CompTIA 220-1101 A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 14 Q 196-210
Visit here for our full CompTIA 220-1101 exam dumps and practice test questions.
Question 196:
A technician is troubleshooting a computer that is experiencing slow performance. The technician notices that the hard drive LED is constantly lit. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A) Insufficient RAM causing excessive page file usage
B) A failing power supply unit
C) Overheating CPU throttling performance
D) Corrupted graphics driver
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a computer’s hard drive LED remains constantly lit, it indicates continuous disk activity, which is a classic symptom of a system that is heavily relying on virtual memory or the page file. This scenario directly points to insufficient RAM as the most likely cause of the performance issue.
Random Access Memory (RAM) is the primary storage location for data and programs that are actively being used by the computer. When a system runs out of available RAM, the operating system compensates by using a portion of the hard drive as virtual memory, commonly referred to as the page file or swap file. This process is called paging or swapping. Since hard drives, even SSDs, are significantly slower than RAM, excessive paging creates a severe performance bottleneck.
When insufficient RAM forces the system to constantly read from and write to the page file, the hard drive LED stays illuminated continuously, and the user experiences dramatic slowdowns. This is because the system must wait for data to be transferred between the much slower hard drive and RAM, creating latency in every operation. Applications take longer to open, switching between programs becomes sluggish, and overall system responsiveness deteriorates significantly.
Option A is correct because it directly explains both symptoms: the slow performance and the constantly lit hard drive LED. The excessive page file usage occurs when the system lacks sufficient physical RAM to hold all active processes and data in memory simultaneously.
Option B, a failing power supply unit, would typically cause different symptoms such as random shutdowns, system instability, failure to boot, or unexpected restarts. While a failing PSU can cause performance issues, it would not specifically cause the hard drive LED to remain constantly lit. Power supply problems manifest through power delivery issues rather than continuous disk activity.
Option C, overheating CPU throttling, would indeed cause slow performance as the processor reduces its clock speed to lower temperatures. However, CPU throttling does not directly cause continuous hard drive activity. The hard drive LED status is unrelated to CPU temperature management, making this option inconsistent with the observed symptom of constant disk activity.
Option D, a corrupted graphics driver, might cause display issues, system crashes, or problems with graphics-intensive applications, but it would not result in continuous hard drive activity or the specific symptom of a constantly lit hard drive LED. Graphics driver issues are isolated to display functionality.
The solution to this problem would be to upgrade the system’s RAM to provide sufficient physical memory for active processes, thereby reducing or eliminating the need for excessive page file usage.
Question 197:
A user reports that their laptop screen is very dim and difficult to read, even though the brightness settings are at maximum. Which of the following components is MOST likely failing?
A) LCD panel
B) Inverter or backlight
C) Graphics card
D) System memory
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a laptop screen appears very dim despite the brightness settings being at maximum, the most likely culprit is a failing inverter or backlight system. This is one of the most common hardware failures in laptop displays and presents with the characteristic symptom described in the question.
The backlight is responsible for illuminating the liquid crystal display (LCD) panel from behind, making the image visible to the user. In older laptops with CCFL (Cold Cathode Fluorescent Lamp) backlights, the inverter is a crucial component that converts the laptop’s DC power to the AC power required by the CCFL tube. In newer laptops with LED backlights, the backlight system still requires proper power delivery and control circuitry. When either the inverter fails or the backlight itself begins to deteriorate, the screen becomes progressively dimmer.
A key diagnostic clue for backlight or inverter failure is that the display is still functioning and showing an image, but it’s extremely dim. Users can often still see the content on the screen by shining a flashlight on it or viewing it in very bright conditions. This confirms that the LCD panel itself is working properly and generating the image, but the illumination system has failed.
Option B is correct because it directly explains the symptom of a dim screen with brightness at maximum. The backlight provides the illumination necessary to make the LCD panel visible, and when it fails, the screen becomes dim or completely dark while still technically displaying an image.
Option A, a failing LCD panel, would typically cause different symptoms such as dead pixels, lines across the screen, discoloration, image distortion, or complete failure to display any image. An LCD panel failure wouldn’t specifically cause uniform dimness across the entire screen while maintaining proper brightness settings recognition.
Option C, a failing graphics card, would cause symptoms like artifacts, screen flickering, distorted images, incorrect colors, or complete display failure. A graphics card issue affects image generation and output, not the physical illumination of the screen. The brightness control and backlight operation are independent of graphics card functionality.
Option D, faulty system memory, would cause various system stability issues including boot failures, blue screens, application crashes, and random system freezes. Memory problems do not affect display brightness or backlight functionality, as these are hardware components operating independently of system RAM.
The appropriate repair would involve replacing the inverter board in CCFL systems or replacing the LED backlight assembly in LED-backlit systems, depending on the laptop’s display technology.
Question 198:
A technician needs to configure a SOHO wireless router for a small office. The office manager wants to ensure that only company-owned devices can connect to the wireless network. Which of the following security measures would BEST accomplish this requirement?
A) Enable WPA3 encryption
B) Disable SSID broadcast
C) Implement MAC address filtering
D) Change the default administrator password
Answer: C
Explanation:
When the specific requirement is to ensure that only company-owned devices can connect to a wireless network, implementing MAC address filtering is the most direct and effective solution among the given options. This security measure creates a whitelist of authorized devices based on their unique hardware addresses.
Every network interface card has a unique Media Access Control (MAC) address, which is a 48-bit identifier assigned by the manufacturer. MAC address filtering works by configuring the wireless router to maintain a list of approved MAC addresses and only allowing devices with those specific addresses to connect to the network. When a device attempts to connect, the router checks its MAC address against the approved list. If the address is not on the list, the connection is denied regardless of whether the device knows the wireless password.
For a small office environment where the number of devices is limited and manageable, MAC address filtering provides an additional layer of security specifically designed to control which physical devices can access the network. The office manager can document all company-owned devices by recording their MAC addresses and entering them into the router’s filtering configuration. This creates an effective barrier against unauthorized devices, even if an outsider somehow obtains the wireless password.
Option C is correct because it directly addresses the requirement of restricting network access to specific, known devices. MAC filtering is particularly well-suited for SOHO environments where device inventory is stable and limited in number.
Option A, enabling WPA3 encryption, is certainly an important security measure that protects the confidentiality and integrity of wireless communications through strong encryption. However, WPA3 primarily prevents eavesdropping and unauthorized access based on password authentication. It does not restrict access to specific devices—any device with the correct password can connect, which doesn’t fulfill the requirement of limiting access to company-owned devices only.
Option B, disabling SSID broadcast, is a security-through-obscurity measure that hides the network name from casual discovery. While this may deter some unauthorized users, it does not prevent connections from unauthorized devices. Anyone who knows the SSID name can still configure their device to connect manually. Furthermore, the SSID can still be discovered through network analysis tools, making this a weak security control that doesn’t address device-specific restrictions.
Option D, changing the default administrator password, is an essential security best practice that prevents unauthorized access to the router’s configuration interface. However, this protects the router itself from unauthorized configuration changes; it does nothing to restrict which devices can connect to the wireless network. This measure is important for overall router security but doesn’t accomplish the stated goal.
It’s worth noting that MAC address filtering should be combined with strong encryption like WPA3 for comprehensive security, as MAC addresses can be spoofed by determined attackers with the right tools.
Question 199:
A user’s smartphone is experiencing extremely short battery life, even after a full charge. The phone also feels warm to the touch during normal use. Which of the following should a technician check FIRST?
A) Replace the battery immediately
B) Check for applications running in the background
C) Perform a factory reset
D) Update the operating system
Answer: B
Explanation:
When troubleshooting a smartphone with rapid battery drain and heat generation, the first step should always be to check for applications running in the background. This approach follows proper troubleshooting methodology by starting with the least invasive, most reversible solution before moving to more drastic measures.
Background applications are one of the most common causes of excessive battery drain and heat generation in smartphones. Many applications continue to run processes even when not actively in use, consuming CPU cycles, maintaining network connections, using GPS services, or refreshing content. When multiple apps are running simultaneously in the background, or when a single app has a bug causing it to consume excessive resources, the cumulative effect can dramatically reduce battery life and generate significant heat as the processor works continuously.
Modern smartphones provide built-in tools to monitor battery usage and identify which applications are consuming the most power. By accessing the battery settings, a technician can quickly identify problematic apps that are using disproportionate amounts of battery. Common culprits include social media apps with aggressive refresh settings, streaming services, navigation apps left running, email clients with frequent sync intervals, and games that don’t properly suspend when backgrounded.
Option B is correct because it represents the appropriate first step in troubleshooting methodology: gather information and identify the root cause before implementing solutions. Checking background applications is quick, non-destructive, and often reveals the exact source of the problem. If a specific app is identified as the culprit, it can be closed, uninstalled, or have its settings adjusted to reduce resource consumption.
Option A, replacing the battery immediately, is premature without first diagnosing the actual cause. While battery degradation can certainly cause reduced battery life, jumping straight to battery replacement without investigation could result in unnecessary expense and wasted time, especially if the real problem is software-related. Battery replacement should only be considered after ruling out software causes and confirming actual battery degradation through diagnostic tools.
Option C, performing a factory reset, is an extremely invasive solution that erases all user data and settings. This should be reserved as a last resort after all other troubleshooting steps have been exhausted. A factory reset is time-consuming, requires data backup and restoration, and may not even solve the problem if it’s hardware-related. It’s inappropriate as a first troubleshooting step.
Option D, updating the operating system, could potentially help if the battery drain is caused by a known bug that’s been fixed in a newer OS version. However, OS updates should not be the first step, as they’re time-consuming and irreversible. Additionally, updating without first identifying the cause means you won’t know if the update actually solved the problem or if it was coincidental.
The proper troubleshooting sequence would be: check background apps first, monitor battery usage patterns, update problematic apps, adjust settings, then consider OS updates, and finally hardware replacement if necessary.
Question 200:
A technician is installing a new SATA solid-state drive in a desktop computer. Which of the following connectors will the technician need to connect the drive? (Select TWO.)
A) Molex
B) SATA data cable
C) SATA power cable
D) PCIe
E) USB
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
Installing a SATA solid-state drive requires two separate connections to function properly: one for data transfer and one for power. Understanding these connections is fundamental to working with modern storage devices in desktop computers.
A SATA (Serial ATA) solid-state drive uses the same connection interface as traditional SATA hard disk drives. The SATA standard separates data and power connections into two distinct cables, which is different from older storage technologies. This separation provides better cable management, improved airflow within the case, and more reliable connections.
The SATA data cable is a thin, flat cable with small L-shaped connectors on each end. One end connects to the SATA port on the motherboard, while the other end connects to the corresponding SATA data port on the SSD. This cable is responsible for all data communication between the drive and the motherboard, transferring read and write operations at speeds up to 6 Gbps for SATA III connections. The SATA data cable is essential for the computer to recognize the drive and access any stored information.
The SATA power cable provides the electrical power necessary for the drive to operate. This cable comes from the power supply unit and has a distinctive 15-pin L-shaped connector that’s wider than the data connector. The SATA power connector provides three different voltages (3.3V, 5V, and 12V) to the drive, though SSDs typically only use the 5V line. Without power, the drive cannot spin up (for HDDs) or activate its circuits (for SSDs), making it completely non-functional regardless of the data connection.
Options B and C are correct because both connections are absolutely required for a SATA SSD to function. You cannot operate the drive with only one of these connections—both must be present and properly seated.
Option A, Molex, refers to the older 4-pin peripheral power connector that was commonly used for IDE/PATA hard drives and optical drives. While some SATA devices came with Molex-to-SATA power adapters in the past, modern installations use native SATA power connections. Molex connectors are largely obsolete for storage devices and are not the standard connection method for SATA drives.
Option D, PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express), is a completely different interface used by NVMe SSDs and expansion cards. PCIe SSDs connect directly to M.2 slots on the motherboard or use PCIe adapter cards. They do not use SATA connections at all. While PCIe SSDs offer superior performance compared to SATA SSDs, they are a distinct product category with different physical connections.
Option E, USB (Universal Serial Bus), is an external connection interface. While external SSDs can use USB connections for portable storage, internal SATA SSDs installed inside a desktop computer do not use USB. USB connections are for external peripherals and cannot be used for internal drive installations.
After connecting both the SATA data and power cables, the technician should ensure both connections are firmly seated, verify the drive is recognized in the BIOS/UEFI, and then proceed with formatting and operating system installation if it’s a new drive.
Question 201:
A technician is troubleshooting a desktop computer that powers on but displays no video. The technician hears a series of beeps when the computer starts. Which of the following should the technician consult to determine the meaning of the beeps?
A) Event Viewer logs
B) Device Manager
C) Motherboard documentation
D) BIOS update utility
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a computer powers on but displays no video and emits a series of beeps, these beeps are POST (Power-On Self-Test) beep codes, which are a form of hardware diagnostic communication. The specific meaning of these beep patterns can only be determined by consulting the motherboard documentation, as different manufacturers use different beep code patterns.
During the boot process, the computer’s BIOS or UEFI firmware performs a Power-On Self-Test to check the functionality of critical hardware components before loading the operating system. When the POST detects a hardware failure that prevents normal booting, and especially when the failure prevents video output, the system uses audio beep codes to communicate the error. Since there’s no video display available to show error messages, these audible signals are the primary method of communicating hardware problems.
Beep codes are not standardized across the industry. Different BIOS manufacturers (such as AMI, Award, Phoenix) use different beep patterns to indicate various hardware failures. For example, one continuous beep might indicate a power supply problem on one manufacturer’s board, while the same pattern might indicate a memory issue on another. Some common beep codes include patterns for memory failures, graphics card problems, CPU issues, or motherboard failures. The specific pattern—including the number of beeps, their length, and the pauses between them—all contribute to the diagnostic message.
Option C is correct because the motherboard documentation or the manufacturer’s website provides the definitive reference for interpreting beep codes specific to that particular motherboard model. This documentation includes a table or list that matches beep patterns to specific hardware failures, allowing the technician to quickly identify which component is causing the problem.
Option A, Event Viewer logs, is a Windows utility that records system events, application errors, and security audits after the operating system has loaded. Since the computer in this scenario isn’t successfully booting to the point where Windows loads, Event Viewer would contain no relevant information about the current hardware failure. Event Viewer is useful for software and OS-level troubleshooting, not for hardware POST failures.
Option B, Device Manager, is a Windows control panel tool used to view and manage hardware devices after the operating system has successfully loaded. Device Manager shows installed hardware, driver status, and resource conflicts. However, in this scenario, the system hasn’t booted into Windows, so Device Manager cannot be accessed and wouldn’t provide information about POST beep codes anyway.
Option D, BIOS update utility, is used to flash new firmware to the motherboard’s BIOS chip. While BIOS updates can sometimes resolve hardware compatibility issues, the update utility does not provide diagnostic information about beep codes. Additionally, attempting a BIOS update during a hardware failure could potentially make the situation worse or impossible to recover from.
After consulting the motherboard documentation and identifying the failed component based on the beep code, the technician can then proceed with targeted troubleshooting of that specific hardware component.
Question 202:
A company wants to implement a backup solution that allows for the fastest recovery time in case of a complete system failure. Which of the following backup types would BEST meet this requirement?
A) Differential backup
B) Full backup
C) Incremental backup
D) System image backup
Answer: D
Explanation:
When the primary concern is achieving the fastest recovery time after a complete system failure, a system image backup is the optimal solution. This type of backup captures everything needed to restore a computer to full working order in a single recovery operation, making it significantly faster than other backup methods when complete system restoration is required.
A system image backup, also called a bare-metal backup or disk image, creates a sector-by-sector copy of an entire hard drive or specific partitions. This image includes the operating system, all installed applications, system settings, configurations, user files, and even the master boot record and partition table. Essentially, it’s a complete snapshot of the system at a specific point in time. When disaster strikes and a complete system failure occurs, the technician can restore this image to a replacement drive, and the system will boot up exactly as it was when the image was created.
The speed advantage of system image backups becomes evident during the restoration process. With a system image, recovery is a single operation: you boot from recovery media, select the image file, specify the target drive, and the restoration proceeds automatically. Within one to two hours (depending on data size), you have a fully functional system with all applications installed, all settings configured, and all data in place. There’s no need to reinstall the operating system, install applications one by one, reconfigure settings, apply updates, or separately restore data files.
Option D is correct because it specifically addresses the requirement for fastest recovery time from complete system failure. System image backups provide a complete, bootable copy of the entire system that can be restored as a single unit.
Option A, differential backup, backs up all files that have changed since the last full backup. While differential backups are useful for data protection, they require both the last full backup and the most recent differential backup to perform a complete restoration. More importantly, differential backups typically only capture user data and modified files, not the complete system configuration. After restoration, you would still need to reinstall the operating system and applications, significantly extending recovery time.
Option B, full backup, creates a complete copy of all selected files and folders at the time of the backup. While full backups are comprehensive and make restoration straightforward since everything is in one backup set, they typically focus on data files rather than the entire system structure. A traditional full backup doesn’t capture the operating system installation, registry settings, installed applications, or system configuration. Recovery would require OS reinstallation, application reinstallation, and then data restoration—a time-consuming process.
Option C, incremental backup, backs up only the files that have changed since the last backup of any type (full or incremental). While storage-efficient, incremental backups are the slowest to restore because you need the initial full backup plus every incremental backup in sequence. Like differential backups, incremental backups typically focus on data rather than complete system state, requiring operating system and application reinstallation during recovery.
For optimal disaster recovery planning, organizations often combine system image backups with file-level backups, performing regular system images for fast complete recovery while using incremental or differential backups for frequent data protection between image backups.
Question 203:
A user reports that their wireless mouse is not responding. The technician checks and finds that the mouse has fresh batteries and the USB receiver is properly connected. Which of the following should the technician try NEXT?
A) Replace the mouse
B) Reinstall the mouse driver
C) Re-pair the mouse with the receiver
D) Restart the computer
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a wireless mouse stops responding despite having fresh batteries and a properly connected USB receiver, the next logical troubleshooting step is to re-pair the mouse with its receiver. This addresses the most common cause of wireless mouse connectivity issues without resorting to more drastic or time-consuming measures.
Wireless mice communicate with their USB receivers using radio frequency (RF) signals, typically operating in the 2.4 GHz frequency band. This communication requires a paired connection between the mouse and its specific receiver. The pairing process establishes a unique communication channel that prevents interference from other wireless devices and ensures that the receiver only responds to its designated mouse. Sometimes this pairing can become disrupted or corrupted due to various factors including electromagnetic interference, signal conflicts with other wireless devices, temporary firmware glitches, or the mouse being used with a different receiver temporarily.
When the pairing is lost or corrupted, the mouse and receiver can no longer communicate even though both devices are powered and physically functional. The mouse may have power (often indicated by a light on its underside), and the receiver is connected to the computer, but no cursor movement or button clicks are registered. Re-establishing the pairing typically involves pressing a small connect button on the USB receiver and a corresponding button on the bottom of the mouse, often within a specific time window. This process re-establishes the secure communication channel between the devices.
Option C is correct because re-pairing addresses the most likely cause of the problem given the symptoms and the troubleshooting already performed. It’s a quick, non-destructive procedure that often resolves wireless mouse issues immediately. The technician has already ruled out dead batteries and physical connection problems, making communication pairing the next logical point of failure.
Option A, replacing the mouse, is premature at this stage of troubleshooting. Without further diagnostic steps, there’s no evidence that the mouse hardware has actually failed. Replacing hardware should only be considered after exhausting reasonable troubleshooting steps. Immediately replacing components wastes time and money and doesn’t build troubleshooting skills or organizational knowledge.
Option B, reinstalling the mouse driver, is unlikely to resolve this issue. Most wireless mice use generic HID (Human Interface Device) drivers that are built into the operating system and rarely become corrupted. Additionally, if the driver was the problem, the computer wouldn’t detect the USB receiver at all, or Device Manager would show an error. Since the receiver is properly connected and presumably recognized, driver reinstallation is not the most likely solution.
Option D, restarting the computer, is a common troubleshooting step that can resolve many issues, but it’s not the most targeted solution for this specific problem. While a restart might temporarily fix certain software glitches, it doesn’t address the underlying pairing issue between the mouse and receiver. If the pairing is lost, a restart won’t re-establish it. Furthermore, restarting is more disruptive to the user’s workflow than simply re-pairing the devices.
If re-pairing doesn’t resolve the issue, the technician could then proceed with additional steps such as testing the mouse on a different computer, checking for USB port issues, or considering hardware replacement.
Question 204:
A technician needs to configure a RAID array that provides both performance improvement and fault tolerance with a minimum of three drives. Which of the following RAID levels should the technician implement?
A) RAID 0
B) RAID 1
C) RAID 5
D) RAID 10
Answer: C
Explanation:
When requirements include both performance improvement and fault tolerance with a minimum of three drives, RAID 5 is the most appropriate configuration among the given options. RAID 5 strikes an excellent balance between performance, data protection, and storage efficiency, making it one of the most popular RAID levels for business applications.
RAID 5 (Redundant Array of Independent Disks, Level 5) uses block-level striping with distributed parity across all member drives in the array. This means that data is broken into blocks and distributed across multiple drives, similar to RAID 0, which provides performance benefits. However, RAID 5 also calculates parity information for each stripe of data and distributes this parity across all drives in the array. This parity information acts as a mathematical backup that can be used to reconstruct data if one drive fails.
The distributed parity approach in RAID 5 provides several key advantages. First, it allows the array to continue operating even if one drive completely fails—the array enters a degraded state but remains functional, and data can be reconstructed using the parity information from the remaining drives. Second, the distribution of parity across all drives means that no single drive becomes a bottleneck for write operations, unlike RAID 4 which uses a dedicated parity drive. Third, read performance is improved because data can be read from multiple drives simultaneously, similar to the performance benefits of striping.
RAID 5 requires a minimum of three drives and can be expanded to include many more. With three drives, the usable capacity is equivalent to two drives (one drive’s worth of capacity is used for parity). As more drives are added, the percentage of capacity lost to parity decreases, making larger arrays more storage-efficient. For example, with five drives, you get four drives’ worth of usable space.
Option C is correct because RAID 5 specifically meets all the stated requirements: it provides performance improvement through striping, offers fault tolerance through distributed parity allowing survival of one drive failure, and requires exactly three drives minimum to implement.
Option A, RAID 0, provides excellent performance improvement through striping data across multiple drives, allowing parallel read and write operations. However, RAID 0 offers zero fault tolerance or redundancy. If any single drive in a RAID 0 array fails, all data across the entire array is lost. RAID 0 is used when performance is critical and data can be easily recovered or isn’t valuable, making it unsuitable for this scenario.
Option B, RAID 1, provides excellent fault tolerance through mirroring, creating exact copies of data on two drives. If one drive fails, the other contains a complete copy of all data. However, RAID 1 requires exactly two drives (or pairs of drives in extended configurations) and doesn’t meet the minimum three-drive requirement specified in the question. Additionally, RAID 1 provides limited performance improvement—read speeds can be enhanced, but write speeds are not improved since data must be written to both drives.
Option D, RAID 10 (also called RAID 1+0), combines the striping of RAID 0 with the mirroring of RAID 1, providing both excellent performance and fault tolerance. However, RAID 10 requires a minimum of four drives, not three. RAID 10 creates mirrored pairs that are then striped together. While it offers superior performance and can tolerate multiple drive failures (as long as they’re not both drives in the same mirrored pair), it doesn’t meet the minimum three-drive requirement.
After implementation, RAID 5 arrays should be monitored for drive health, and failed drives should be replaced promptly to rebuild the array and restore full redundancy.
Question 205:
A user’s laptop is running extremely slow. The technician opens Task Manager and notices that the disk usage is constantly at 100%. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) Failing hard drive
B) Insufficient RAM
C) Malware infection
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
When a laptop’s Task Manager shows disk usage constantly at 100%, resulting in extremely slow performance, multiple different root causes could be responsible for this symptom. This is a situation where the correct answer requires understanding that several different underlying problems can manifest with identical symptoms, making thorough diagnostic investigation necessary.
Disk usage at 100% means the hard drive is being utilized at its maximum capacity—it’s processing as many read and write operations as it can handle simultaneously. When this occurs continuously, the system becomes bottlenecked at the storage level, causing every operation that requires disk access to wait in queue, resulting in severe performance degradation. Applications take minutes to open, the system becomes unresponsive to user input, and even basic operations like opening File Explorer become painfully slow.
A failing hard drive is one possible cause of constant 100% disk usage. When a hard drive begins to fail, it develops bad sectors or mechanical problems that cause read and write operations to slow dramatically. The drive controller repeatedly attempts to read or write to failing sectors, timing out and retrying multiple times. These repeated operations consume disk resources continuously, pushing disk usage to 100%. Additional symptoms might include unusual clicking or grinding sounds, frequent system freezes, and disk errors in Event Viewer.
Insufficient RAM is another common cause of 100% disk usage. When a system runs out of physical memory, Windows uses the page file on the hard drive as virtual memory. This causes continuous swapping of data between RAM and the hard drive. Each time the system needs data that isn’t in RAM, it must write current RAM contents to the page file and read the needed data from the page file—a process that generates massive disk activity. The hard drive is orders of magnitude slower than RAM, so this constant swapping quickly saturates disk bandwidth to 100%.
Malware infection represents a third distinct cause of 100% disk usage. Malicious software often performs intensive disk operations as part of its payload, such as cryptocurrency mining (which writes results to disk), ransomware encrypting files, keyloggers writing captured data, or malware scanning the system for sensitive information. Additionally, some malware specifically targets system resources to make the computer unusable or to mask its own activities. Malware can also corrupt system files, causing Windows to continuously attempt repairs, generating extensive disk activity.
Option D is correct because all three scenarios—failing hard drive, insufficient RAM, and malware infection—can independently cause the exact symptoms described: continuous 100% disk usage and extremely slow performance. Without additional diagnostic information, any of these could be the culprit.
Option A, a failing hard drive, is definitely a possible cause as explained above, but it’s not the only possibility. Selecting this option alone would be incomplete.
Option B, insufficient RAM, is also a legitimate potential cause that can create these exact symptoms through excessive page file usage, but again, it’s not the exclusive possibility.
Option C, malware infection, similarly represents a valid potential cause but doesn’t account for the other possibilities that could produce identical symptoms.
The proper troubleshooting approach would involve checking multiple diagnostic indicators: examining Task Manager’s process list to identify which specific processes are consuming disk resources, checking Resource Monitor for detailed disk activity, verifying available RAM and page file usage, running disk health utilities like CHKDSK or manufacturer diagnostic tools, scanning for malware with updated antivirus software, and checking Event Viewer for disk errors or system warnings. Only through comprehensive diagnosis can the technician identify which of these causes is actually responsible for the problem.
Question 206:
A technician is setting up a new workstation and needs to ensure that the system has the ability to boot from the network. Which of the following settings should be enabled in the BIOS/UEFI?
A) Secure Boot
B) TPM
C) PXE Boot
D) Wake-on-LAN
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a technician needs to configure a workstation to boot from the network, the specific BIOS/UEFI setting that must be enabled is PXE Boot. This is a fundamental technology used in enterprise environments for network-based operating system deployment, imaging, and maintenance operations.
PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) is an industry-standard client-server protocol that allows computers to boot using network resources rather than local storage devices. When PXE Boot is enabled in the BIOS/UEFI, the computer’s network interface card becomes a bootable device. During the boot process, instead of looking only at local hard drives or optical drives, the system can request boot files from a PXE server on the network. This capability is essential for many enterprise IT operations and management scenarios.
The PXE boot process works through a well-defined sequence of network communications. When the computer starts and PXE is selected as a boot option, the network card sends out a DHCP broadcast request on the network. A DHCP server responds with an IP address for the client and, critically, provides information about the location of a TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) server and the boot file to download. The client then contacts the TFTP server, downloads the boot file (typically a network bootstrap program), and executes it. This bootstrap program can then load a complete operating system, imaging software, or diagnostic tools from network resources.
PXE Boot is extensively used in several important IT scenarios. System administrators use it for automated OS deployment across multiple computers simultaneously, eliminating the need to physically access each machine with installation media. It’s used for disk imaging and cloning operations, allowing technicians to deploy standardized system images across an organization. PXE is also valuable for maintenance and troubleshooting, enabling boot to diagnostic tools or recovery environments without local media. In thin client or diskless workstation scenarios, PXE allows computers to boot completely from network resources.
Option C is correct because PXE Boot is the specific BIOS/UEFI feature that enables network booting functionality. This is the direct and complete answer to the question of how to enable network boot capability.
Option A, Secure Boot, is a UEFI security feature designed to prevent unauthorized or malicious software from loading during the boot process. Secure Boot verifies the digital signatures of boot loaders and critical operating system files to ensure they haven’t been tampered with. While Secure Boot is an important security feature, it doesn’t enable network booting capability.
Option B, TPM (Trusted Platform Module), is a dedicated security processor that provides hardware-based cryptographic functions. TPM is used for features like BitLocker encryption, secure credential storage, and system integrity verification. While TPM enhances system security, it has no role in enabling network boot capability. TPM operates after the boot process has already selected a boot device.
Option D, Wake-on-LAN, is a networking feature that allows a powered-off or sleeping computer to be remotely awakened by a special network packet called a «magic packet.» While Wake-on-LAN is network-related and often used in conjunction with PXE in enterprise deployment scenarios (wake the computer remotely, then have it PXE boot), Wake-on-LAN itself does not enable network booting. It only handles remote power-up; the actual boot method must be separately configured.
After enabling PXE Boot in BIOS/UEFI, the technician should also configure the boot order to prioritize network boot, and ensure the network infrastructure includes properly configured DHCP and TFTP servers to support PXE operations.
Question 207:
A user reports that when they print documents, the text appears faded on one side of the page. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A) Low toner level
B) Incorrect paper type setting
C) Misaligned or dirty fuser assembly
D) Worn or damaged drum
Answer: D
Explanation:
When printed documents show fading that is localized to one side of the page rather than being uniform across the entire document, this pattern strongly indicates a problem with the imaging drum. The asymmetrical nature of the fading is the critical diagnostic clue that points specifically to drum issues rather than other printer components.
The imaging drum, also called the photosensitive drum or photoconductor, is a cylindrical component in laser printers that receives the laser image and transfers toner to the paper. The drum surface is coated with a photoconductive material that holds an electrical charge. During the printing process, a laser beam selectively discharges areas of the drum corresponding to the image to be printed, creating an electrostatic pattern. Toner particles are then attracted to these discharged areas, and the toned image is subsequently transferred to paper and fused by heat.
When the imaging drum becomes worn, damaged, or contaminated in specific areas, those regions cannot properly hold the electrostatic charge or attract toner effectively. Since the drum is cylindrical and rotates during printing, damage to one side or section of the drum results in consistent fading in a specific area of every printed page—typically appearing as a vertical stripe or band of lighter printing. The damage might result from physical wear over time, scratches from foreign objects, chemical contamination, or exposure to light which degrades the photoconductive properties of the drum surface.
A worn drum specifically affecting one side creates a repeating pattern of fading at consistent intervals corresponding to the drum’s circumference. The faded area appears on one side of the page because that portion of the drum surface is not functioning correctly, while the rest of the drum continues to work normally, producing normal print density in other areas of the page.
Option D is correct because a worn or damaged drum is the most likely cause of localized, one-sided fading. The asymmetrical pattern of the defect is characteristic of drum issues, where specific areas of the drum are compromised while others remain functional.
Option A, low toner level, would cause uniform fading across the entire printed page, not fading limited to one side. When toner runs low, there simply isn’t enough toner available for any part of the page, resulting in overall lighter printing with consistent density across the whole document. Low toner doesn’t cause asymmetrical or localized fading patterns.
Option B, incorrect paper type setting, could potentially cause print quality issues like improper fusing or color density problems, but it wouldn’t cause fading specifically on one side of the page. Paper type settings affect the entire fusing and transfer process uniformly across the whole page. If the wrong paper setting were selected, you might see issues like toner not properly adhering to the paper, but the problem would affect the entire page equally.
Option C, a misaligned or dirty fuser assembly, could cause various print quality problems including poor toner adhesion, wrinkled paper, or smearing. However, the fuser applies heat and pressure to the entire width of the paper uniformly. A fuser problem would typically affect the entire page or create horizontal lines or bands corresponding to the fuser roller circumference, not asymmetrical side-specific fading. While a contaminated or damaged fuser could potentially cause localized issues, it’s less likely than drum problems for this specific symptom pattern.
The solution would be to replace the imaging drum unit, or replace the entire toner cartridge if the drum is integrated with the cartridge assembly, which is common in many printer models. Preventive measures include avoiding exposure of the drum to direct light and handling toner cartridges carefully.
Question 208:
A company wants to allow employees to securely access the internal network from remote locations. Which of the following technologies should be implemented?
A) VPN
B) VLAN
C) NAT
D) DMZ
Answer: A
Explanation:
When an organization needs to provide secure remote access to internal network resources for employees working from external locations, implementing a VPN (Virtual Private Network) is the standard and most appropriate solution. VPN technology creates encrypted tunnels through public networks, allowing remote users to access internal resources as if they were physically connected to the office network.
A VPN works by establishing an encrypted connection between the remote user’s device and the company’s VPN server or gateway located at the corporate network perimeter. All data transmitted through this tunnel is encrypted, protecting it from interception or eavesdropping by unauthorized parties on the internet or public networks. From the user’s perspective, once connected to the VPN, their computer appears to be directly connected to the corporate network, with access to file servers, databases, intranet sites, and other internal resources that would normally be inaccessible from outside the network.
VPN implementations provide several critical security features. The encryption ensures confidentiality of transmitted data, preventing anyone monitoring network traffic from reading sensitive corporate information. Authentication mechanisms verify the identity of users before granting access, typically requiring usernames, passwords, and often multi-factor authentication for enhanced security. The tunneling encapsulation protects data integrity, ensuring that transmitted information cannot be modified in transit without detection. Additionally, VPNs can implement access controls that restrict which internal resources each user can access based on their role and permissions.
Modern VPN solutions come in several forms. SSL/TLS VPNs provide clientless access through web browsers, making them easy to deploy and use. IPsec VPNs offer robust security and are commonly used for site-to-site connections and client-to-site remote access. Many organizations now implement next-generation VPN solutions that integrate with cloud services and zero-trust security models, providing granular control over resource access.
Option A is correct because VPN is specifically designed to provide secure remote access to internal networks, directly addressing the requirement stated in the question. It combines security, accessibility, and network integration in a proven solution used by organizations worldwide.
Option B, VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network), is a network segmentation technology that divides a physical network into multiple logical networks. VLANs are used to separate different types of traffic, improve security through isolation, and organize network resources efficiently. However, VLANs operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model and are used for local network segmentation, not for providing remote access from external locations. VLANs don’t provide encryption or secure tunneling capabilities necessary for remote access scenarios.
Option C, NAT (Network Address Translation), is a routing technology that translates private IP addresses used within an internal network to public IP addresses for internet communication. NAT allows multiple devices on a private network to share a single public IP address and provides some security benefit by hiding internal IP addresses from the public internet. However, NAT does not provide remote access capability, encryption, or authentication. NAT is a fundamental component of network infrastructure but doesn’t solve the remote access security requirement.
Option D, DMZ (Demilitarized Zone), is a network architecture concept where a segment of the network is positioned between the internal network and the external internet, providing a buffer zone for public-facing services. Organizations place web servers, email servers, and other externally accessible services in the DMZ, protecting the internal network from direct exposure to internet threats. While DMZs are important for network security architecture, they don’t provide remote access functionality for employees. DMZs are about exposing specific services safely, not about allowing user access to internal resources.
Question 209:
A technician is installing RAM into a motherboard that supports dual-channel memory. To take advantage of the dual-channel feature, how should the technician install the RAM modules?
A) Install modules in slots 1 and 2
B) Install modules in slots 1 and 3
C) Install only one module in any slot
D) Install modules in all available slots
Answer: B
Explanation:
When installing RAM on a motherboard that supports dual-channel memory architecture, proper module placement is essential to activate and benefit from the dual-channel feature. Dual-channel technology requires RAM modules to be installed in specific paired slots, and understanding the correct configuration is crucial for optimal system performance.
Dual-channel memory architecture allows the memory controller to access two RAM modules simultaneously, effectively doubling the memory bandwidth available to the processor. Instead of reading or writing to one module at a time, the system can perform operations on both modules in parallel. This parallelism significantly improves memory throughput, which can enhance performance in memory-intensive applications, gaming, video editing, and multitasking scenarios. The performance improvement from dual-channel operation typically ranges from 5% to 30% depending on the specific application and workload.
Motherboards that support dual-channel memory have their RAM slots organized into pairs or channels, typically labeled or color-coded to indicate which slots form a channel pair. The most common configuration uses four RAM slots divided into two channels, with Channel A consisting of slots 1 and 3, and Channel B consisting of slots 2 and 4. This alternating pattern is standard across most motherboard manufacturers. The slots are physically arranged so that paired slots are not adjacent—they’re positioned with one slot between them.
To activate dual-channel mode, identical or matched RAM modules must be installed in paired slots from different channels. Installing modules in slots 1 and 3 places one module in Channel A and one module in Channel B, allowing the memory controller to access both modules simultaneously. The modules should ideally be identical in capacity, speed, timings, and manufacturer to ensure optimal compatibility and performance, though the system can sometimes work with mixed modules operating at the speed and timings of the slower module.
Option B is correct because installing RAM modules in slots 1 and 3 properly configures dual-channel memory operation on typical motherboards. This placement ensures one module is in the first slot of each channel, allowing the memory controller to utilize both channels simultaneously for maximum bandwidth.
Option A, installing modules in slots 1 and 2, places both modules in adjacent slots, which typically means both modules are in the same channel. When modules are installed in the same channel, the system operates in single-channel mode, accessing only one module at a time. This configuration fails to activate dual-channel mode and provides no bandwidth advantage over a single module installation. The performance would be limited to single-channel operation despite having two modules installed.
Option C, installing only one module in any slot, obviously cannot enable dual-channel mode since dual-channel requires at least two modules working in parallel. Single-module configurations always operate in single-channel mode, providing baseline memory bandwidth but missing out on the performance benefits of dual-channel operation. This option doesn’t address the question’s requirement to take advantage of the dual-channel feature.
Option D, installing modules in all available slots, would certainly enable dual-channel mode, but it’s not the answer to how to properly configure dual-channel with two modules, which is what the question asks. While filling all slots does work and maintains dual-channel operation (with modules paired appropriately across channels), it requires purchasing four modules instead of two, increasing cost. More importantly, the question specifically asks how to take advantage of dual-channel, implying the minimum configuration needed.
Most motherboards include documentation showing the correct slot configuration for dual-channel operation, and many boards use color-coding (like matching colors for paired slots) to help users identify the correct slots. Modern BIOS/UEFI interfaces also typically display the current memory configuration and indicate whether dual-channel mode is active.
Question 210:
A user’s computer is displaying a «No bootable device found» error message. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?
A) Boot order in BIOS/UEFI
B) Operating system installation files
C) RAM modules
D) Power supply voltage
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a computer displays a «No bootable device found» or similar error message during startup, the first component a technician should check is the boot order configuration in the BIOS/UEFI settings. This error message specifically indicates that the system’s firmware has completed its Power-On Self-Test successfully but cannot locate a device containing bootable operating system files. The boot order setting directly controls where and in what sequence the system looks for bootable devices.
The boot order, also called boot sequence or boot priority, is a BIOS/UEFI configuration setting that tells the computer which devices to check for bootable operating systems and in what order to check them. When the computer starts, the firmware reads this list and attempts to boot from each device in sequence until it finds one containing a valid boot sector or UEFI boot manager. Common bootable devices include internal hard drives, SSDs, optical drives, USB drives, and network locations for PXE boot.
Several scenarios can cause the boot order to become misconfigured or appear incorrect. A user or technician might have accidentally changed the BIOS settings during maintenance. A CMOS battery failure can cause BIOS settings, including boot order, to revert to factory defaults. The addition of new hardware like USB devices might cause the system to attempt booting from them before checking the primary hard drive. Sometimes a BIOS update or system update can reset boot order settings. Additionally, if someone removed the primary boot drive and later reinstalled it in a different SATA port, the drive might be recognized under a different device identifier.
Checking the boot order is the appropriate first step because it’s quick, non-invasive, and doesn’t require any hardware manipulation or risk of data loss. The technician simply enters BIOS/UEFI setup during boot (typically by pressing Del, F2, F10, or ESC depending on the manufacturer), navigates to the boot configuration section, and verifies that the primary hard drive containing the operating system is listed first in the boot priority. If another device like a USB drive or optical drive is listed first, and that device either isn’t present or doesn’t contain bootable media, the system will display the «No bootable device» error.
Option A is correct because boot order is the first setting to verify when encountering boot device errors. This check is part of the standard troubleshooting methodology of starting with simple, likely causes before moving to more complex possibilities.
Option B, checking operating system installation files, would be relevant if the boot order is correct and the system is attempting to boot from the proper device but the boot files are corrupted or missing. However, verifying and repairing OS files is a much more time-consuming and complex process than simply checking boot order. This should be considered only after confirming that the system is actually looking at the correct boot device.
Option C, checking RAM modules, addresses a completely different type of problem. Faulty RAM typically causes different symptoms during the boot process, such as continuous beeping, system freezes before reaching the boot device check, or failure to complete POST. If RAM were the issue, the system likely wouldn’t reach the point of displaying a «No bootable device» error message, as RAM problems usually manifest earlier in the boot sequence. This error message indicates the system successfully completed hardware initialization.
Option D, checking power supply voltage, also addresses a different class of problems. Power supply issues typically manifest as failure to power on at all, random shutdowns, system instability, or hardware components not receiving power. If power supply voltage were insufficient or unstable, the system would likely experience power-related symptoms before reaching the boot device search phase. The fact that the system powers on and displays a specific error message indicates power delivery is adequate to reach this stage of booting.