective action. Modern smartphones provide detailed battery usage statistics that can help identify problematic applications or system processes. Since the user mentioned recently installing several new applications, there’s a strong correlation suggesting that one or more of these apps might be causing the increased battery drain and heat generation. Understanding how to interpret battery usage data and identify resource-intensive applications is a fundamental skill for mobile device troubleshooting.
B) is the correct answer because checking which applications are consuming the most battery power is a non-invasive diagnostic step that can quickly identify the root cause of the problem. Both iOS and Android operating systems provide built-in battery usage statistics that show which apps are consuming the most power, how much time each app has been active in the foreground and background, and what percentage of battery drain each app is responsible for. By accessing these statistics (typically found in Settings under Battery or Battery Usage), the technician can determine if one or more of the recently installed applications are responsible for excessive battery consumption. Apps that consume abnormal amounts of battery power often do so because of background processes, poor coding, excessive network activity, constant GPS usage, or other resource-intensive operations. Once the problematic application is identified, the technician can take appropriate action such as adjusting the app’s permissions, limiting background activity, or uninstalling the app entirely. This diagnostic approach is quick, requires no special tools, and doesn’t risk data loss or system changes.
A) is premature and likely unnecessary at this stage of troubleshooting. While battery degradation can certainly cause reduced battery life, several factors suggest that a faulty battery is not the primary issue in this case. First, the problem coincides with the recent installation of new applications, indicating a software-related cause rather than hardware failure. Second, battery hardware failures typically manifest gradually over time as the battery ages and its capacity diminishes, not suddenly after installing apps. Third, replacing a smartphone battery is expensive, time-consuming, and may void warranties. Before resorting to hardware replacement, the technician should exhaust all software troubleshooting options. Battery replacement should only be considered after confirming through diagnostic tools that the battery’s health has significantly degraded and after ruling out software causes.
C) is an extreme measure that should be considered only as a last resort after all other troubleshooting steps have been exhausted. A factory reset will erase all user data, settings, installed applications, and personal files from the device, returning it to its original out-of-box state. While a factory reset would certainly remove any problematic applications causing battery drain, it’s a drastic step that requires complete data backup and reconfiguration of the device afterward. Since the technician hasn’t yet identified which specific application or process is causing the issue, performing a factory reset without first attempting simpler diagnostic and corrective measures would be inefficient and unnecessarily disruptive to the user. The principle of troubleshooting dictates starting with the least invasive methods and progressing to more drastic measures only when necessary.
D) while updating the operating system can sometimes improve battery life through optimizations and bug fixes, it’s not the appropriate first step in this troubleshooting scenario. Operating system updates should be kept current as part of regular maintenance, but they don’t directly diagnose the specific cause of the battery drain issue. Additionally, since the problem appeared after installing new applications, the operating system itself is less likely to be the culprit. Updates also carry some risk and can take significant time to complete. The technician should first identify which application is causing the excessive battery consumption before considering broader system changes like OS updates.
Question 140:
A technician is setting up a new workstation for a graphic designer. The user requires multiple high-resolution displays. Which of the following video connectors provides the HIGHEST bandwidth for connecting multiple 4K monitors?
A) HDMI 1.4
B) DisplayPort 1.4
C) DVI-D
D) VGA
Answer: B
Explanation:
When configuring workstations for graphics professionals who work with multiple high-resolution displays, understanding the capabilities and bandwidth limitations of different video connector standards is crucial. Video bandwidth determines the maximum resolution, refresh rate, and color depth that can be supported, as well as the ability to daisy-chain multiple monitors from a single port. As display technology has evolved toward higher resolutions like 4K (3840×2160) and beyond, the demands on video interfaces have increased dramatically. Different connector standards have varying capabilities in terms of bandwidth, and selecting the appropriate interface ensures optimal performance and prevents bottlenecks that could limit display quality or the number of monitors that can be connected.
B) is the correct answer because DisplayPort 1.4 offers the highest bandwidth among the options listed, making it the best choice for connecting multiple 4K monitors. DisplayPort 1.4, released in 2016, supports a maximum bandwidth of 32.4 Gbps, which is sufficient to drive multiple 4K displays at 60Hz with full color depth. One of DisplayPort’s most significant advantages is its support for Multi-Stream Transport (MST), which allows multiple monitors to be daisy-chained from a single DisplayPort output. With DisplayPort 1.4, a single port can support up to two 4K displays at 60Hz or one 8K display at 60Hz using Display Stream Compression (DSC). DisplayPort also supports higher refresh rates, HDR (High Dynamic Range), and advanced color spaces, making it ideal for professional graphics work where color accuracy and high resolution are critical. Additionally, DisplayPort connectors include a locking mechanism that prevents accidental disconnection, which is valuable in professional environments. The combination of high bandwidth, multi-display support, and advanced features makes DisplayPort 1.4 the superior choice for graphic design workstations requiring multiple high-resolution monitors.
A) while functional, does not provide sufficient bandwidth for the requirements described. HDMI 1.4, released in 2009, technically supports 4K resolution, but only at 30Hz refresh rate due to its bandwidth limitation of 10.2 Gbps. For professional graphics work, a 30Hz refresh rate is inadequate as it results in noticeable motion blur and an uncomfortable viewing experience that can cause eye strain. HDMI 1.4 cannot support multiple 4K displays at acceptable refresh rates, and it lacks the daisy-chaining capability of DisplayPort. While newer HDMI versions like HDMI 2.0 (18 Gbps) and HDMI 2.1 (48 Gbps) offer improved bandwidth, HDMI 1.4 specifically is not suitable for demanding multi-monitor setups with 4K displays. HDMI is commonly found on consumer electronics but is less optimal for professional graphics workstations requiring maximum bandwidth and flexibility.
C) is an older digital video interface that is completely inadequate for 4K displays. DVI-D (Digital Visual Interface — Digital) was developed in the late 1990s and became popular in the early 2000s as a successor to VGA. Even in its highest bandwidth configuration (Dual-Link DVI-D), it supports a maximum resolution of 2560×1600 at 60Hz, which falls significantly short of 4K resolution (3840×2160). DVI-D lacks the bandwidth necessary to drive even a single 4K monitor, let alone multiple displays. Additionally, DVI connectors are bulky, don’t carry audio signals, and are becoming increasingly rare on modern graphics cards and displays. DVI has been largely phased out in favor of HDMI and DisplayPort in contemporary systems.
D) is completely inappropriate for this application. VGA (Video Graphics Array) is an analog video interface that dates back to 1987 and was never designed for high-resolution digital displays. VGA’s analog nature makes it susceptible to signal degradation, especially over longer cable runs, resulting in image quality issues like blurriness and color inaccuracies. VGA typically supports maximum resolutions around 2048×1536, though image quality degrades significantly at higher resolutions. VGA cannot handle 4K resolution, doesn’t support digital signal transmission, and has no place in modern professional graphics workstations. It’s maintained primarily for legacy support of older equipment.
Question 141:
A company wants to ensure that all data stored on employee laptops is protected in case the devices are lost or stolen. Which of the following security features should be implemented?
A) BIOS password
B) Full disk encryption
C) Cable lock
D) Screensaver password
Answer: B
Explanation:
Data security on mobile devices like laptops is a critical concern for organizations, especially given the prevalence of data breaches and the potentially severe consequences of sensitive information falling into unauthorized hands. When laptops are lost or stolen, the primary risk is not the loss of the hardware itself, which can be replaced, but rather the exposure of confidential business data, customer information, intellectual property, and other sensitive materials stored on the device. Implementing appropriate security measures to protect data at rest is essential for compliance with data protection regulations like GDPR, HIPAA, and various industry-specific requirements. Organizations must evaluate different security technologies and select those that provide comprehensive protection against unauthorized data access.
B) is the correct answer because full disk encryption provides the most comprehensive protection for data stored on laptops in the event of loss or theft. Full disk encryption (FDE) works by encrypting the entire contents of the hard drive or solid-state drive, including the operating system, applications, and all user data. When FDE is properly implemented, the encryption key is tied to user authentication, typically through a pre-boot authentication password or TPM (Trusted Platform Module) integration. Without the correct credentials, the encrypted data is computationally infeasible to decrypt, rendering it inaccessible to anyone who gains physical possession of the device. Modern operating systems include built-in FDE solutions such as BitLocker for Windows, FileVault for macOS, and LUKS for Linux.
A) provides only limited protection and can be easily bypassed by determined attackers. A BIOS password (or UEFI password on modern systems) prevents unauthorized users from booting the computer or accessing BIOS settings without entering the correct password. While this adds a layer of security, it doesn’t actually encrypt or protect the data stored on the hard drive. An attacker who gains physical access to a laptop with only a BIOS password can simply remove the hard drive, connect it to another computer as a secondary drive, and access all the unencrypted data directly. BIOS passwords can also sometimes be reset using manufacturer backdoor methods, by removing the CMOS battery, or through hardware jumper manipulation. While BIOS passwords are useful as part of a defense-in-depth strategy, they should not be relied upon as the primary method of protecting data on lost or stolen devices.
C) is a physical security measure that prevents theft while the device is in a specific location but offers no protection once the device has been stolen. A cable lock, similar to a bicycle lock, physically secures the laptop to a desk or other fixed object using a steel cable and locking mechanism. This is useful in semi-public environments like offices, libraries, or conference rooms where the device might otherwise be left unattended and vulnerable to opportunistic theft. However, cable locks provide no protection for data in several scenarios: if the thief has sufficient time and tools to cut the cable, if the laptop is stolen while not locked (such as during transport), or if the entire object to which the laptop is secured can be moved. Most importantly, cable locks do nothing to protect the data stored on the device once it has been physically removed from the secured location. They are preventive rather than protective measures.
D) provides inadequate security for protecting data on lost or stolen devices. A screensaver password is a access control mechanism that activates after a period of user inactivity, requiring password authentication to resume work. While this is important for preventing unauthorized access when a user steps away from their device briefly, it offers no protection if the computer is powered off or restarted. An attacker who steals a laptop can simply restart the device and, if no additional security measures are in place, gain full access to the operating system and data. Screensaver passwords only protect against casual, opportunistic access during short periods of inactivity, not against determined attackers with physical possession of the device. Like BIOS passwords, screensaver passwords can be part of a comprehensive security strategy but should never be the sole protection mechanism for sensitive data.
Question 142:
A user reports that their computer makes a loud clicking noise and frequently freezes or displays error messages about being unable to read files. Which of the following hardware components is MOST likely failing?
A) Power supply
B) RAM
C) Hard disk drive
D) CPU fan
Answer: C
Explanation:
Diagnosing hardware failures requires understanding the typical symptoms associated with different component malfunctions. Computers communicate hardware problems through various symptoms including unusual noises, error messages, performance degradation, and system instability. Each hardware component has characteristic failure modes that produce specific symptoms, allowing technicians to narrow down the cause of problems efficiently. In this scenario, the combination of audible clicking noises and file-related errors provides strong diagnostic clues about which component is failing.
C) is the correct answer because the symptoms described—loud clicking noises combined with file read errors and system freezes—are classic indicators of a failing hard disk drive. Traditional mechanical hard drives contain spinning magnetic platters and a moving read/write head assembly that accesses data. When a hard drive begins to fail, the read/write heads may struggle to properly position themselves over the correct track on the platter, causing them to repeatedly attempt repositioning. This produces the distinctive clicking or ticking sound often called the «click of death» by technicians. This sound indicates mechanical failure of the head assembly, motor, or other internal components.
A) failures typically present with different symptoms than those described. A failing power supply unit might cause the computer to randomly shut down, fail to power on at all, restart unexpectedly, or exhibit general system instability. Power supply issues can also produce electrical noises like buzzing, humming, or coil whine, but these sounds are distinctly different from the rhythmic clicking described in the scenario. PSU problems generally don’t cause specific file-related error messages because the power supply doesn’t interact directly with data storage or file systems. If a PSU is severely failing, it might cause data corruption if power is lost during write operations, but this would be secondary to more obvious power-related symptoms. The clicking noise and file access errors point away from PSU failure.
B) failures produce different characteristic symptoms. When RAM fails or becomes unstable, users typically experience blue screen errors (BSODs), random application crashes, system freezes, corrupted display output, and failure to boot. Memory errors might produce system error messages, but these would be memory-related errors rather than file read errors. RAM failures don’t produce any audible clicking noises because RAM modules have no moving parts—they are solid-state devices consisting entirely of electronic components mounted on circuit boards. While faulty RAM can certainly cause system instability and freezing, the presence of clicking noises and specific file-related errors strongly suggests a mechanical drive issue rather than memory problems. RAM can be tested using diagnostic utilities like MemTest86 to identify errors.
D) failures would primarily manifest as overheating issues and associated symptoms. If the CPU fan fails or begins to fail, the processor temperature would rise, potentially triggering thermal throttling (where the CPU reduces its speed to prevent damage) or thermal shutdown (where the system powers off to protect the processor). Users might notice decreased performance, temperature warning messages, or unexpected shutdowns during intensive tasks. A failing fan might produce grinding, rattling, or squealing noises as bearings wear out, but these sounds are continuous or intermittent spinning noises, distinctly different from the rhythmic clicking associated with hard drive failure. CPU fan problems wouldn’t cause file-related errors or inability to read files, as the fan has no involvement in data storage or retrieval. Additionally, modern motherboards provide fan failure warnings through BIOS/UEFI monitoring systems.
Question 143:
A technician needs to configure a printer for a small office. The printer should be accessible to all users on the network without requiring a dedicated print server. Which of the following printer connection methods should be used?
A) USB connection to one workstation with printer sharing enabled
B) Integrated network interface card with TCP/IP configuration
C) Bluetooth connection to the nearest workstation
D) Parallel port connection to the office manager’s computer
Answer: B
Explanation:
Network printer configuration is a fundamental skill for IT technicians supporting small to medium-sized businesses. The method chosen for connecting and sharing a printer significantly impacts accessibility, performance, reliability, and management overhead. In office environments where multiple users need access to a single printer, the connection method must balance convenience, cost, and functionality. Different connection methods have varying advantages and limitations regarding the number of supported users, network dependence, setup complexity, and ongoing maintenance requirements.
B) is the correct answer because configuring the printer with an integrated network interface card and TCP/IP settings allows it to function as a standalone network device that all users can access directly without dependencies on other computers. Modern network printers contain built-in Ethernet ports or wireless network adapters that enable them to connect directly to the office network. By assigning the printer an IP address (either static or through DHCP reservation), it becomes a network resource that any authorized user can discover and use. This approach offers several significant advantages: the printer’s availability is independent of any workstation’s power state, users don’t experience performance impacts from print job processing on their computers, network traffic is optimized as print jobs go directly to the printer rather than through intermediary computers, centralized management is simplified through the printer’s web interface, and driver installation on client computers is straightforward.
A) is a less optimal solution that creates dependencies and potential problems. When a USB printer is connected to one workstation and shared via operating system print sharing features, that workstation essentially becomes a print server. This approach has several significant drawbacks: the host workstation must remain powered on and connected to the network for other users to access the printer, the host computer’s performance may be impacted when processing print jobs for multiple users, the user of the host workstation may experience interruptions or delays when others are printing, network print traffic flows through the host computer creating inefficiency, security settings and permissions on the host computer can complicate access for other users, and troubleshooting becomes more complex as problems could stem from the printer, the host computer, or network issues between computers.
C) is unsuitable for a shared office printer environment. Bluetooth is a short-range wireless technology designed primarily for connecting personal devices and peripherals within a range of approximately 30 feet under ideal conditions. Several factors make Bluetooth inappropriate for shared office printing: the limited range means users must be physically close to the host device, Bluetooth connections are typically point-to-point or limited to a small number of simultaneous connections, connection reliability can be affected by interference from other Bluetooth devices and physical obstacles, print job transmission speeds over Bluetooth are significantly slower than network or USB connections, and users would need to pair their devices individually with the printer which is cumbersome for multiple users. Bluetooth printing is best suited for mobile devices like smartphones and tablets printing to portable printers, not for shared office printing infrastructure.
D) is completely inappropriate for modern office environments. Parallel ports, also known as LPT (Line Print Terminal) ports, are legacy interfaces that were standard on computers and printers from the 1980s through the early 2000s but have been obsolete for many years. Modern computers typically don’t include parallel ports, and most current printers don’t offer parallel port connectivity. Like the USB sharing scenario, connecting a printer via parallel port to one computer requires that computer to remain on for others to access the printer through sharing, creating the same dependency issues but with the added disadvantages of ancient technology. Parallel cables are limited to very short distances (typically 6-10 feet maximum for reliable operation), data transfer rates are extremely slow compared to modern interfaces, and driver support for parallel port printers is diminishing. This option represents outdated technology that should not be implemented in any new installation.
Question 144:
A user contacts the help desk stating that their laptop will not power on. The technician confirms that the AC adapter LED is illuminated when plugged in. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A) Replace the motherboard
B) Test the laptop with a known-good battery and AC adapter
C) Reinstall the operating system
D) Replace the LCD screen
Answer: B
Explanation:
Troubleshooting laptop power issues requires a systematic approach that progresses from simple tests to more complex diagnostics, following the principle of checking the most likely and easily testable components before moving to more invasive or expensive solutions. When a laptop fails to power on, the issue could stem from several potential causes including the AC adapter, battery, power button, motherboard, or internal power regulation circuitry. Observing that the AC adapter LED is illuminated provides one data point—the adapter is receiving power—but doesn’t confirm that it’s delivering correct voltage to the laptop or that the laptop’s power circuitry is functioning properly.
B) is the correct answer because testing with known-good components is a fundamental troubleshooting technique that helps isolate the problem to specific hardware. Before reaching conclusions about more complex or expensive component failures, the technician should verify that the power supply components (AC adapter and battery) are functioning correctly. Even though the AC adapter LED is lit, this only confirms that the adapter itself is receiving power from the wall outlet, not that it’s producing the correct output voltage or that the laptop is receiving that power. AC adapters can fail partially, producing some output but insufficient voltage or current to power the laptop. The battery could also be completely depleted or failed, preventing the laptop from powering on even with the AC adapter connected.
A) is far too premature and represents an expensive solution being considered before basic troubleshooting has been completed. The motherboard is one of the most expensive laptop components to replace, and motherboard replacement effectively means replacing the core of the computer including the CPU, integrated graphics, memory slots, and all I/O connectivity. While motherboard failure could certainly prevent a laptop from powering on, there are many simpler, more common causes that should be investigated first. The symptoms described don’t provide definitive evidence of motherboard failure. Before considering motherboard replacement, the technician should test external power components, check for signs of physical damage, test the power button functionality, remove and reseat components like RAM and hard drive, attempt to boot with minimal configuration, listen for POST beeps, and check for any signs of life like fan spin, LED indicators, or display backlight. Jumping directly to motherboard replacement without performing these diagnostic steps violates basic troubleshooting methodology and could result in unnecessary expense if the actual problem is something simple like a failed AC adapter.
C) is completely irrelevant to the problem described. Reinstalling the operating system is a software-level solution that addresses issues with corrupted system files, malware infections, driver problems, or general system instability. However, operating system issues manifest after the computer has powered on, completed POST (Power-On Self-Test), and attempted to load the OS. If a laptop will not power on at all—meaning it shows no signs of life when the power button is pressed—the problem is definitively hardware-related, occurring before any software is involved.
D) is also irrelevant to the symptoms described. Replacing the LCD screen addresses display-related problems such as cracked screens, dead pixels, backlight failures, or display connection issues. However, when a user reports that a laptop «will not power on,» this typically means the laptop shows no response when the power button is pressed—no lights, no sounds, no fan activity. A failed LCD screen would not prevent the laptop from powering on; it would only prevent visual output. The technician could verify whether the laptop is actually powering on despite a dark screen by listening for fan noise, hard drive activity, or POST beeps, feeling for heat generation or vibration, connecting an external monitor, or looking for keyboard backlight illumination or other LED indicators. Since the preliminary assessment indicates no power-on response rather than just no display, screen replacement is not an appropriate next step. Additionally, LCD screens are expensive components that should only be replaced after definitive diagnosis of screen failure.
Question 145:
Which of the following cloud service models provides users with access to applications over the internet without needing to manage the underlying infrastructure?
A) IaaS
B) SaaS
C) PaaS
D) DaaS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding cloud service models is essential for modern IT professionals as organizations increasingly migrate their operations to cloud-based platforms. Cloud computing offers various service models that differ in terms of what is provided by the cloud vendor versus what remains the customer’s responsibility to manage. These models exist on a spectrum from complete infrastructure control to fully managed application services. The three primary cloud service models—Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Software as a Service (SaaS)—each serve different use cases and require different levels of technical management from the customer.
B) is the correct answer because Software as a Service provides users with access to complete applications running on cloud infrastructure, accessed typically through a web browser, without any requirement for users to manage servers, storage, networks, operating systems, or even the application software itself. In the SaaS model, the cloud provider handles all aspects of the infrastructure, platform, and application management including updates, security patches, availability, and scalability. Users simply access the application through the internet, typically via a subscription-based pricing model. Common examples of SaaS applications include Microsoft 365 (formerly Office 365), Google Workspace, Salesforce, Dropbox, Slack, and countless other web-based business applications. The key characteristic of SaaS is that users interact only with the application interface while the provider manages everything else.
A) provides a different level of service where customers rent fundamental computing resources but retain significant management responsibilities. Infrastructure as a Service offers virtualized computing resources including virtual machines, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources. In the IaaS model, customers have control over operating systems, storage, deployed applications, and potentially some networking components, but don’t manage the physical hardware. Examples include Amazon Web Services EC2, Microsoft Azure Virtual Machines, and Google Compute Engine. Customers are responsible for installing, configuring, and managing operating systems, middleware, runtime environments, and applications. While IaaS offers maximum flexibility and control, it also requires technical expertise to manage the infrastructure. This model is appropriate for organizations that want infrastructure flexibility without capital investment in physical hardware, but it doesn’t match the scenario described in the question because users must manage significant components rather than simply accessing ready-to-use applications.
C) occupies a middle ground between IaaS and SaaS. Platform as a Service provides a complete development and deployment environment in the cloud, including infrastructure, operating systems, middleware, development tools, and database management systems. PaaS is designed primarily for developers who want to build, test, and deploy applications without managing the underlying infrastructure or platform components. Examples include Microsoft Azure App Services, Google App Engine, and Heroku. In the PaaS model, developers focus on writing application code and managing their data while the platform provider handles servers, storage, networking, operating systems, databases, and middleware. PaaS accelerates application development by providing pre-configured environments and built-in services, but it’s fundamentally a development platform rather than end-user application delivery. Users of PaaS still need development skills and must create or deploy applications, which doesn’t match the scenario where users simply need access to applications without managing infrastructure.
D) is a specialized cloud service model but not one of the three primary models. Desktop as a Service provides virtual desktop infrastructure where users access complete desktop environments hosted in the cloud. DaaS delivers virtual desktops to end users over the internet, allowing them to access their desktop environment including operating system, applications, and data from any device. Examples include Amazon WorkSpaces, Microsoft Windows Virtual Desktop, and Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops. While DaaS does provide users with access to applications without managing infrastructure, it’s specifically focused on delivering complete desktop environments rather than individual applications. DaaS is a more specialized offering typically used for scenarios requiring mobile workforce support, contractor access, or disaster recovery capabilities. It doesn’t specifically describe the general model of accessing cloud applications mentioned in the question, making SaaS the more accurate answer to what the question is asking.
Question 146:
A technician is upgrading RAM in a desktop computer. After installing the new memory modules and powering on the system, the computer emits three short beeps and does not display anything on the screen. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) The RAM is not properly seated
B) The power supply is failing
C) The CPU is overheating
D) The hard drive has failed
Answer: A
Explanation:
Understanding POST (Power-On Self-Test) beep codes is critical for diagnosing hardware issues during computer startup. When a computer is powered on, the BIOS or UEFI firmware performs a series of diagnostic tests on essential hardware components before loading the operating system. If critical problems are detected during these tests, particularly issues that prevent video initialization, the system communicates errors through a series of audible beeps since visual error messages cannot be displayed. Different beep patterns indicate different hardware problems, and while specific patterns vary between BIOS manufacturers (Award, AMI, Phoenix), certain patterns are relatively standardized. Three short beeps is a classic beep code that typically indicates memory-related issues.
A) is the correct answer because improper RAM installation is the most common cause of three short beeps during POST. When the technician just installed new memory modules and immediately encountered this error, it strongly suggests an installation problem. RAM modules must be fully and properly seated in their slots to establish reliable electrical contact with the motherboard. If RAM modules are not pushed completely into their slots until the retention clips on both sides click into place, the system cannot reliably access the memory, resulting in POST failure. Even slight misalignment or incomplete insertion can cause this issue.
B) is unlikely to be indicated by three short beeps, and the timing makes this diagnosis improbable. Power supply failures typically manifest differently: the computer may fail to power on at all (no fans, no lights), may power on but immediately shut down, or may exhibit unstable behavior like random restarts or shutdowns. A failing PSU generally wouldn’t prevent memory from being detected, which is what three short beeps typically indicate. If the PSU were significantly degraded, the system likely wouldn’t progress far enough through POST to test memory and generate beep codes. Additionally, since the computer was presumably working before the RAM upgrade and the problem appeared immediately after installing new RAM, power supply failure is a less likely explanation than a problem related to the RAM installation itself.
C) is also an unlikely cause of three short beeps, and CPU overheating wouldn’t occur this quickly in the boot process. CPU overheating issues typically develop during system operation, particularly under load, rather than immediately upon powering on a cold system. When a CPU overheats, symptoms include system throttling (reduced performance), unexpected shutdowns during demanding tasks, or thermal protection mechanisms activating after the system has been running long enough for heat to build up. Modern processors include thermal protection that prevents damage by reducing clock speed or shutting down the system when temperatures reach dangerous levels, but these protections activate after the system has booted and is generating heat. At the moment of power-on, before POST completes, the CPU hasn’t generated significant heat. Additionally, CPU-related POST failures typically produce different beep codes than memory failures.
D) is completely unrelated to the symptoms described and would not cause three short beeps or prevent display initialization. Hard drive failures occur after POST completes successfully and the BIOS attempts to locate and load the operating system from storage. A failed or missing hard drive would allow the system to complete POST, display video output, and typically show an error message such as «Operating System Not Found,» «No Boot Device Available,» or similar text-based error messages on screen. The fact that nothing is displayed and the system generates beep codes indicates the problem occurs during POST, before any attempt to access storage devices. POST tests fundamental components necessary for basic operation (CPU, memory, video) before proceeding to peripheral devices like storage. The hard drive is not tested during early POST stages and its status doesn’t affect the beep code generation related to memory problems.
Question 147:
A user needs to transfer large video files between computers on a local network. Which of the following protocols would provide the FASTEST transfer speed?
A) FTP
B) SMB
C) HTTP
D) SMTP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding network protocols and their typical applications is essential for optimizing file transfer operations and network resource sharing. Different protocols were designed for different purposes, and while several protocols can technically be used for file transfers, they have varying levels of efficiency, overhead, and optimization for specific use cases. When transferring large files over a local network, protocol selection can significantly impact transfer speed due to differences in how protocols handle connections, encryption, authentication, and data transmission. The choice between protocols should consider factors such as raw transfer efficiency, compatibility with operating systems, ease of configuration, security requirements, and whether the use case involves local network or internet transfers.
B) is the correct answer because Server Message Block is specifically designed for efficient file sharing, printer sharing, and resource access within local area networks. SMB, also known as CIFS (Common Internet File System) in its earlier iterations, is the native file sharing protocol for Windows networks and is well-supported on all major operating systems including macOS and Linux through Samba implementation. SMB offers several advantages for local network file transfers: it’s optimized for LAN environments with features like opportunistic locking (oplocks) that improve performance by allowing local caching, it supports direct memory access and efficient buffer management, modern versions (SMB 3.0 and later) include multichannel support that can aggregate bandwidth from multiple network connections, it provides efficient handling of large files through features like large MTU support and minimal protocol overhead, and it integrates seamlessly with operating system file management allowing users to access network shares as if they were local drives.
A) is a viable file transfer protocol but generally provides slower transfer speeds in practice compared to SMB for local network transfers. File Transfer Protocol is an older internet protocol designed for transferring files between computers over TCP/IP networks. While FTP can certainly transfer large files and is widely supported, it has several characteristics that make it less efficient than SMB for local network file transfers: FTP requires running dedicated FTP server software and clients, adding configuration complexity and overhead; the protocol uses separate control and data connections which adds complexity; standard FTP performs authentication and can use encryption (FTPS, SFTP) which adds overhead; FTP was designed with internet transfers in mind rather than being optimized specifically for local network performance; and the user experience is less seamless, typically requiring dedicated FTP client software rather than integrated file manager access.
C) is designed for transmitting hypertext documents and web content, not optimized for efficient file transfers. HyperText Transfer Protocol is the foundation of data communication on the World Wide Web, designed primarily for requesting and delivering web pages, images, and other web resources. While HTTP can be used to download files (and is commonly used for internet downloads), it’s not optimized for the high-speed, sustained transfers typical of local network file sharing. HTTP adds protocol overhead for request headers, response headers, and other web-specific data that’s unnecessary for simple file transfer operations. While modern implementations (HTTP/2, HTTP/3) have improved efficiency, HTTP remains fundamentally designed for web content delivery scenarios rather than direct file sharing between computers on a local network.
D) is completely inappropriate for file transfer purposes and should never be used for this application. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol is designed specifically for sending and routing email messages between mail servers and from email clients to servers. SMTP’s purpose is email transmission, not file transfer. While files can be sent as email attachments, this approach is extremely inefficient and inappropriate for large video files: email systems typically impose size limits on messages (commonly 25MB to 50MB maximum), transferring large files through email requires encoding them (usually base64) which increases file size by approximately 33%, the transmission involves multiple intermediate mail servers rather than direct transfer, SMTP is not designed for the large data payloads typical of video files, and the process requires wrapping files in email message formats adding significant overhead.
Question 148:
A technician is troubleshooting a projector that displays a distorted image with incorrect colors. The technician has already verified the video cable is securely connected. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A) Replace the projector bulb
B) Test with a different video cable
C) Adjust the projector’s focus ring
D) Update the projector firmware
Answer: B
Explanation:
Troubleshooting display issues requires a methodical approach that systematically eliminates potential causes from most likely and easily tested to less common and more complex possibilities. When dealing with projector problems, issues can stem from the video source, cables and connections, projector settings, or projector hardware. The symptom of distorted image with incorrect colors suggests signal transmission problems rather than issues with the projector’s optical system or light source. Following good troubleshooting methodology means testing components in order of likelihood and accessibility, especially when dealing with intermittent or partial functionality.
B) is the correct answer because testing with a different video cable is the logical next step after verifying that existing cable connections are secure. While the technician confirmed the cable is securely connected, this only verifies that the cable isn’t loose or disconnected, not that the cable itself is functioning properly. Video cables, particularly VGA, DVI, and HDMI cables, can develop internal faults that cause signal degradation even when physically connected. Common cable problems include: internal wire breaks from repeated bending or stress, damaged connector pins that don’t make proper contact despite appearing connected, electromagnetic interference affecting signal quality in poorly shielded cables, or degraded connectors from oxidation or wear. These issues specifically cause the types of symptoms described—distorted images and incorrect colors—because individual signal conductors within the cable may be damaged. For example, in an analog VGA cable, if the red signal wire is damaged, the image will display without red color information.
A) would not address the specific symptoms described. Projector bulbs (lamps) do deteriorate over time and eventual replacement is normal maintenance, but lamp issues typically manifest differently than distorted images with incorrect colors. As projector bulbs age, they produce less light output, resulting in dimmer images, or they may develop hot spots or uneven illumination across the projected area. Severely degraded bulbs might cause color shifts as the spectral output changes, but this would affect overall color balance rather than producing the specific distortion and incorrect colors described. Additionally, most projectors include lamp life monitoring and will display warnings when the bulb approaches end of life. The symptoms described—distorted image with color problems—are characteristic of signal transmission issues rather than lamp degradation. Replacing the lamp is expensive and time-consuming, making it inappropriate as an early troubleshooting step when simpler, more likely causes haven’t been ruled out.
C) affects image sharpness but does not impact colors or signal integrity. The focus ring on a projector adjusts the optical focus of the lens system to ensure the projected image is sharp and clear at the given projection distance. Focus adjustments can make an image appear sharper or blurrier but cannot cause color abnormalities or image distortion of the type that suggests signal problems. A poorly focused projector produces a soft, blurry image where edges aren’t crisp, but colors remain accurate and the image structure is intact. The symptoms described—distortion and incorrect colors—indicate signal or processing problems rather than optical focus issues. While checking and adjusting focus is part of proper projector setup, it’s not relevant to troubleshooting the color and distortion problems in this scenario. Focus adjustments should be made after confirming the projector is receiving a good signal and displaying properly.
D) is an unnecessarily complex step that should be considered only after eliminating common hardware issues. Firmware updates for projectors can address bugs, improve compatibility with certain signal types, or add features, but firmware problems rarely cause the specific symptoms described. If a projector’s firmware were genuinely problematic, it would likely manifest as consistent, reproducible issues rather than distorted images with color problems that suggest signal integrity issues. Firmware updates carry some risk—if interrupted or performed incorrectly, they can render a projector inoperable, requiring manufacturer service. Therefore, firmware updates should only be performed when necessary, typically when addressing known bugs that match specific symptoms or when adding required functionality.
Question 149:
Which of the following is the MAXIMUM data transfer rate for USB 3.0?
A) 480 Mbps
B) 5 Gbps
C) 10 Gbps
D) 20 Gbps
Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding USB (Universal Serial Bus) specifications and their evolution is fundamental knowledge for IT professionals, as USB has become the dominant interface for connecting peripherals to computers. The USB standard has evolved through multiple generations, each offering significant improvements in data transfer rates, power delivery capabilities, and functionality. Knowing the maximum data transfer rates for different USB versions is essential for selecting appropriate devices, cables, and host controllers, for setting proper user expectations regarding transfer speeds, and for troubleshooting performance issues when transfers are slower than expected.
B) is the correct answer because USB 3.0, also marketed as SuperSpeed USB, has a maximum theoretical data transfer rate of 5 gigabits per second (Gbps). USB 3.0 was released in 2008 and represented a major advancement over USB 2.0, offering ten times the bandwidth of its predecessor. This significant speed increase made USB 3.0 suitable for connecting high-bandwidth devices such as external hard drives, solid-state drives, and high-resolution webcams, enabling transfer speeds that could approach or exceed typical hard drive performance. In practical real-world usage, USB 3.0 devices typically achieve effective transfer rates of approximately 400-500 megabytes per second (MB/s), accounting for protocol overhead and other factors that prevent achieving the theoretical maximum. USB 3.0 introduced several technical improvements beyond just speed including improved power management, increased power delivery (up to 900mA compared to 500mA for USB 2.0), full-duplex data transmission allowing simultaneous bidirectional data transfers, and backward compatibility with USB 2.0 devices.
A) represents the maximum data transfer rate for USB 2.0, not USB 3.0. USB 2.0, released in 2000, offered a significant improvement over USB 1.1 with its maximum rate of 480 megabits per second (Mbps), often marketed as «Hi-Speed USB.» For over a decade, USB 2.0 was the dominant USB standard and remains widely used today for devices that don’t require high bandwidth, such as keyboards, mice, and other input devices. However, 480 Mbps (approximately 60 MB/s in practical terms) proved insufficient for high-capacity storage devices and other bandwidth-intensive applications as technology advanced, leading to the development of USB 3.0. While USB 2.0 continues to be supported for backward compatibility, its lower transfer rate makes it unsuitable for modern applications requiring fast data transfer.
C) represents the maximum data transfer rate for USB 3.1 Gen 2 (later renamed USB 3.2 Gen 2), not USB 3.0. The USB-IF (USB Implementers Forum) introduced USB 3.1 in 2013, which included two modes: USB 3.1 Gen 1, which was essentially USB 3.0 renamed with the same 5 Gbps speed, and USB 3.1 Gen 2, which doubled the bandwidth to 10 Gbps. This doubling of speed was marketed as SuperSpeed+ USB. The naming conventions around USB 3.x versions became increasingly confusing as the USB-IF repeatedly renamed specifications, but the key distinction is that USB 3.0 specifically operates at 5 Gbps, while the 10 Gbps speed belongs to later generations.
D) represents the maximum data transfer rate for USB 3.2 Gen 2×2, an even newer specification that’s not related to USB 3.0. USB 3.2 Gen 2×2, introduced in 2017, achieves 20 Gbps by using both sets of differential pairs in a USB Type-C cable simultaneously, effectively doubling the 10 Gbps rate of USB 3.1 Gen 2. This specification requires USB Type-C connectors and cables specifically designed to support the multi-lane operation. Even newer is USB4, released in 2019, which offers speeds up to 40 Gbps and incorporates Thunderbolt 3 specifications. While these newer standards offer impressive performance, they’re distinct from USB 3.0.
Question 150:
A user reports that their wireless mouse is not responding. The technician confirms the mouse is turned on and the batteries are good. Which of the following should the technician check NEXT?
A) Update the mouse driver software
B) Verify the wireless receiver is properly connected to the computer
C) Replace the mouse
D) Check for wireless interference from other devices
Answer: B
Explanation:
Troubleshooting peripheral device issues requires methodical testing of connections, power, drivers, and potential interference sources. Wireless mice operate using radio frequency (RF) or Bluetooth technology to communicate between the mouse and a receiver connected to the computer. When a wireless mouse stops responding, the problem could involve the mouse itself, its batteries, the wireless receiver, the connection between them, driver software, or environmental interference. Following proper troubleshooting methodology means checking physical connections and basic functionality before investigating more complex software or environmental factors.
B) is the correct answer because verifying that the wireless receiver is properly connected is the next logical troubleshooting step after confirming the mouse is powered on and has good batteries. Wireless mice typically use a small USB receiver dongle that plugs into the computer’s USB port. This receiver can become loose, partially disconnected, or completely unplugged through normal computer use, accidental bumps, or when connecting other USB devices. Even if the receiver was previously connected, it should be checked because: USB connections can work loose over time, especially in frequently used ports; the receiver may have been accidentally removed when connecting other USB devices; USB port issues or dust/debris accumulation can prevent proper connection; or the receiver may have been inserted into a malfunctioning USB port.
A) is a reasonable troubleshooting step but comes later in the diagnostic sequence. Mouse drivers can occasionally become corrupted or outdated, potentially causing functionality issues, but driver problems typically manifest differently than complete non-responsiveness. Driver issues might cause erratic behavior, missing functionality, or system messages about unrecognized devices rather than total failure to respond. Additionally, most wireless mice use generic HID (Human Interface Device) drivers built into the operating system, which rarely fail spontaneously. Before investigating driver issues, the technician should verify that the hardware connection is intact and that the wireless communication between mouse and receiver is functioning. If basic physical checks don’t resolve the issue, then updating or reinstalling mouse drivers becomes a more appropriate step.
C) is premature and represents an unnecessary expense when other troubleshooting steps haven’t been completed. Replacing the mouse should be considered only after all other diagnostic steps have been exhausted and the mouse is confirmed to be defective. The scenario states that the technician has confirmed the mouse is turned on and has good batteries, but hasn’t yet verified the receiver connection, tested for interference, checked pairing status, or attempted driver updates. Many situations that appear to be mouse failures are actually issues with receivers, connections, pairing, or software that can be resolved without replacement. Wireless mice are relatively inexpensive, but unnecessary replacement wastes resources and doesn’t develop proper troubleshooting skills.
D) is a valid consideration but should be checked after more fundamental issues have been ruled out. Wireless interference can indeed affect wireless mouse operation, particularly if the mouse operates on the 2.4 GHz frequency band, which is shared with Wi-Fi networks, Bluetooth devices, cordless phones, microwave ovens, and other wireless peripherals. Interference can cause intermittent connectivity, reduced range, or erratic cursor movement, though complete non-responsiveness is less typical unless interference is severe. Before investigating interference, the technician should first confirm that the basic hardware connections are intact, because a disconnected receiver is a more common and immediately fixable cause than interference. If physical connections are verified and the issue persists, then checking for interference becomes appropriate.