CompTIA 220-1101 A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 13 Q 181-195
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Question 181:
A technician is troubleshooting a laptop that powers on but displays no image on the screen. The technician shines a flashlight on the screen and can faintly see the desktop icons. What component is MOST likely causing this issue?
A) LCD panel
B) Inverter or backlight
C) Video card
D) System RAM
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The key diagnostic clue in this scenario is that the technician can see faint images when shining a flashlight on the screen. This indicates that the display is actually working and producing an image, but there is no backlighting to illuminate the screen properly. This is a classic symptom of a failed backlight or inverter component.
Modern laptop displays use LED backlights or older CCFL (Cold Cathode Fluorescent Lamp) technology to illuminate the LCD panel from behind. The LCD panel itself creates the image by controlling which pixels allow light to pass through, but without the backlight, the image remains extremely dim and nearly invisible under normal conditions. When an external light source like a flashlight is applied, it temporarily provides the illumination needed to see the image, confirming that the LCD panel and video signal are functioning correctly.
The inverter is a component found in older laptops with CCFL backlights. It converts DC power to AC power needed to drive the fluorescent tubes. When the inverter fails, the backlight stops working even though the LCD continues to receive video signals. In newer laptops with LED backlights, the LED driver circuit can fail, producing the same symptom. Both issues result in a functional display that lacks illumination.
A) If the LCD panel itself were faulty, you would typically see physical damage, dead pixels, distorted images, or no image at all even with a flashlight. The fact that a clear image is visible with external light rules out LCD panel failure.
B) This is the correct answer. The ability to see images with a flashlight while having an otherwise black screen is pathognomonic for backlight or inverter failure. This is one of the most common laptop display issues.
C) A failed video card would result in no image being produced at all, and you would not be able to see anything even with a flashlight. Additionally, connecting an external monitor would also show no display if the video card were completely failed.
D) Bad system RAM typically causes the system to fail POST (Power-On Self-Test), resulting in beep codes and preventing the system from booting to the operating system. You would not see desktop icons as described in this scenario.
The proper repair approach depends on the laptop model and backlight technology. For CCFL backlights, replacing the inverter board is often sufficient and relatively inexpensive. For LED backlights, the issue may be the LED strip itself or the LED driver circuit on the motherboard. Some laptops allow backlight replacement without replacing the entire LCD assembly, while others require complete screen replacement. Testing with an external monitor can confirm the video card and motherboard are functioning properly before investing in display repairs.
Question 182:
A user reports that their wireless mouse is not responding. The mouse has fresh batteries installed, and the USB receiver is properly connected. What should the technician do FIRST?
A) Replace the USB receiver
B) Re-pair the mouse with the receiver
C) Update the mouse driver
D) Replace the mouse batteries with a different brand
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
When troubleshooting wireless peripherals, following a logical troubleshooting methodology is essential. The scenario establishes that basic requirements are met: fresh batteries are installed and the USB receiver is properly connected. This eliminates the most common causes of wireless mouse failure. The next logical step in the troubleshooting process is to address the wireless connection between the mouse and its receiver.
Wireless mice operate using radio frequency communication, typically at 2.4 GHz. The mouse and receiver must be paired together so they communicate on the same channel and recognize each other’s signals. This pairing can be lost due to various factors including interference, software conflicts, or the mouse being paired with a different receiver. Re-pairing is a simple, non-invasive procedure that often resolves connectivity issues without requiring any hardware replacement or software modification.
The re-pairing process typically involves pressing a connect button on the USB receiver and a corresponding button on the bottom of the mouse within a specific time window. This establishes a new encrypted connection between the devices. Most manufacturers design this process to be user-friendly and quick, making it an ideal first troubleshooting step. The procedure costs nothing, requires no special tools, and can be completed in under a minute.
A) Replacing the USB receiver would be premature at this stage. The receiver is properly connected, and there is no indication it is physically damaged or defective. This would also be problematic because wireless mice are typically paired to their specific receiver at the factory.
B) This is the correct answer. Re-pairing the mouse with the receiver is a quick, simple, and non-invasive troubleshooting step that addresses the most likely cause of the issue given the scenario details. It follows proper troubleshooting methodology by trying simple solutions before complex ones.
C) Updating drivers would be appropriate if re-pairing fails or if the mouse was never recognized by the operating system. However, driver issues typically manifest as the device not being recognized at all, rather than sudden loss of function with an already-working mouse.
D) The scenario specifically states fresh batteries are installed. Different battery brands of the same type provide essentially the same voltage and would not resolve a connectivity issue. This step would waste time and resources without addressing the actual problem.
Following the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology, technicians should always question the obvious, identify the problem, establish a theory of probable cause, test the theory, establish a plan of action, implement the solution, verify functionality, and document findings. Re-pairing represents testing the most probable cause given the symptoms, while other options jump ahead to replacing components without proper diagnosis.
Question 183:
A technician needs to configure a SOHO wireless router for a small office. The office manager wants to ensure that only company-owned devices can connect to the wireless network. Which of the following security measures would BEST accomplish this requirement?
A) Enable WPA3 encryption
B) Disable SSID broadcast
C) Implement MAC address filtering
D) Change the default admin password
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The question specifically asks for a method to restrict network access to only company-owned devices. This requires a mechanism that can identify and authenticate individual devices based on unique characteristics rather than just a shared password. Understanding the different layers of wireless security is essential for the CompTIA A+ certification and real-world network administration.
MAC (Media Access Control) address filtering creates a whitelist or blacklist of devices based on their unique hardware addresses. Every network interface card has a unique MAC address assigned by the manufacturer, making it an identifier for specific devices. By configuring the router to only allow connections from known MAC addresses of company-owned devices, the office can ensure that even if someone obtains the wireless password, their personal device cannot connect unless its MAC address is added to the approved list.
Implementing MAC filtering involves accessing the router’s administration interface, locating the MAC filtering or access control section, and entering the MAC addresses of all approved devices. The router then checks each connection attempt against this list and only permits associations from approved addresses. While MAC addresses can theoretically be spoofed by advanced users, this provides a practical layer of device-level access control for a small office environment where sophisticated attacks are less likely.
A) WPA3 encryption is the strongest current wireless security protocol and should definitely be enabled, but it only secures the connection with a password. Any device with the correct password can connect, which does not meet the requirement of limiting access to only company-owned devices.
B) Disabling SSID broadcast provides security through obscurity by hiding the network name, but this is easily defeated by wireless sniffing tools. Additionally, any device with the network name and password can still connect, so it does not restrict access to specific devices.
C) This is the correct answer. MAC address filtering specifically restricts network access based on device hardware addresses, ensuring only whitelisted company-owned devices can connect regardless of whether someone knows the wireless password. This directly addresses the requirement stated in the question.
D) Changing the default admin password is a critical security best practice to prevent unauthorized router configuration changes, but it does not control which client devices can connect to the wireless network. This protects router administration, not network access.
A comprehensive security approach would actually combine multiple measures: WPA3 encryption for connection security, MAC filtering for device-level access control, a strong wireless password, disabled WPS, changed default admin credentials, and firmware updates. However, when the specific requirement is restricting access to company-owned devices only, MAC filtering is the most direct solution.
Question 184:
A user’s computer is experiencing slow performance and frequent pop-up advertisements. The user mentions they recently downloaded free software from the internet. Which of the following tools should the technician use FIRST to resolve this issue?
A) Disk Defragmenter
B) System Restore
C) Anti-malware software
D) Disk Cleanup
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The symptoms described in this scenario are classic indicators of a malware infection, specifically adware or potentially unwanted programs (PUPs). The combination of slow performance and frequent pop-up advertisements, coupled with recent installation of free software from the internet, strongly suggests the user has inadvertently installed malicious or unwanted software bundled with the free application.
Free software distributed on the internet often includes bundled adware, toolbars, or other potentially unwanted programs in the installation process. Users who click through installation wizards without carefully reading each screen may unknowingly agree to install these additional components. These programs consume system resources, causing performance degradation, and display advertisements to generate revenue for their creators. Some variants also track browsing habits or modify browser settings.
Anti-malware software is specifically designed to detect, quarantine, and remove malicious software including viruses, trojans, adware, spyware, and potentially unwanted programs. Running a comprehensive scan with updated anti-malware software should identify the offending programs and allow the technician to remove them. This addresses the root cause of both symptoms: the malware itself. Modern anti-malware tools can detect behavioral patterns, registry modifications, and suspicious processes associated with adware infections.
A) Disk defragmentation reorganizes fragmented files on a hard drive to improve access speed. While this can help performance on traditional hard drives, it would not address malware infections or stop pop-up advertisements. Additionally, the sudden performance decrease correlated with software installation suggests malware rather than gradual fragmentation.
B) System Restore can roll back system changes to a previous point in time and might remove recently installed malware if restored to a point before infection. However, this should not be the first step because some malware can disable restore points, and restore may not remove all malware components. Anti-malware scanning should be performed first.
C) This is the correct answer. Given the clear symptoms of malware infection (pop-ups and slow performance after downloading free software), running anti-malware software directly addresses the root cause by identifying and removing the malicious programs responsible for both symptoms.
D) Disk Cleanup removes temporary files, cache, and other unnecessary data to free up disk space. While this can improve performance slightly, it does not remove malware or stop advertisements. The performance issue is caused by malicious processes running in the background, not insufficient disk space.
The proper remediation procedure includes running anti-malware software in safe mode for more thorough scanning, checking browser extensions and removing suspicious add-ons, reviewing installed programs and uninstalling unknown applications, clearing browser cache and cookies, and resetting browser settings if necessary. Prevention education should include warning users about downloading free software from untrusted sources and carefully reading installation prompts.
Question 185:
A technician is installing a new SATA solid-state drive in a desktop computer. Which of the following connectors will the technician need to connect to the drive? (Select TWO)
A) 4-pin Molex
B) 15-pin SATA power
C) 7-pin SATA data
D) 24-pin ATX
E) 8-pin PCIe
Correct Answer: B, C
Explanation:
SATA (Serial ATA) storage devices, including solid-state drives and hard disk drives, require two separate connections to function properly within a computer system. Understanding the power and data connectivity requirements for storage devices is fundamental knowledge for the CompTIA A+ certification and essential for any technician performing hardware installations.
The SATA interface specification defines two distinct connectors: one for power delivery and one for data transmission. These connectors are designed with different pin counts and physical shapes to prevent incorrect connections. The separation of power and data connections allows for flexible cable routing within the computer case and standardizes the interface across different manufacturers and device types.
The 15-pin SATA power connector provides electrical power to the drive. This connector delivers three different voltages: +3.3V, +5V, and +12V, each with multiple pins to handle the current requirements. The power cable connects from the power supply unit directly to the drive. SATA power connectors have a distinctive L-shaped design to ensure correct orientation during installation. Solid-state drives typically consume much less power than traditional hard drives, primarily using the +5V rail, but the connector specification remains the same.
The 7-pin SATA data connector transmits all data between the drive and the motherboard. This narrow connector uses differential signaling pairs to achieve high-speed data transfer rates. SATA III, the most common current standard, supports transfer speeds up to 6 Gbps. The data cable connects from the drive to a SATA port on the motherboard or a host bus adapter. Like the power connector, the data connector has a keyed design preventing reversed installation.
A) The 4-pin Molex connector is a legacy power connector used for older IDE hard drives, optical drives, and case fans. It provides +5V and +12V power but uses a different physical connector than modern SATA devices. While Molex-to-SATA adapters exist, a proper SATA installation uses native SATA power connectors.
B) This is one of the correct answers. The 15-pin SATA power connector is required to supply electrical power to the solid-state drive, enabling it to operate and retain data in its flash memory cells.
C) This is the other correct answer. The 7-pin SATA data connector is essential for transmitting commands and data between the drive and the computer’s storage controller, enabling the operating system to read and write information.
D) The 24-pin ATX connector is the main power connector that supplies power from the PSU to the motherboard. It does not connect directly to storage devices but rather powers the motherboard components and provides power distribution.
E) The 8-pin PCIe connector provides auxiliary power to graphics cards or other PCIe expansion cards that require more power than the PCIe slot provides. It is not used for SATA storage devices, though NVMe SSDs that use M.2 slots draw power through the slot itself.
Proper installation also requires ensuring the cables are securely connected with the locking tabs engaged, the drive is properly mounted in a drive bay or mounting bracket, and the BIOS/UEFI recognizes the drive after installation. Technicians should also verify proper cable management to ensure adequate airflow and prevent cable strain.
Question 186:
A company is implementing a backup strategy that requires data to be backed up once per week to an offsite location for disaster recovery purposes. Which type of backup strategy is being implemented?
A) Incremental
B) Differential
C) Full
D) Synthetic
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Understanding different backup strategies is critical for data protection and disaster recovery planning. The scenario describes a weekly backup sent to an offsite location specifically for disaster recovery purposes. This context provides important clues about the backup type being implemented.
Disaster recovery backups need to be complete, self-contained copies of all data that can fully restore an organization’s systems after a catastrophic event such as fire, flood, theft, or ransomware attack. The weekly frequency and offsite storage indicate this is a comprehensive backup rather than a supplement to other backup types. For disaster recovery purposes where the entire system might need restoration from a single backup set, a full backup is the most appropriate strategy.
Full backups copy all selected data regardless of when it was last modified or whether it has been backed up before. Every file, folder, and system component included in the backup scope is copied to the backup media. This creates a complete snapshot of the data at a specific point in time. The primary advantage for disaster recovery is simplicity: restoration only requires the single full backup set without needing to combine multiple backup files or track which files are in which backup.
The weekly frequency suggests this is a strategic backup for disaster recovery rather than daily operational backups. Many organizations implement a tiered backup strategy where daily incremental or differential backups handle operational recovery needs (like restoring accidentally deleted files), while weekly or monthly full backups are sent offsite for disaster recovery scenarios. This balanced approach provides both quick recovery for common issues and comprehensive protection against catastrophic events.
A) Incremental backups only copy files that have changed since the last backup of any type. This creates small, fast backups but requires the last full backup plus all subsequent incremental backups for restoration. This complexity makes incremental backups less suitable as standalone disaster recovery solutions.
B) Differential backups copy all files changed since the last full backup. While more comprehensive than incremental, they still require both the last full backup and the latest differential backup for complete restoration. This dependency makes them less ideal for disaster recovery where simplicity is important.
C) This is the correct answer. Full backups are most appropriate for weekly offsite disaster recovery because they contain all data in a single, self-contained backup set that can independently restore the entire system without requiring additional backup files.
D) Synthetic backups create a full backup by combining previous full and incremental backups without reading from the production system again. While this reduces backup windows, the question describes an actual backup strategy being implemented, not a backup optimization technique.
Offsite storage is crucial for disaster recovery because it protects against site-specific disasters. The 3-2-1 backup rule recommends keeping three copies of data, on two different media types, with one copy offsite. Cloud storage, tape rotation to secure facilities, and replication to geographically distant data centers are common offsite backup implementations.
Question 187:
A technician is replacing a failed power supply in a desktop computer. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST before beginning the replacement?
A) Disconnect all internal cables from the power supply
B) Remove the power supply mounting screws
C) Disconnect the power cable from the wall outlet
D) Test the new power supply with a multimeter
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Safety is the paramount concern when working with computer hardware, especially when dealing with power supplies. Following proper safety procedures protects both the technician from injury and the equipment from damage. The CompTIA A+ certification emphasizes safety protocols throughout the troubleshooting and repair process, and this question tests understanding of the most critical first step.
Power supplies contain capacitors that can store dangerous electrical charges even after the computer is turned off. These capacitors can retain lethal voltage for extended periods, potentially causing severe electric shock if contacted. Before performing any work inside a computer case or handling any internal components, all external power sources must be completely disconnected to eliminate the possibility of electrical hazards.
Disconnecting the power cable from the wall outlet ensures that no electrical current can flow into the power supply during the replacement procedure. This simple action creates a zero-energy state where the technician can safely work with internal components. Even if the computer’s power button is in the off position, modern power supplies maintain standby voltage to support features like Wake-on-LAN and USB charging, meaning the system is never truly de-energized while the power cable is connected.
This safety principle extends beyond just power supply replacement. Whether replacing any component, cleaning internal parts, or troubleshooting hardware issues, disconnecting external power is always the first step. Some technicians additionally press the power button after unplugging to discharge any residual capacitance through the system, though this is a secondary precaution after disconnection.
A) Disconnecting internal cables from the power supply is indeed part of the replacement process, but attempting this while the system is still connected to wall power creates an unnecessary electrical shock hazard. Internal cables should only be disconnected after external power is removed.
B) Removing mounting screws while the system has power connected is dangerous and premature. The power supply must be electrically isolated before any physical disassembly begins. Additionally, the internal cables must be disconnected before the power supply can be removed, making this step out of sequence.
C) This is the correct answer. Disconnecting the power cable from the wall outlet is the essential first safety step that must be performed before any internal work begins. This eliminates electrical hazards and follows fundamental electrical safety protocols.
D) Testing the new power supply is a good practice to verify it functions before installation, but this should occur after the failed unit is removed and would still require the system to be unplugged first. Testing should never be done while working inside an open computer case.
Additional safety considerations include using an anti-static wrist strap to prevent electrostatic discharge damage to sensitive components, working on a non-conductive surface, keeping liquids away from the work area, and ensuring adequate lighting and ventilation. Proper documentation of cable connections before disconnection can also prevent errors during reassembly, though this is a best practice rather than a safety requirement.
Question 188:
A user reports that their smartphone battery drains quickly even when the device is not in use. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST to resolve this issue?
A) Replace the battery
B) Check which apps are running in the background
C) Perform a factory reset
D) Update the operating system
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Smartphone battery drain issues are among the most common complaints users report, and proper troubleshooting requires a methodical approach that starts with the most likely causes and simplest solutions. Understanding mobile device power management is essential for the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam, particularly in the mobile devices domain.
Background applications are one of the most common causes of excessive battery drain on smartphones. Many apps continue running processes even when not actively in use, performing tasks such as checking for notifications, updating content, tracking location, or syncing data with cloud services. Social media apps, email clients, mapping applications, and streaming services are particularly known for aggressive background activity that consumes significant battery power.
Modern mobile operating systems provide built-in battery usage statistics that show which applications consume the most power. This diagnostic information allows technicians to identify problematic apps without guessing or performing invasive troubleshooting steps. Once identified, problematic apps can be managed through several approaches: closing them completely, restricting background activity through system settings, adjusting app-specific settings to reduce power consumption, or uninstalling them if they’re not essential.
Checking background apps is a non-destructive diagnostic step that requires no tools, costs nothing, and preserves all user data and settings. This makes it ideal as a first troubleshooting step. The technician can access battery usage statistics through the device’s settings menu, typically under «Battery» or «Device Care,» where detailed information shows power consumption per app over various time periods.
A) Replacing the battery is expensive and invasive, requiring disassembly of the device and potentially voiding warranties. Battery replacement should only be considered after software causes are ruled out and if battery health diagnostics indicate actual battery degradation. Jumping to hardware replacement without proper diagnosis wastes resources.
B) This is the correct answer. Checking background apps is the logical first step because it is non-invasive, costs nothing, provides immediate diagnostic information, and addresses the most common cause of battery drain. It follows the troubleshooting principle of checking the simplest and most likely causes first.
C) A factory reset erases all user data, settings, and installed applications, returning the device to its original state. While this can resolve software-related battery drain, it should be a last resort after other troubleshooting steps fail because of the data loss and extensive reconfiguration required.
D) Operating system updates can sometimes improve battery life through optimization or bug fixes, but they can also introduce new issues. Updates should be considered after identifying whether specific apps or settings cause the drain, as updates are relatively time-consuming and irreversible.
Additional troubleshooting steps include checking for excessive screen brightness, disabling unnecessary wireless features (Bluetooth, Wi-Fi, GPS when not needed), reviewing sync settings for email and cloud services, checking for apps that prevent sleep mode, and running battery health diagnostics to assess physical battery condition. A comprehensive approach addresses both software and hardware possibilities.
Question 189:
Which of the following cloud computing models provides users with access to virtual machines, storage, and networking infrastructure?
A) Software as a Service (SaaS)
B) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
C) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
D) Desktop as a Service (DaaS)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Cloud computing has fundamentally transformed how organizations deploy and manage IT resources. Understanding the different service models is essential for the CompTIA A+ certification and for making informed decisions about technology deployment in modern business environments. Each cloud service model provides different levels of abstraction and management responsibility.
Infrastructure as a Service represents the most fundamental cloud computing model, providing virtualized computing resources over the internet. IaaS gives customers access to fundamental computing infrastructure including virtual machines, storage volumes, virtual networks, load balancers, and other low-level computing resources. The cloud provider manages the physical hardware, data centers, and underlying virtualization layer, while customers retain full control over the operating systems, applications, and data running on the virtual infrastructure.
The key characteristic of IaaS is that it provides building blocks that customers can use to construct their own IT environments. Organizations can provision virtual servers with specific CPU, memory, and storage configurations, create virtual networks with subnets and routing rules, attach storage volumes, and configure security groups. This flexibility allows customers to replicate traditional data center environments in the cloud while gaining benefits like scalability, pay-per-use pricing, and elimination of physical hardware management.
Major IaaS providers include Amazon Web Services (AWS) with EC2, Microsoft Azure with Virtual Machines, and Google Cloud Platform with Compute Engine. These platforms allow customers to deploy Windows or Linux servers, scale resources up or down based on demand, and only pay for resources actually consumed. This model is ideal for organizations that need control over their infrastructure but want to eliminate the capital expenses and management overhead of physical data centers.
A) Software as a Service provides complete applications delivered over the internet. Users access fully functional software through web browsers without managing any underlying infrastructure. Examples include Gmail, Office 365, and Salesforce. SaaS is the highest level of abstraction where providers manage everything except user data and settings.
B) This is the correct answer. Infrastructure as a Service specifically provides virtual machines, storage, and networking infrastructure, giving customers low-level computing resources they can configure and manage according to their needs. This matches the description in the question precisely.
C) Platform as a Service provides a development and deployment environment in the cloud. PaaS includes infrastructure plus operating systems, development tools, database management systems, and business analytics. Developers use PaaS to build applications without managing underlying servers. Examples include Heroku, Google App Engine, and AWS Elastic Beanstalk.
D) Desktop as a Service provides virtual desktop infrastructure delivered through the cloud. Users access a complete desktop environment remotely, but this is a specialized service model rather than providing general infrastructure components like virtual machines and storage for arbitrary use.
The shared responsibility model is important in IaaS environments. The cloud provider secures the physical infrastructure, hypervisor, and network, while customers are responsible for securing their operating systems, applications, data, and access controls. Understanding this division of responsibility is crucial for proper security implementation in cloud environments.
Question 190:
A technician needs to transfer files between two computers that are not on the same network and cannot access the internet. Which of the following would be the MOST efficient method to transfer a large amount of data?
A) USB flash drive
B) External hard drive
C) Bluetooth connection
D) Ethernet crossover cable
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Data transfer methods vary significantly in speed, capacity, and practicality depending on the scenario. This question tests understanding of different transfer methods and the ability to select the most appropriate solution based on specific constraints: no network connectivity, no internet access, and a large amount of data to transfer.
External hard drives represent the optimal solution for transferring large amounts of data between isolated systems. Modern external hard drives offer several key advantages: enormous storage capacity (typically 1TB to 5TB or more), fast transfer speeds via USB 3.0/3.1/3.2 or Thunderbolt connections, and the ability to transfer data without requiring both computers to be active simultaneously. The physical transfer process involves connecting the drive to the source computer, copying data to the drive, disconnecting it, and then connecting it to the destination computer to copy data off.
Transfer speeds for external hard drives connected via USB 3.0 can reach 5 Gbps (625 MB/s theoretically), though real-world speeds typically range from 100-150 MB/s for traditional hard drives and 400-500 MB/s for external SSDs. For large datasets measured in hundreds of gigabytes or terabytes, these speeds make external hard drives dramatically faster than alternatives. The «never underestimate the bandwidth of a station wagon full of tapes» principle applies: physical media transfer of large data volumes often outperforms network-based methods.
External hard drives also offer superior reliability for large transfers. Unlike network-based methods that can be interrupted by connectivity issues, external hard drive transfers complete reliably without requiring sustained connections. The drives are also reusable for multiple transfers and can serve as temporary backup storage, adding value beyond the immediate transfer task.
A) USB flash drives can work for data transfer but have significant limitations for large amounts of data. Typical consumer flash drives offer 32GB to 256GB capacity, which may be insufficient for large datasets. While convenient for smaller transfers, repeatedly copying data to multiple flash drives or using a smaller capacity drive for multiple trips is inefficient compared to a high-capacity external hard drive.
B) This is the correct answer. External hard drives provide the best combination of high capacity, fast transfer speeds, and efficiency for moving large amounts of data between disconnected computers. They can handle multiple terabytes of data in a single transfer with better speed than most alternatives.
C) Bluetooth connections are wireless but extremely slow for large data transfers, with Bluetooth 5.0 theoretical maximum speeds of only 2 Mbps (0.25 MB/s). Transferring gigabytes of data over Bluetooth would take hours or days. Bluetooth is suitable for small files like photos or documents but impractical for large datasets.
D) An Ethernet crossover cable can create a direct network connection between two computers at speeds up to 1 Gbps for Gigabit Ethernet, which is reasonably fast. However, this requires both computers to be physically adjacent, powered on simultaneously, and configured with compatible network settings. While viable, it’s less convenient than simply moving an external hard drive between computers and may be slower for very large transfers than modern USB interfaces.
Alternative considerations include network-attached storage if a local network were available, cloud storage if internet access existed, or burning data to Blu-ray discs for long-term archival, though optical media is slow and limited in capacity per disc.
Question 191:
A technician is configuring a new email account on a mobile device. The user wants to ensure that emails remain on the server and are accessible from multiple devices. Which protocol should the technician configure?
A) POP3
B) IMAP
C) SMTP
D) HTTPS
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Email protocols serve different purposes in the email ecosystem, and understanding their characteristics is crucial for proper configuration. The scenario specifically requires that emails remain on the server and remain accessible from multiple devices, which points to a specific protocol designed for this purpose.
IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is specifically designed for multi-device email access with server-side message storage. Unlike older protocols that download messages to a single device, IMAP maintains all emails, folders, and message states on the email server. When users interact with their email through any device, they’re actually manipulating the server copies. Changes made on one device (reading, deleting, moving, or organizing emails) are immediately synchronized across all devices accessing the same account.
This server-centric approach provides several advantages. Users can start reading an email on their smartphone, continue on their laptop, and finish on their tablet with complete continuity. The email server becomes the single source of truth for the mailbox state. IMAP also conserves local storage space since only message headers and selected content are cached locally, with full messages remaining on the server until explicitly downloaded.
IMAP operates typically on port 143 for unencrypted connections and port 993 for SSL/TLS encrypted connections. Modern email configuration should always use encrypted IMAP to protect credentials and message content during transmission. Most major email providers including Gmail, Outlook.com, Yahoo Mail, and business email servers support IMAP as the recommended protocol for mobile and multi-device access.
A) POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) downloads emails from the server to the local device and typically deletes them from the server afterward. While some configurations can leave copies on the server, POP3 fundamentally treats email as something downloaded to a single device. Messages read on one device won’t show as read on another, and deleted messages may remain on other devices.
B) This is the correct answer. IMAP keeps all messages on the server and synchronizes mailbox state across all connected devices, perfectly matching the requirement for server retention and multi-device accessibility. This is the standard protocol for modern multi-device email access.
C) SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used exclusively for sending outgoing mail, not receiving it. Every email client needs SMTP configured to send messages, but it does not handle receiving or storing incoming messages. SMTP typically uses port 25, 465, or 587.
D) HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is a web protocol used for secure web browsing and web-based services. While webmail interfaces use HTTPS to access email through browsers, HTTPS itself is not an email protocol for configuring native email clients on mobile devices.
Proper email configuration on mobile devices requires configuring both an incoming protocol (IMAP or POP3) and SMTP for outgoing mail. Technicians should also configure appropriate security settings including SSL/TLS encryption, app-specific passwords for accounts with two-factor authentication, and proper server addresses and port numbers. Many email providers now offer automatic configuration profiles that simplify this process.
Question 192:
A user is unable to print to a network printer. The printer is powered on, connected to the network, and other users can print successfully. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?
A) Printer driver installation on the user’s computer
B) Network cable connection to the printer
C) Paper and toner levels in the printer
D) Print spooler service on the print server
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Troubleshooting network printing issues requires systematic analysis of where the problem lies in the printing chain. The scenario provides critical information: the printer is powered on, connected to the network, and other users can print successfully. These facts eliminate several potential causes and point toward an issue specific to the individual user’s computer rather than the printer or network infrastructure.
When other users can print successfully to the same printer, this confirms that the printer hardware, network connection, print server, and shared printer configuration are all functioning correctly. The problem must therefore be isolated to the specific user’s computer or their connection to the printing infrastructure. The most common cause of individual user printing failures is missing, corrupted, or incorrect printer drivers on their computer.
Printer drivers are software components that translate application print requests into printer-specific commands. Each printer model requires its own driver, and these drivers must be properly installed on the user’s computer for printing to work. If drivers are missing, outdated, corrupted, or configured for a different printer model, print jobs will fail. Common symptoms include print jobs that disappear from the queue immediately, error messages about unavailable printers, or print jobs that remain stuck in the queue.
Checking printer driver installation is quick, non-invasive, and addresses the most probable cause given the scenario. The technician can verify whether the printer appears in the user’s installed printers list, check if the correct driver is installed, and confirm the printer is set as available rather than offline. If problems are found, reinstalling or updating drivers often resolves the issue immediately.
A) This is the correct answer. Since other users can print successfully, the printer and network infrastructure are working. The issue is isolated to this specific user, making printer driver problems on their computer the most likely cause and the logical first thing to check.
B) The network cable connection to the printer cannot be the issue because the scenario explicitly states other users can print successfully and the printer is connected to the network. If the network cable were disconnected or faulty, no users could print.
C) Paper and toner levels affect all users equally. If the printer were out of paper or toner, all users would experience printing problems, not just one individual. The fact that others can print eliminates consumables as the cause.
D) The print spooler service on the print server manages print queues for all users. If this service were malfunctioning, all users would experience problems, not a single user. The successful printing by others confirms the print server is functioning properly.
Additional troubleshooting steps if driver checks don’t resolve the issue include verifying network connectivity from the user’s computer, checking if the printer is paused or offline in their printer settings, testing with a different user account on the same computer to rule out profile corruption, and examining Windows Event Viewer for printing-related error messages. The key principle is following the evidence provided in the scenario to isolate where the problem exists.
Question 193:
Which of the following network types is characterized by covering a large geographical area such as multiple cities or countries?
A) LAN
B) WAN
C) PAN
D) MAN
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Computer networks are classified by their geographical scope and organizational structure. Understanding these classifications helps technicians and network administrators select appropriate technologies, plan network infrastructure, and troubleshoot connectivity issues. The question asks specifically about networks covering large geographical areas spanning multiple cities or countries.
Wide Area Networks (WANs) are specifically designed to connect networks across large geographical distances. Unlike local networks confined to buildings or campuses, WANs can span cities, states, countries, or even continents. The internet itself is the largest WAN, connecting networks globally. Organizations use WANs to connect branch offices, data centers, and remote sites, enabling unified communications and resource sharing despite physical separation.
WAN technologies differ significantly from LAN technologies due to the distances involved. WANs typically use telecommunications infrastructure including leased lines, MPLS circuits, fiber optic cables, microwave links, and satellite connections. Because organizations don’t own the physical infrastructure between locations, WAN connectivity usually involves service agreements with telecommunications providers. This contrasts with LANs where organizations typically own and control all networking equipment.
Common WAN connection types include T1/T3 lines, Metro Ethernet, MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching), SD-WAN (Software-Defined WAN), VPN connections over the internet, and cellular data networks. WANs generally operate at lower speeds than LANs due to distance limitations and cost considerations, though modern fiber optic WAN connections can achieve very high speeds. Latency is also higher in WANs because signals must travel greater distances.
A) LAN (Local Area Network) covers a small geographical area such as a home, office building, or campus. LANs typically use Ethernet or Wi-Fi technologies and are characterized by high speeds, low latency, and complete ownership by a single organization. They do not span multiple cities.
B) This is the correct answer. WAN (Wide Area Network) specifically describes networks covering large geographical areas including multiple cities, states, or countries. This matches the description in the question exactly.
C) PAN (Personal Area Network) covers an extremely small area, typically within a few meters of an individual person. Examples include Bluetooth connections between a smartphone and wireless earbuds, or USB connections between a computer and peripheral devices. PANs are the smallest network type.
D) MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) covers a city or metropolitan area, larger than a LAN but smaller than a WAN. A university with multiple campus locations throughout a city connected by fiber might use a MAN. This doesn’t extend to multiple cities or countries.
Network types form a hierarchy based on scale: PAN (personal), LAN (building/campus), MAN (city), and WAN (regional/national/global). Modern cloud computing has somewhat blurred these distinctions, as organizations increasingly connect to cloud services over the internet (a WAN) rather than building private connections between physical locations. Understanding these classifications helps in selecting appropriate networking technologies and designing effective network architectures.
Question 194:
A technician needs to dispose of several hard drives that contain sensitive company data. Which of the following methods provides the MOST secure data destruction?
A) Formatting the drives
B) Deleting all files and emptying the recycle bin
C) Using drive wiping software with multiple passes
D) Physical destruction through shredding
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Data security doesn’t end when devices reach end-of-life. Improper disposal of storage media containing sensitive information can lead to data breaches, identity theft, regulatory violations, and significant financial and reputational damage. Understanding proper data destruction methods is essential for IT professionals and is covered in the CompTIA A+ security domain.
Physical destruction through shredding, crushing, or incineration represents the most secure method of data destruction because it makes data recovery completely impossible. Industrial hard drive shredders reduce drives to pieces typically smaller than one centimeter, destroying platters, circuit boards, and all components beyond any possibility of reconstruction. Even the most sophisticated data recovery techniques cannot extract information from physically destroyed media.
Specialized data destruction services use industrial shredders specifically designed for electronic media. These machines exceed the security requirements established by organizations like NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology) and DoD (Department of Defense). After shredding, the resulting material is typically recycled for metal recovery. Many services provide certificates of destruction documenting the date, method, and serial numbers of destroyed devices for compliance and audit purposes.
Physical destruction is particularly important for drives that may have hardware failures preventing software-based wiping methods from working properly. A drive with a damaged controller or read/write heads cannot be reliably wiped using software, but physical destruction still ensures complete data destruction. Regulatory requirements in industries like healthcare (HIPAA), finance (SOX, GLBA), and government often mandate physical destruction for media containing highly sensitive data.
A) Formatting a drive only removes the file system structure and references to files, but the actual data remains on the platters until overwritten. Data recovery software can easily restore files from formatted drives because the magnetic patterns representing data are still intact. Formatting provides minimal security.
B) Deleting files and emptying the recycle bin only removes directory entries pointing to the files. The data itself remains physically present on the drive and is completely recoverable using basic data recovery tools. This method provides essentially no security for sensitive data.
C) Drive wiping software that overwrites all sectors multiple times (typically 3-7 passes) provides good security and makes data recovery extremely difficult or impossible with current technology. However, it requires the drive to be fully functional, takes considerable time for large drives, and some theoretical recovery methods might extract data from residual magnetic patterns.
D) This is the correct answer. Physical destruction through shredding provides absolute certainty of data destruction by making the storage media physically unreadable. No data recovery method can extract information from shredded components, making this the most secure disposal method.
Additional considerations include degaussing (using powerful magnetic fields to randomize magnetic patterns on drives), which is effective but doesn’t work for solid-state drives that don’t store data magnetically. For SSDs, physical destruction is even more critical because wear-leveling algorithms may leave data in areas not accessible to standard wiping software. Organizations should maintain documented data destruction policies, track disposed devices, use certified destruction services, and retain certificates of destruction for compliance purposes.
Question 195:
A user reports that their laptop screen is flickering intermittently. The flickering stops when the display angle is adjusted. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) Failing graphics card
B) Loose or damaged display cable
C) Incorrect display driver
D) Failing LCD backlight
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Laptop display issues can stem from various hardware or software problems. Effective troubleshooting requires analyzing symptom patterns to identify the root cause. This scenario provides a critical diagnostic clue: the flickering is intermittent and changes with display angle adjustment. This pattern strongly suggests a physical connection problem rather than component failure or software issues.
The display cable, also called the LVDS (Low-Voltage Differential Signaling) cable or eDP (Embedded DisplayPort) cable in newer models, connects the motherboard’s graphics output to the LCD panel. This flexible ribbon cable runs through the laptop’s hinge mechanism, experiencing constant flexing and movement as the screen opens and closes. Over time, this repeated mechanical stress can damage the cable, causing intermittent connectivity issues.
When a display cable becomes loose or develops internal breaks in its conductors, the connection between motherboard and display becomes unstable. Moving the display changes the physical stress on the cable, temporarily improving or worsening the connection. This explains why adjusting the screen angle affects the flickering. The symptom pattern of position-dependent behavior is pathognomonic for physical connection issues rather than component failures.
Display cable problems manifest in various ways including flickering, horizontal or vertical lines, complete display loss, color distortion, or sections of the screen going black. The specific symptoms depend on which conductors within the cable are affected. Video signals use multiple data lines, and partial cable damage may affect only some of these lines, creating varied symptoms.
A) A failing graphics card would typically cause consistent problems regardless of display angle. Graphics card failures manifest as artifacts, distortion, blue screens, driver crashes, or complete display failure, but these symptoms don’t change when adjusting the physical screen position. External monitor testing can rule out graphics card problems.
B) This is the correct answer. The position-dependent flickering that changes when adjusting the display angle is characteristic of a loose or damaged display cable. The physical movement temporarily improves or worsens the intermittent connection, explaining the symptom pattern perfectly.
C) Incorrect or corrupted display drivers cause software-related display issues such as wrong resolution, missing refresh rate options, or system crashes. Driver problems don’t create intermittent flickering that responds to physical screen positioning. Driver issues remain consistent regardless of mechanical factors.
D) A failing backlight causes dimming, complete darkness, or brightness flickering, but backlight issues are typically consistent or gradually worsen over time. Backlight problems don’t change based on screen angle adjustment. Additionally, the question describes flickering rather than brightness variations, which further supports a cable issue.
Repair typically involves disassembling the laptop to access the display cable connections, reseating the connectors at both ends, or replacing the damaged cable entirely. This repair requires careful disassembly following manufacturer procedures, as laptop construction varies significantly between models. Some laptops require complete screen assembly removal while others allow cable access through the hinge cover. Preventive measures include avoiding excessive force when opening the display and not opening beyond the designed angle range.