CompTIA 220-1101 A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 15 Q 211-225
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Question 211
A technician is troubleshooting a desktop computer that randomly restarts without warning. The technician suspects a hardware issue. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) Corrupted operating system files requiring a clean installation
B) Insufficient RAM causing the system to crash and reboot
C) An overheating CPU due to a faulty cooling solution or blocked airflow
D) Outdated BIOS firmware that needs updating
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C) An overheating CPU due to a faulty cooling solution or blocked airflow. Random restarts are a classic symptom of thermal throttling and shutdown protection activated by the system BIOS when CPU temperatures exceed safe thresholds. When a processor overheats, the motherboard’s monitoring system will force an immediate shutdown to prevent permanent hardware damage. This can be caused by a failed CPU cooler, dried thermal paste between the CPU and heatsink, dust accumulation blocking airflow, or a malfunctioning case fan. Random restarts are one of the most reliable indicators of thermal issues in a computer system. A technician should check CPU temperatures using monitoring software, inspect the cooler for proper installation, and verify that fans are spinning correctly. Cleaning internal components and reapplying thermal paste often resolves this issue. Option A) is incorrect because corrupted OS files typically cause system crashes, error messages, or failure to boot, not random restarts. Option B) is incorrect because insufficient RAM causes system slowdowns, application crashes, and data loss, but not the characteristic random restart pattern seen with thermal issues. Option D) is incorrect because outdated BIOS firmware rarely causes random restarts unless there is a specific known issue documented by the manufacturer.
Question 212
Which of the following storage devices would provide the FASTEST read and write speeds for a high-performance workstation?
A) 7200 RPM SATA hard drive
B) NVMe SSD using PCIe 4.0 interface
C) USB 3.0 external hard drive
D) SATA SSD with AHCI mode enabled
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B) NVMe SSD using PCIe 4.0 interface. NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) SSDs connected via PCIe 4.0 deliver significantly faster speeds than all other consumer storage options. PCIe 4.0 NVMe drives can achieve read and write speeds exceeding 7000 MB/s, compared to SATA SSDs which are limited to approximately 550 MB/s due to SATA bandwidth limitations. NVMe bypasses the SATA controller entirely and communicates directly with the system via the PCIe interface, eliminating a significant performance bottleneck. For high-performance workstations handling large files, video editing, 3D rendering, or data analysis, NVMe storage is essential. The performance difference is dramatic when transferring large files or loading massive datasets. Option A) is incorrect because mechanical hard drives with 7200 RPM typically achieve speeds of only 100-150 MB/s, making them extremely slow compared to solid-state solutions. Option C) is incorrect because USB 3.0 drives are limited by USB bandwidth to approximately 400 MB/s and are designed for portability rather than performance. Option D) is incorrect because while SATA SSDs are much faster than mechanical drives, they are still limited by the SATA interface bandwidth and cannot match NVMe performance.
Question 213
A user reports that their wireless mouse keeps disconnecting intermittently. The mouse uses a 2.4 GHz wireless dongle receiver. What is the FIRST troubleshooting step the technician should perform?
A) Replace the wireless mouse batteries and move the receiver closer to the mouse
B) Check for interference from other 2.4 GHz devices like microwaves or routers
C) Update the wireless mouse driver from the manufacturer’s website
D) Reinstall the operating system to resolve device driver conflicts
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A) Replace the wireless mouse batteries and move the receiver closer to the mouse. When troubleshooting wireless peripheral disconnection issues, the simplest potential causes should always be investigated first following the troubleshooting hierarchy. Low battery voltage in wireless mice is an extremely common cause of intermittent disconnections because the transmitter requires sufficient power to maintain a stable signal with the receiver. Batteries gradually lose voltage over time, causing weak transmission that becomes unreliable, especially at greater distances or with obstacles between the mouse and receiver. Replacing batteries with fresh ones is a quick, inexpensive test that resolves the majority of wireless mouse problems. Additionally, moving the receiver closer to the mouse can immediately improve signal strength and determine if the issue is range-related. This is a zero-cost troubleshooting step that takes seconds to perform. Option B) is incorrect as the first step because while interference from microwave ovens, Wi-Fi routers, and cordless phones on the 2.4 GHz band can cause disconnections, this is a secondary consideration after confirming the device itself is functioning properly. Option C) is incorrect because driver updates rarely resolve intermittent connectivity issues with wireless mice; the problem is typically hardware-related. Option D) is completely impractical and unnecessary, as reinstalling the operating system is an extreme measure that would not resolve hardware-level wireless signal problems.
Question 214
A technician needs to connect a legacy parallel port printer to a modern computer that only has USB ports. Which of the following solutions would be MOST appropriate?
A) Use a parallel port to USB adapter cable
B) Install a legacy parallel port card in an available PCIe slot
C) Replace the printer with a modern USB-compatible model
D) Use a USB to serial port adapter instead
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A) Use a parallel port to USB adapter cable. A parallel to USB adapter cable is the most practical, cost-effective, and straightforward solution for connecting legacy parallel port devices to modern computers. These adapters contain the necessary electronics to translate the parallel protocol signals into USB signals, allowing the legacy printer to communicate with the host computer through a USB port. The adapter is typically plug-and-play, requiring minimal configuration, and most modern operating systems recognize it automatically. This solution preserves the existing printer investment while enabling compatibility with contemporary hardware. The adapter is inexpensive, typically costing between twenty and fifty dollars, and requires no physical modifications to the computer. Option B) is incorrect because parallel port expansion cards for PCIe slots are extremely difficult to find in the modern market, often cost more than new printers, and require driver installation that may not be supported on current operating systems like Windows 11. Option C), while sometimes practical, is not the most appropriate immediate solution if the legacy printer is still functional and meets the user’s needs. Option D) is incorrect because USB to serial adapters are designed for serial port devices, not parallel port devices, and would not function with a parallel printer.
Question 215
Which of the following RAM types would be appropriate for a modern laptop computer manufactured in 2024?
A) DDR2 SDRAM in 200-pin SODIMM form factor
B) DDR4 SDRAM in 260-pin SODIMM form factor
C) DDR5 SDRAM in 262-pin SODIMM form factor
D) DDR3 SDRAM in 204-pin SODIMM form factor
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C) DDR5 SDRAM in 262-pin SODIMM form factor. Modern laptops manufactured in 2024 predominantly utilize DDR5 memory in the SODIMM (Small Outline Dual In-Line Memory Module) form factor designed for notebook computers. DDR5 represents the latest generation of memory technology, offering significant performance improvements over previous generations with speeds starting at 4800 MHz and higher. The 262-pin configuration is the current standard for DDR5 SODIMM modules. DDR5 memory provides approximately double the bandwidth of DDR4, enabling faster data transfer rates and improved multitasking performance. Many flagship laptop models transitioned to DDR5 starting in 2022 and 2023, with widespread adoption becoming standard by 2024. Option A) is incorrect because DDR2 is obsolete technology from the mid-2000s and is incompatible with modern laptop motherboards and chipsets. Option B) is incorrect because while DDR4 SODIMM modules were standard in laptops from approximately 2015 to 2022, most new 2024 models have moved to DDR5. Option D) is incorrect because DDR3 SODIMM was used in laptops from approximately 2007 to 2015 and is no longer compatible with modern systems.
Question 216
A user’s monitor displays only a black screen after powering on, but the indicator light shows the monitor is receiving power. What should the technician check FIRST?
A) Replace the monitor’s power supply unit
B) Verify the video cable connection between the monitor and computer
C) Update the graphics card drivers on the computer
D) Test the monitor on a different computer to isolate the issue
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B) Verify the video cable connection between the monitor and computer. When a monitor powers on but displays no image, the first troubleshooting step should always be to check the physical connection between the monitor and the computer’s graphics output. Video cables can become loose due to vibration, accidental disconnection, or improper seating in the connector. This is the simplest and most common cause of no-display issues. The technician should inspect both ends of the video cable, ensuring it is fully inserted into both the monitor’s input port and the computer’s graphics output port (HDMI, DisplayPort, DVI, or VGA depending on the equipment). The cable should click audibly when properly seated in most connectors. If the cable appears loose, the technician should disconnect and reconnect it firmly to ensure proper contact. This single step resolves the majority of black-screen issues and costs nothing. Option A) is premature because the monitor is receiving power as evidenced by the illuminated indicator light, suggesting the power supply is functioning correctly. Option C) is incorrect because driver issues would not cause a complete absence of video output before the operating system loads; the problem would manifest after boot. Option D), while useful for diagnosis, should not be the first step because it is more time-consuming than checking the cable connection.
Question 217
Which of the following would be the BEST way to securely dispose of sensitive company data from a decommissioned SSD?
A) Delete all files and empty the recycle bin
B) Format the drive using the file system’s quick format option
C) Use a degaussing tool or degaussing service designed for solid-state drives
D) Use specialized SSD wiping software that performs multiple overwrite passes
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D) Use specialized SSD wiping software that performs multiple overwrite passes. Solid-state drives require specific secure erasure methods because their architecture is fundamentally different from magnetic hard drives. SSDs use flash memory with wear-leveling algorithms that distribute data across multiple physical locations to extend the drive’s lifespan. Traditional methods like formatting or simple deletion leave data recoverable through forensic techniques. Specialized SSD wiping software, such as the manufacturer’s secure erase utility or third-party solutions like DBAN with SSD support, performs the ATA Secure Erase command or equivalent multi-pass overwrite protocols specifically designed for flash memory. These tools communicate directly with the SSD controller and ensure all data locations are properly sanitized. This method is secure, reliable, and recommended by government standards like NIST guidelines. Many SSD manufacturers provide free secure erase utilities for their specific drives. Option A) is completely inadequate because deletion and emptying the recycle bin does not actually remove data from the drive; it merely removes the file system references, leaving the data intact and easily recoverable with forensic tools. Option B) is similarly ineffective because quick formatting only removes file system metadata and leaves the actual data on the drive vulnerable to recovery. Option C) is incorrect because degaussing (using strong magnetic fields) is designed for magnetic hard drives and has no effect on SSDs, which use non-magnetic flash memory technology.
Question 218
A technician notices that a computer’s BIOS time is consistently incorrect, showing a date two years in the past. Which component is MOST likely failing?
A) The motherboard’s CPU
B) The CMOS battery on the motherboard
C) The system RAM modules
D) The power supply unit
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B) The CMOS battery on the motherboard. The CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor) battery is a small, coin-cell battery (typically CR2032) soldered to the motherboard that provides power to the CMOS chip when the computer is powered off. This battery maintains critical system settings including the real-time clock (RTC), BIOS settings, and boot order information. When the CMOS battery begins to fail or depletes, the system loses track of the correct date and time because the RTC cannot maintain accurate timekeeping without continuous power. The date progressively drifting backward or showing an incorrect date far in the past is a classic indicator of CMOS battery depletion. A failed CMOS battery is among the most common causes of time-related issues in computers. Replacing the CMOS battery typically costs only five to fifteen dollars and can be accomplished by any technician with basic tools. The new battery immediately restores accurate time tracking. Option A) is incorrect because CPU failure would cause system crashes, boot failures, or complete non-functionality, not simply incorrect time. Option C) is incorrect because faulty RAM causes system crashes, data corruption, and error messages, not time-related issues. Option D) is incorrect because power supply unit failure would prevent the computer from powering on at all, not cause time inaccuracies.
Question 219
What is the PRIMARY purpose of implementing RAID 1 on a server?
A) To increase storage capacity by combining multiple drives into one logical volume
B) To improve read and write performance through parallel data processing
C) To provide redundancy through disk mirroring, ensuring data availability if one drive fails
D) To reduce the cost of storage infrastructure by using lower-capacity drives
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C) To provide redundancy through disk mirroring, ensuring data availability if one drive fails. RAID 1 (Redundant Array of Independent Disks Level 1) creates an exact duplicate copy of data across two or more drives simultaneously. Every write operation is performed on all mirrored drives, ensuring that if one drive fails catastrophically, all data remains intact and accessible from the remaining functional drive without any downtime. This redundancy is critical for servers and systems where data availability is paramount. RAID 1 offers the highest level of fault tolerance among RAID configurations because the system can continue operating with a single drive failure. If a drive fails, the administrator can replace it while the system continues running on the mirrored copy. Once the replacement drive is installed, the RAID controller automatically resynchronizes the data. RAID 1 is commonly implemented in mission-critical servers, database systems, and backup systems where any data loss would be catastrophic. Option A) is incorrect because RAID 1 does not increase usable storage capacity; instead, it uses fifty percent of total physical storage for redundancy, reducing available capacity. Option B) is incorrect because RAID 1 provides some performance benefits on read operations but does not significantly improve write performance since writes must occur on all mirrored drives. Option D) is incorrect because RAID 1 actually increases infrastructure costs by requiring double the number of drives compared to non-redundant storage.
Question 220
A technician is configuring a new workstation and needs to choose between SATA and NVMe storage. For a standard office productivity workstation, which storage type would be MOST cost-effective?
A) NVMe SSD because it is the newest technology and provides future-proofing
B) SATA SSD because it provides adequate performance for office tasks at lower cost than NVMe
C) 7200 RPM SATA HDD because mechanical drives are more reliable for office use
D) Hybrid SSD-HDD because it balances performance and cost
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B) SATA SSD because it provides adequate performance for office tasks at lower cost than NVMe. For standard office productivity work involving email, web browsing, document editing, spreadsheets, and presentations, SATA SSD drives offer an excellent balance between performance and cost. SATA SSDs provide dramatically faster boot times and application loading compared to mechanical hard drives, significantly improving the user experience without the premium cost of NVMe drives. SATA SSDs currently cost approximately thirty to forty percent less than comparable NVMe SSDs while still delivering fast enough performance for office applications. A typical 256 GB or 512 GB SATA SSD provides sufficient storage for office work with excellent responsiveness and reliability. The performance difference between SATA and NVMe is negligible for office applications since office software rarely requires the extreme bandwidth NVMe provides. SATA SSDs represent the most practical choice for cost-conscious organizations deploying multiple workstations. Option A) is incorrect because while NVMe is future-proof, it represents unnecessary expense for office workstations where the performance advantage cannot be utilized. Option C) is incorrect because mechanical hard drives have become obsolete for workstations due to slower performance, higher failure rates, and increased failure recovery time. Option D) is incorrect because hybrid drives combine the disadvantages of both technologies and are no longer recommended now that SSDs have become affordable.
Question 221
Which of the following best describes the function of a power supply unit’s 24-pin ATX connector?
A) It provides power exclusively to the CPU and its associated voltage regulators
B) It supplies primary power to the motherboard and its various components
C) It delivers power only to external USB and SATA devices connected to the motherboard
D) It powers the computer’s graphics card through the motherboard connection
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B) It supplies primary power to the motherboard and its various components. The 24-pin ATX connector is the main power connector that delivers power from the power supply unit to the motherboard. This connector provides power to the motherboard’s chipset, RAM slots, integrated circuits, USB headers, SATA controllers, and other integrated motherboard subsystems. The 24-pin connector is the largest and most prominent power connector in modern ATX standard computers. Without this connection, the motherboard cannot function at all. The 24-pin ATX connector typically carries power rails including 3.3V, 5V, 12V, and ground, with multiple pins dedicated to each voltage to distribute current loads. Modern ATX specifications standardize this connector, ensuring compatibility across different manufacturers’ power supplies and motherboards. The 24-pin connector must be firmly seated to ensure reliable power delivery and system stability. Option A) is incorrect because CPU power is delivered through a separate 4-pin or 8-pin connector located near the processor socket, not the 24-pin ATX connector. Option C) is incorrect because USB and SATA device power is managed through the motherboard after receiving primary power through the 24-pin connector. Option D) is incorrect because dedicated graphics cards receive power through their own PCIe connectors, not through the motherboard’s 24-pin connector.
Question 222
A technician is planning to upgrade a computer’s cooling system because CPU temperatures are too high. Which of the following cooling solutions would provide the BEST cooling performance in a high-performance gaming rig?
A) Stock CPU cooler that came with the processor
B) Liquid cooling system with multiple radiators and fans
C) Passive heatsink with no moving parts
D) Simple tower air cooler with a single 92mm fan
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B) Liquid cooling system with multiple radiators and fans. Liquid cooling systems deliver significantly superior thermal performance compared to air-based solutions, making them the optimal choice for high-performance gaming systems where CPU temperatures are problematic. Liquid cooling works by circulating cooled liquid (typically water-based coolant) through a waterblock attached directly to the CPU. Heat from the CPU is absorbed by the liquid and transported to a radiator where fans dissipate the heat into the surrounding air. This approach is far more efficient than air cooling because liquid has approximately four times the thermal conductivity of air, allowing much more heat to be transferred away from the processor. Multiple radiators and high-speed fans in a liquid cooling system enable extreme heat dissipation, maintaining lower CPU temperatures even under demanding gaming workloads. Gamers pushing their systems with overclocking and intensive 3D rendering benefit tremendously from liquid cooling’s superior heat removal capability. Modern liquid cooling systems are reliable, relatively leak-free, and available from reputable manufacturers like Corsair, NZXT, and others. Option A) is incorrect because stock coolers provided with processors are designed for baseline thermal loads and are typically inadequate for high-performance gaming applications. Option C) is incorrect because passive heatsinks without fans cannot dissipate sufficient heat for gaming rigs and would result in thermal throttling. Option D) is suboptimal because while tower air coolers are better than stock coolers, they cannot match the thermal performance of liquid cooling systems.
Question 223
Which of the following expansion slots found in modern motherboards provides the FASTEST data transfer speeds?
A) PCI (Peripheral Component Interconnect)
B) PCIe 5.0 (PCI Express 5.0)
C) PCIe 3.0 (PCI Express 3.0)
D) PCI-X
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B) PCIe 5.0 (PCI Express 5.0). PCIe 5.0 is the current generation PCI Express standard, providing dramatically faster data transfer speeds than all other consumer expansion slot technologies. PCIe 5.0 achieves speeds of up to 32 GB/s in x16 configuration (the standard width for graphics cards), representing double the bandwidth of PCIe 4.0 which provides 16 GB/s. This massive bandwidth is essential for next-generation graphics cards, high-speed NVMe SSDs, and advanced network interface cards that demand maximum throughput. PCIe 5.0 motherboards were introduced in 2022 and have become standard in premium and enthusiast platforms. The faster speeds enable better performance for demanding applications including 4K video editing, 3D rendering, machine learning, and extreme gaming at high resolutions. PCIe 5.0 is backward compatible with older PCIe cards, though older cards will operate at their specified speeds. Option A) is incorrect because the original PCI standard, developed in 1992, provides only 133 MB/s maximum throughput and is completely obsolete. Option C) is incorrect because while PCIe 3.0 was an excellent standard during 2013-2019, it only provides 8 GB/s bandwidth and is no longer considered fast by modern standards. Option D) is incorrect because PCI-X was a server-focused extension of PCI and provided minimal performance improvements compared to PCIe.
Question 224
A user reports that their computer is running extremely slowly and frequently freezes. The technician suspects a failing hard drive. Which of the following diagnostic tools would be MOST appropriate to confirm this?
A) Use CPU-Z to check processor specifications and temperatures
B) Use disk diagnostic software like CrystalDiskInfo to check S.M.A.R.T. status and health
C) Run a RAM memory test using MemTest86
D) Check Event Viewer for system errors and warnings
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B) Use disk diagnostic software like CrystalDiskInfo to check S.M.A.R.T. status and health. When hardware is failing, SSDs and hard drives report their health status through S.M.A.R.T. (Self-Monitoring, Analysis and Reporting Technology), a monitoring system built into virtually all modern storage devices. CrystalDiskInfo and similar utilities read S.M.A.R.T. data from the drive and display comprehensive information about the drive’s health status, including temperature, error rates, and predictive failure warnings. If a drive is failing, S.M.A.R.T. data will reveal numerous errors, bad sectors, or warnings indicating imminent failure. A failing hard drive exhibits exactly the symptoms described: extreme slowness and frequent freezes as the system struggles to read data from failing sectors. CrystalDiskInfo provides a visual status indicator showing whether the drive is healthy (green), caution (yellow), or failing (red). This information immediately confirms whether drive failure is the cause of the performance issue. Option A) is incorrect because CPU-Z specifically monitors processor information and temperatures, not disk health. Option C) is incorrect because MemTest86 diagnoses RAM problems, not storage drive issues. Option D) is partially useful but less direct than S.M.A.R.T. monitoring; Event Viewer provides system-level errors but lacks the detailed hardware diagnostics that S.M.A.R.T. provides.
Question 225
A small business wants to implement a backup solution for their critical data. The backup must be stored off-site to protect against physical disasters like fire or flooding. Which backup solution would be MOST appropriate?
A) External USB hard drive stored in the same building
B) External hard drive kept in a safe deposit box at a local bank
C) Cloud-based backup service with automatic daily uploads to geographically distributed data centers
D) Network-attached storage (NAS) device connected to the office network
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C) Cloud-based backup service with automatic daily uploads to geographically distributed data centers. Cloud-based backup solutions represent the most appropriate choice for businesses requiring off-site data protection against physical disasters. Cloud services automatically upload data to secure data centers located in geographically distant locations, ensuring that even if the primary office location is destroyed by fire, flooding, tornado, or other disasters, complete backup copies exist safely elsewhere. Major cloud backup providers maintain multiple redundant data centers across different geographical regions, providing exceptional resilience. Cloud solutions offer continuous automatic backups without requiring manual intervention, granular version control enabling recovery from any point in time, and easy scalability as data volumes grow. Recovery is straightforward and can be performed from any location with internet access. Most cloud backup providers employ encryption both during transmission and at rest, protecting data security. Option A) is incorrect because storing backup media in the same building defeats the purpose of off-site backup; if the building is destroyed, the backup is lost along with the primary systems. Option B), while improving safety, is impractical because retrieving backups from a safe deposit box during recovery is time-consuming and requires manual processes. Option D) is incorrect because NAS devices are on-site storage, providing no protection against building-level disasters and no geographical redundancy.